Testicular Path Flashcards
What is “Cryptoorchidism”?
Failure of the testicles to descend into the scrotal sac. Most common congenital male abnormality.
How is Cryptoorchidism treated?
Generally treated on its own spontanously however if the testes fails to descend after the age of two it can be surgically repaired. If testicles do not descend there is increased risk of testicular atrophy, with infertility and increased risk for Seminomas. (The temperature of the body is higher than temperature in scrotal sac).
What is “Orchitis” and what causes it?
Inflammation of the testicles, classically seen in Chlamydia infections (serotypes D-K). Also Gonorrhea, E. Coli, Pseudomonas, (seen in older males with UTIs) mumps, and “Autoimmune orchitis.”
What are the 4 areas of infection of the Mumps virus?
Inflames the parotid glands classically, but can also infect the meninges (aseptic meningitis), pancreatitis, and orchitis (increased risk of infertility).
What is the hallmark of autoimmune orchitis?
Granulomas that involve the tubules of the testicles. This can be TB as well, but that can be accounted for by an AFB stain, and TB generally produces necrotizing granulomas.
What is “Testicular Torsion?”
Twisting of the spermatic cord, leading to hemorrhagic infarction.
Why does testicular torsion occur?
It is due to the failure of the testis to attach to the inner lining of the scrotum, happens congenitally. Artery is thick walled so blood will flow in but the vein is thin so blood wont go out, hence the hemorrhagic infarction.
What are the 2 requirements needed to have a hemorrhagic infarction?
Blood enters a dead tissue, and a loosely organized tissue.
How does testicular torsion persent?
Presents in adolescents with sudden testicular pain and an absent cremasteric reflex.
What is a Varicocele?
Dilation of spermatic vein due to improper drainage.
How do varicoceles present?
Presents as scrotal swelling with “bag of worms” appearance. Seen in a large percentage of infertile males.
What side does varicoceles tend to present in and what is it associated with?
Usually presents left sided, and is associated with left sided renal cell carcinoma.
What is the anatomic difference between the sparmatic vein on left and right side?
On left side the spermatic vein drains into the renal vein which drains into the IVC, whereas in the right side the spermatic vein drains directly into the IVC. Thus there is an increased risk of varicoceles on the left spermatic vein when the left renal vein gets occluded or invaded by renal cell carcinoma.
What is a “Hydrocele?”
Fluid collection in the tunica vaginalis, which is the serosa of the testis, somewhat like a pouch that connects the testis to the scrotum. If incorrectly closed off from the peritoneum fluid can collect.
What are the reasons for hydroceles in adults and infants?
In infants the tunica vaginalis did not close off properly and as a result the fluid is collecting from the peritoneum into the tunica vaginalis. In adults, this is associated with blockage of lymphatic drainage, classically.
How does hydroceles present?
Presents as scrotal swelling that can be transluminated (light can be shown through the scrotum and it will come out the other side because there is no mass.
What are the 2 broad origins of testicular tumors?
Germ cell tumor and sex cord stromal tumor.
How do patients with testicular tumor present?
Presents as a firm, painless testicular mass that cannot be transilluminated.
Can testicular tumors be biopsied?
It should not be biopsied because first of all in 95% of the cases it is a germ cell tumor, ergo malignant. Secondly by removing the mass we run the risk of seeding the scrotum as well.
What are the risk factors for testicular germ cell tumors?
Cryptorchidism and Klienfelter’s syndrome.