Test Study Flashcards

1
Q

This is an example of what kind of signal?

A

Analog Signal

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2
Q

This is an example of what kind of signal?

A

Digital Signal

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3
Q

MP3
Audio CD
DVD
HDTV
Blu-ray video
UHD 4k video (uncompressed)
All of these require what?

A

Bit Rates

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4
Q

What is a digital media file Container?

A

The container (such as AVI, which stands for Audio Video Interleaved) is the structure of the file where the data is stored. The container holds the metadata (data about the data) describing how the data is arranged and which codecs are used.

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5
Q

What is a digital media file Codec?

A

The codec provides the method for encoding (compressing) and decoding (decompressing) the file. Many video and audio codecs are in use today, with new ones constantly being created. In some cases, the codec must be installed in the operating system to play the file.

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6
Q

What is the difference between Reamplification and Repeating?

A

A reamplifier reamplifies analog signals after degradation, while a repeater restates digital signals after degradation.

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7
Q

In a digital signal, the on state is represented by ___?
A. Two; one
B. One; two
C. Zero; one
D. One; zero

A

D. In a digital signal, the on state is represented by one, and the off state is represented by zero.

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8
Q

A signal that has many varying states is called a(n) ________ signal.
A. Analog
B. Fluctuating
C. Dimmer
D. Digital

A

A. A signal that has many varying states is an analog signal.

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9
Q

Bit depth is defined as the number of _____ you have in which to describe the value.
A. Signals
B. Speeds
C. States
D. Rates

A

C. Bit depth is defined as the number of states you have in which to describe the value.

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10
Q

Lossy compression is particularly suitable for the transmission of _______.
A. Spreadsheets
B. Text files
C. Financial data
D. Audio, video, and images

A

D. Lossy compression is particularly suitable for the transmission of audio, video, and images.

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11
Q

What is a codec?
A. A structure of data containment
B. A formatting system
C. A program that holds data
D. A device or processing system that encodes and decodes data

A

D. A codec is a device or processing system that encodes and decodes data.

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12
Q

As noise is introduced along a(n) ____
signal path, processing circuitry can
determine whether the signal is intended to be high or low and then retransmit a solid signal without the imposed noise.
A. Digital
B. Dirty
C. Analog
D. Clean

A

A. As noise is introduced along a digital signal path, processing circuitry can determine whether the signal is intended to be high or low and then retransmit a solid signal without the imposed noise.

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13
Q

Noise overcomes the signal after many generations of re-amplification of a(n)
_____ signal.
A. Digital
B. Analog
C. Low
D. High

A

B. Noise overcomes the signal after many generations of re-amplification of an analog signal.

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14
Q

What is this graph measuring?

A

Wavelength

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15
Q

If a wavelength is 20Hrz, is it high or low frequency?

A

It is high frequency. The higher the number the higher the frequency.

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16
Q

What is the formula for the decibel measurement of power?

A

dB = 10 x log10 (P1/P2)

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17
Q

What is the decibel measurement for voltage?

A

dB = 20 × log(V1/V2)

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18
Q

What is the decibel measurement for distance?

A

dB = 20 × log(D1/D2)

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19
Q

What is Omnidirectional sound?

A

Sound pickup is uniform in all directions.

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20
Q

What is Cardioid (unidirectional) sound?

A

Pickup is primarily from the front of the microphone (one direction) in a cardioid pattern. It rejects sounds coming from the side, but the most rejection is at the rear of the microphone. The term cardioid refers to the heart-shaped polar patterns.

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21
Q

What is Hypercardioid sound?

A

A variant of the cardioid, this type is more directional than the regular cardioid because it rejects more sound from the side. The trade-off is that some sound will be picked up directly at the rear of the microphone.

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22
Q

What is Supercardioid sound?

A

This type provides better directionality than the hypercardioid, as its rejection from the side is better. It also has more rear pickup than the hypercardioid.

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23
Q

What is Bidirectional sound?

A

Pickup is equal in opposite directions, with little or no pickup from the sides. This is sometimes also referred to as a figure-eight pattern because of the shape of its polar patterns.

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24
Q

Describe the characteristics of Compressors.

A

They reduce the level of all signals above an adjustable threshold. In other words, they keep loud signals from being too loud.
• The amount of reduction above the threshold is derermined by an adjustable ratio
• The reduction reduces the variation between highest and lowest signal levels, resulting in a compressed (smaller) dynamic range.
• They can be used to prevent signal distortion.

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25
Q

Describe the characteristics of Limiters.

A

• They limit the level of all signals above an adjustable threshold. In other words, they prevent high-amplitude signals from getting through.
• Limiting is used to prevent damage to components such as loudspeakers.
• They are triggered by peaks or spikes in the audio signal (like a dropped microphone), and they react quickly to cut them off before they exceed a certain point.
• The amount of limiting above the threshold is determined by a more aggressive ratio than a compressor reduction ratio.
• The reduction limits the variation between highest and lowest signal levels, resulting in a limited dynamic range.

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26
Q

Describe the characteristics of Expanders.

A

• They reduce the level of all signals below an adjustable threshold.
• The amount of reduction below the threshold is determined by an adjustable ratio.
• The signal-level reduction increases the variation between highest and lowest signal levels, resulting in an increased dynamic range.
• They are used for reducing unwanted background noise.

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27
Q

Describe the characteristics of Gates.

A

• They can be thought of as an extreme downward expander.
• They mute the level of all signals below an adjustable threshold.
• Signal levels must exceed the threshold setting before they are allowed to pass.
• They can be used to automatically turn off unused microphones.

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28
Q

Describe the characteristics of Filters.

A

• They filter (attenuate) certain frequencies from a signal.
• A notch filter “notches out” (attenuates) a specific narrow-frequency range.
• Low-pass filters pass the low-frequency content of a signal and attenuate the high-frequency range.
• High-pass filters pass the high-frequency content of the signal and attenuate the low-frequency range.

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29
Q

What is a Graphic equalizer?

A

A common graphic equalizer is the 1/3-octave equalizer, which provides 30 or 31 slider adjustments corresponding to specific fixed frequencies with fixed bandwidths. The frequencies are centered at every one-third of an octave. The numerous adjustment points allow for shaping the overall frequency response of the system to produce the required effect. The graphic equalizer is so named because the adjustment controls provide a rough visual, or graphic, representation of the frequency adjustments.

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30
Q

What is a Parametric equalizer?

A

A parametric equalizer offers greater flexibility than a graphic equalizer. Not only does the parametric equalizer provide boost and cut capabilities, as does the graphic equalizer, but it also allows center frequency and filter bandwidth (often called the filter’s O adjustments.
A simple parametric equalizer can be found on the input of many audio mixers.

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31
Q

An audio digital signal processor (DSP) is a microprocessor-based device that analyzes the incoming digital audio streams and performs mathematical manipulations and transformations on the signals to produce a range of functions, may include what?

A

• Mixing
• Automated level control
• Filtering
• Equalization
• Limiting
• Compression and/or expansion
• Time delay
• Pitch shifting
• Echo cancellation
• Feedback suppression
• Temporal manipulation
• Matrix routing and mixing
• Loudspeaker processing

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32
Q

What are typical loudspeaker voltage levels?

A

• 4 volts or more for typical sound systems
• Up to 70 or 100 volts in a distributed sound system
• More than 100 volts in extremely large venues

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33
Q

What are the primary functions of loudspeakers?

A

• Communication
Simple public address, intercom, evacuation and warning
systems, and radio communications
•Sound reinforcement Lectures, presentations, musical performances, concerts, theater productions, artist foldback
• Sound reproduction
Playback of prerecorded material such as music and video
soundtracks.

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34
Q

What are the three most common loudspeaker impedance ratings?

A

4 Ohms
8 Ohms
16 Ohms

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35
Q

What can knowing a speakers impedance help with?

A

• Achieve optimum system volume
• Avoid wasting power
• Avoid overloading and damaging your power amplifier
• Prevent damage to your loudspeakers
• Reduce distortion and noise
• Avoid uneven sound distribution

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36
Q

What is the difference between a balanced and unbalanced circuit?

A

Balanced circuits send signal over multiple lines that combine to form a full, uninterrupted signal.
Unbalanced circuits send signal over a single line, allowing interference and spiking to pass through the circuit.

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37
Q

How sound moves through the air is called _____.
A. Generation
B. Compression
C. Acoustical
D. Propagation

A

D. How sound moves through the air is called propagation.

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38
Q

Wavelength is the _____.
A. Number of times a wavelength cycle occurs per second
B. Intensity or loudness of a sound in a particular medium
C. Physical distance between two points of a waveform that are exactly one cycle apart
D. Cycle when molecules move from rest through compression to rest to rarefaction

A

C. Wavelength is the physical distance between two points of a waveform that are exactly one cycle apart.

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39
Q

Which of the following does OdB SPL describe?
A. The threshold of human hearing
B. Ambient noise level
C. The threshold of pain
D. Normal listening level

A

A. OdB SPL describes the threshold of human hearing.

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40
Q

A “just noticeable” change in sound pressure level, either louder or softer, requires a ______ change.
A. +/-10dB
B. +/-6dB
C. +/-1dB
D. +/-3dB

A

D. A “just noticeable” change in sound pressure level, either louder or softer, requires a +/-3dB change.

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41
Q

Acoustics covers how sound is _______, and its _______ and _____.
A. Received; effects; structure
B. Produced; propagation; control
C. Controlled; delivery; translation
D. Produced; amplification; reception

A

B. Acoustics covers how sound is produced and its propagation and control.

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42
Q

Numerous, persistent reflections of sound are called ______.
A. Directional sound
B. Echo
C. Surface reflection
D. Reverberation

A

D. Numerous, persistent reflections of sound are called reverberation.

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43
Q

Ambient noise is sound that ______ the desired message or signal.
A. Interferes with
B. Completely blocks
C. Enhances
D. Is louder than

A

A. Ambient noise is sound that interferes with the desired message or signal.

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44
Q

The audio signal ends up in a(n)
______ before being converted into acoustical energy.
A. Output device
B. Electrical signal
C. Processor
D. Microphone

A

A. The audio signal ends up in an output device before being converted into acoustical energy.

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45
Q

The strength of the electrical audio signal from a microphone is called a(n) _____-level signal.
A. Dynamic
B. Condenser
C. Electret
D. Mic

A

D. The strength of the electrical audio signal from a microphone is called a mic-level signal.

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46
Q

Phantom power is the ________ required to power a condenser microphone.
A. Polarized conductor
B. Electrical field
C. Remote power
D. Internal capacitor

A

C. Phanton power is the remote power required to power a condenser microphone.

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47
Q

Typically, what type of connector finishes the shielded twisted-pair cable?
A. XRL,
B. RXL
C. IRX
D. XLR

A

D. An XLR connector typically finishes the shielded twisted-pair cable.

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48
Q

The simultaneous use of multiple wireless microphone systems requires ______.
A. Frequency coordination
B. Multiple receivers all tuned to the same frequency
C. Using lavalier microphones
D. Using IR wireless microphones

A

A. The simultaneous use of multiple wireless microphone systems requires frequency coordination.

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49
Q

If a technician changes the level of a signal, it is called _____.
A. Unity gain
B. Gain adjustment
C. Attenuation
D. Signal expansion

A

B. If a technician changes the level of a signal, it is called gain adjustment.

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50
Q

The amplifier comes right before _____ in the audio system chain.
A. The equalizer
B. Everything
C. The audio processor
D. The loudspeakers

A

D. The amplifier comes right before the loudspeakers in the audio system chain.

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51
Q

What is a crossover?
A. A loudspeaker containing multiple drivers
B. A loudspeaker enclosure with more than one frequency range
C. An electrical frequency dividing network circuit
D. A single driver reproducing the entire frequency range

A

C. A crossover is an electrical frequency-dividing network circuit.

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52
Q

What kind of circuit does this represent?

A

DC (direct current) Circuit

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53
Q

What kind of circuit does this represent?

A

AC (alternate current) Circuit

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54
Q

What kind of circuit does this represent?

A

Series Circuit

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55
Q

What kind of circuit does this represent?

A

Parallel Circuit

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56
Q

What does this graph illustrate?

A

Visible light spectrum within the electromagnetic spectrum.

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57
Q

What is Candela per square meter or Nit?

A

Sometimes referred to as the Nit (nt), the
candela per square meter is the international unit of luminance. A nit is equal to a luminance of 1 candela per square meter.

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58
Q

What is the definition of Candela?

A

The candela is the base unit of luminous intensity. It is the amount of light emitted by a light source that just happens (after a bit of manipulation of the specification) to have a similar output to a historic standard wax candle. That’s why it’s called candela, which is the Latin word for candle.

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59
Q

What is the definition of Lumen?

A

The lumen is the unit of luminous flux the quantity of photons emitted from a 1 candela light source through an area of 1 square meter on a sphere 1 meter in radius surrounding that light source. Lumens are the most common unit of measurement of light output from a projector or a light source.

However, different organizations measure lumens by different methods. The most commonly quoted standard for the lumen measurement worldwide is the method specified by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI, despite no longer being the international standard method.

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60
Q

What is the difference between an incident meter and a reflected meter?

A

Incident meters measure the light coming directly from a source such as a lamp, projector, lighting fixture, digital sign, video wall, or monitor.

Reflected meters, or spot meters, measure the light that bounces off an object like a projection screen, a wall, a participant in a video conference, or a work surface.

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61
Q

What is the definition of Lux?

A

Lux is the standard international unit of illuminance, the measure of the luminous flux (lumens) falling on a specified area. One lux is equal to 1 lumen/ square meter. Generally, illuminance is measured at a task area such as a video screen. a note-taking location or a work area.

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62
Q

What is the definition of Foot-candle?

A

The foot-candle (fc) is the U.S. customary measurement of illuminance. One foot-candle is equal to 1 lumen/square foot. One foot-candle equals approximately 10.76 lux. One lux equals approximately 0.093fc.

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63
Q

What is the definition of Foot-lambert?

A

The foor-lambert (A) is the U.S. customary unit of measurement for luminance. It is equal to 1/n candela per square foot. A foot-lambert is approximately 3.43 candela per square meter.

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64
Q

What are the three dimensions of color?

A

• Hue The underlying spectrum color- red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, or violet)
• Value/brightness The grayscale value of the color-its position on the scale between white and black
• Saturation/Chroma The saturation or amount of the hue its position on the scale between a pale, pastel tint and a strong, bold color

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65
Q

What cable type incorporates the signals of HDMI, Ethernet, control protocols, USB, and 100W of DC power into a single standard UT (Category 5e and beyond) cable, terminated in a standard modular Ethernet connector (8P8C known as RJ45).

A

HDbaseT

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66
Q

What cable type is a set of serial data standards developed by the Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers (SMPTE) to transport digital video data over the BNC-terminated 758 coaxial cable originally used for professional analog video?

A

Serial Digital Interface (SDI)

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67
Q

What is a network transport protocol that can carry any form of data formats over data networks.

A

Ethernet

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68
Q

What is the formula for signal bandwidth in Hrz?

A

[(TP x FR)/2] × 3
(TP = total number of pixels)
(FR = frame rate)

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69
Q

What is the definition of a Reflective display?

A

Front-screen projection uses the reflective method. The light from a projector reflects off a screen and hits our eyes. Reflective applications allow for the possibility of large displays and are easy to install. However, front projection has a lower contrast ratio than other methods, and because the projector is located in the room, it creates potential for fan and projector noise in the audience area.

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70
Q

What is the definition of an Emissive display?

A

LED, organic light-emitting display (OLED), and microLED displays use the emissive method. The light is created by the individual elements of the display and sent directly outward.

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71
Q

What is lens Refraction?

A

Refraction is the bending or changing of the direction of a light ray when passing through the boundary between different materials, such as between glass and air. How much light refracts, meaning how great the angle of refraction, is called the refractive index. The refractive indexes of the materials used in a lens have an impact on the image quality from that lens.

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72
Q

What is lens Disruption?

A

Dispersion can be seen when a white light beam passes through a triangular prism. The different wavelengths of light refract at different angles, dispersing the light into its individual components. Lenses with strong dispersion can produce images with color fringes, known as chromatic aberration.

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73
Q

What is lens Spherical Aberration?

A

Light passing through the edge of a spherical lens leaves the lens at a different angle to the light passing through the center of the lens and so has a different focal length. The resulting distortion is called spherical aberration.

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74
Q

What is lens Curvature of Field?

A

Curvature of field results in blurry appearance around the edge of an otherwise in-focus object (or the reverse). This is the result of a curved lens that projects a curved image field onto a flat surface such as projection screen. The more steeply curved the projection lens and the closer it is to the screen, the more noticeable is the effect. Very short focal length (wide angle) spherical lenses have steep curves.

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75
Q

What are the most common display ratios?

A

4:3
16:9
16:10

1.3333:1
1.7777:1
1.60:1

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76
Q

What is 3DPL?

A

Similarly to a 3LCD system, light from the projector’s light source is split into the three video primary colors- red, green, and blue. Each color of light is directed at a separate DMD chip, which creates the pixel pattern for that color component of the image. The images from the three DMD chips are optically combined to form an additive full-color image.

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77
Q

What is Single-Chip DPL?

A

In these systems, a single DMD device produces the entire image. It is alternately illuminated at high speed by the component colors usually, but not always, red, green, and blue to form an additively mixed full color image due to the viewers’ persistence of vision. The alternating colors illuminating the DMD are usually generated by passing the white light from the projector’s light source through a rapidly spinning filter wheel that has segments of each of the component colors. The color wheel is synchronized with the patterns being sent the DMD chip.

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78
Q

What is Screen Gain?

A

Screen gain is the ability of a screen to redirect light rays into a narrower viewing area, making projected images appear brighter to viewers sitting on-axis to the screen. The higher the gain number of a screen, the narrower the viewing angle over which it provides optimal brightness.

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79
Q

What are AVIXA’s four required viewing categories?

A

• Passive viewing is where the content does not require assimilation and retention of detail, but the general intent is to be understood (e.g., noncritical or informal viewing of video and data). This requires a minimum contrast ratio of 7:1.
• Basic decision-making (BDM) requires that a viewer can make decisions from the displayed image but that comprehending the informational content is not dependent upon being able to resolve every element detail (e.g., information displays, presentations containing detailed images, classrooms, boardrooms multipurpose rooms, product illustrations). This requires a minimum contrast ratio of 15:1. godstami
• Analytical decision-making (ADM) is where the viewer is fully analytically engaged with making decisions based on the details of the content right down to pixel level (e.g., medical imaging, architectural/engineering drawings, fine arts, forensic evidence, photographic image inspection). This requires a minimum contrast ratio of 50:1.
• Full-motion video is where the viewer is able to discern key elements present in the full-motion video, including detail provided by the cinematographer or videographer necessary to support the story line and intent (e.g., home theater, business screening room, broadcast post-production). This requires a minimum contrast ratio of 80:1.

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80
Q

What is the formula for calculating a Basic Decision-Making viewing situation?

A

%EH = Element height / total image height

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81
Q

What is the formula for calculating a displays Lumens?

A

L = SH x SW × AI

L = Lumens
SH = Screen height
SW = Screen width
Al = Average illuminance

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82
Q

Electromagnetic radiation is categorized by its ______.
A. Spectrum
B. Visibility
C. Vectors
D. Wavelength

A

D. Electromagnetic radiation is categorized by its wavelength.

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83
Q

Generally, a _____ measurement of incident light is taken at a task area like a video screen.
A. Lumen
B. LED
C. Foot-candle
D. Lux

A

D. Generally, a lux measurement of incident light is taken at a task area like a video screen.

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84
Q

Illumination decreases by _____ when the distance from a light source is
double.
A. 95 percent
B. 75 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 25 percent

A

B. Illumination decreases by 75 percent when the distance from a light source is doubled.

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85
Q

The amount of ambient light in a displayed environment _______.
A. Negatively affects the quality of the displayed image
B. Does not affect the quality of the displayed image
C. Improves the quality of the displayed image
D. Complements the quality of the displayed image

A

A. The amount of ambient light in a displayed environment negatively affects the quality of the displayed image.

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86
Q

The native resolution of display device is defined by its _____.
A. Contrast ratio
B. Horizontal rows and vertical columns of pixels
C. Horizontal and vertical sync signals
D. Aspect ratio

A

B. The native resolution of display device is defined by its horizontal rows and vertical columns of pixels.

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87
Q

According to the Projected Image System Contrast Ratio standard, what is the minimum contrast ratio required for viewing full-motion video?
A. 16:9
B. 15:1
C. 2.39:1
D. 80:1

A

D. According to the Projected Image System Contrast Ratio standard, the minimum contrast ratio required for viewing full-motion video is 80:1.

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88
Q

Four factors related to primary optics that influence the quality of the projected image are _____.
A. Reflection, curvature, spherical aberration, and dispersion of field
B. Reflection, dispersion, spherical aberration, and curvature of field
C. Refraction, presentation, spherical aberration, and curvature of field
D. Refraction, dispersion, spherical aberration, and curvature of field

A

D. The four factors related to primary optics that influence the quality of the projected image are refraction, dispersion, spherical aberration, and curvature of field.

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89
Q

Three of the major formats of digital signal connections are ______.
A. DVI, HDVI, and DisplayPort
B. DMI, HDVI, and DisplayPort
C. DVI, HDMI, and DisplayPort
D. DMI, HDMI, and DisplayPort

A

C. Three of the major formats of digital video connections are DVI, HDMI, and DisplayPort.

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90
Q

To measure the bandwidth of an image, you will need a _______.
A. Spectrum analyzer
B. Frequency analyzer
C. Output monitor
D. Bandwidth monitor

A

A. To measure the bandwidth of an image, you will need a spectrum analyzer.

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91
Q

Rear-screen display applications are considered ________.
A. Remissive
B. Emissive
C. Transmissive
D. Reflective

A

C. Rear-screen display applications are considered transmissive.

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92
Q

LCDs first pass light through a _____ which blocks certain light waves.
A. Transistor mask
B. Polarizer
C. Pixel grid
D. Resistor network

A

B. LCDs first pass light through a polarizer, which blocks certain light waves.

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93
Q

When selecting a display type, what should be your first step?
A. Decide if you should use an analog or digital display
B. Figure out what type of mount you will need
C. Determine the distance of the farthest viewer
D. Determine what you want to display

A

D. When selecting a display type, your first step should be to determine what you want to display.

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94
Q

The ______ the gain number of a projection screen, the _____ the image.
A. Higher; brighter
B. Lower; sharper
C. Higher; softer
D. Lower; brighter

A

A. The higher the gain number of a projection screen, the brighter the image.

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95
Q

What quality would the image have if the phase setting of a display needs adjusting?
A. Blurry only at the image center
B. Oversaturation of red and green
C. Edge of image in sharp focus
D. Fuzzy details

A

D. If the phase setting of a display needs adjusting, the details of the image will be fuzzy.

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96
Q

Name the different types of area networks.

A

Local area network (LAN):
A LAN connects devices within a confined geographical area, such as a building or living complex. A LAN is typically used to connect network devices over a short distance and generally owned or controlled by the end user.

Wireless local area network (WLAN): A WLAN is a wireless LAN.

Campus area network (CAN): A CAN connects multiple LANs in a limited geographical area such as a university campus or a cluster of buildings.

Metropolitan area network (MAN): A MAN is a communications network that covers a geographic area, such as a suburb or city.

Wide area network (WAN): A WAN covers a wide geographic area, such as a state or country. The Internet is the largest WAN it covers the earth. LANs are connected to WANs through routers, which are discussed later in this chapter.

Storage area network (SAN): A SAN is a high-speed, special-purpose network
(or subnetwork) that interconnects data-storage devices.

Virtual local area network (VLAN): A VIAN is created when network devices on separate LAN segments are joined to form a logical group, thereby spanning the logical LANs to which they are connected.

Personal area network (PAN): A PAN is a limited-range wireless network that
serves a single person or small workgroup.

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97
Q

What are the two types of fiber-optic cable?

A

• Single-mode: Single-mode means that the transmitted light travels on a single light path. You can typically identify single-mode fiber-optic cable by its yellow 0 outer protective jacket.
• Multimode: Multimode means it travels on multiple light paths. Multimode fiber-optic cable is identified by an orange jacket.

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98
Q

What are the four layers of TCP/IP?

A

• Application: The Application layer includes the functions of the Application, Presentation, and Session layers (layers 5 through 7) of the OSI model.
• Transport: The Transport layer matches the Transport layer of the OSI model.
• Internet: The Internet layer matches the function of the Network layer of the
OSI model.
• Network Access: The Network Access layer includes the functions of the Data
Link and Physical layers (layers 1 and 2) of the OSI model.

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99
Q

What are the seven layers of the OSI model?

A

Layer 1, the Physical layer, covers cabling and other connection mediums, such as patchbays and more. The Physical layer does the following:
Defines the relationship between the device and a physical means of sending data over network devices (such as a cable)
• Defines optical, electrical, and mechanical characteristics

Layer 2, the Data Link layer, includes the Ethernet standard and unique hardware addresses. Switches and Bridges operate ar this layer. The Data Link layed lues he following.
. Defines procedures for operating the communication links
. Encapsulates data into Ethernet frames
. Detects and corrects packet-transmission errors

Layer 3, the Network layer, is where the Internet Protocol (IP) comes into play. Routers and layer 3 switches operate at this level. The Network layer does the following.
. Determines how data is transferred between network devices . Routes packets according to unique network device addresses
. May provide flow and congestion control to prevent network resource depletion

Layer 4, the Transport layer, governs the transfer of data. Gateways operate at this level. The Transport layer does the following:
• Provides reliable and sequential packet delivery through error-recovery and flow-control mechanisms
• Provides connection-oriented or connectionless packet delivery
• Provides flow and congestion control to prevent network resource depletion

Layer 5, the Session layer, is the first of the upper layers and concerns the data itself, ensuring data passes properly through the network. The Session layer does the following:
• Manages user sessions and dialogues
• Controls the establishment and termination of connections between users
• Reports upper-layer errors

Layer 6, the Presentation layer, unpackages data for use by the Application layer,
It also does the following.
• Masks data format differences between dissimilar systems so they can communicate
• Specifies an architecture-independent data-transfer format
• Encodes and decodes data, encrypts and decrypts data, and compresses and decompresses data

Layer 7, the Application layer, presents data to the application software for use.
The Application layer also does the following:
• Defines an interface to user processes for communication and data transfer in a network
• Provides standardized services, such as file and job transfer, and operations

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100
Q

What is the IPv4 format?

A

The IPv4 format requires a number made up of four 8-bit “chunks,” called octets, such as the following:

192.168.1.25

This number is actually a 32-digit binary number that looks like this:

11000000.10101000.00000001.00011001

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101
Q

What is the IPv6 format?

A

Instead of using a binary numbering system consisting of four groups of octets, IPv6 uses eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers. This change in number structure raises the number of unique network addresses.

• IPv4 has 2 to the 32 power, or 4,294,967,296, potential IP addresses.

• IPv6 has 2 to the 128 power, or 340,282,366,920,938,463, 463,374,607,431,768,211,456, potential addresses.

In practice, an IPv6 address looks something like this:

FEDC:BA98:7654:3210:FEDC:BA98:7654:3210

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102
Q

What is the difference between managed and unmanaged network switches?

A

• Unmanaged: An unmanaged switch is one you simply plug in and connect devices- that’s it. There are no adjustments. It just works.

• Managed: Managed switches give the IT manager the ability to adjust port speeds, set up VLANs, set up quality of service (QoS) settings, monitor traffic, and more. Managed switches are what you will find in most complex or multifunction networks.

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103
Q

Which of the following network topologies connects devices in sequence along a linear path?
A. Bus
B. Star
C. Mesh
D. Ring

A

A. A bus network connects devices in sequence along a linear path.

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104
Q

Which IEEE standard defines Wi-Fi communications methods?
A. 802.1x
B. EIA-485
C. IPv6
D. 802.11

A

D. The IEEE 802.11 standard defines Wi-Fi communications methods.

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105
Q

What happens to the connection speed in a Wi-Fi connection if the signal strength declines?
A. Speeds up
B. Stops
C. Slows down
D. Remains constant

A

C. The connection speed in a Wi-Fi connection slows down if the signal strength declines.

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106
Q

Which of the following is a type of fiber-optic cable identified by its yellow outer jacket?
A. ST
B. SC
C. Multimode
D. Single-mode

A

D. Single-mode fiber-optic cable can be identified by its yellow outer jacket.

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107
Q

The _____ model is a guide that assists with conforming network communications and their processes to standards.
A. Network interface
B. OSI reference
C. Informal data link
D. Asynchronous transfer mode

A

B. The OSI reference model is a guide that assists with conforming network communications and their processes to standards.

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108
Q

In the OSI model, cabling and patchbays are elements of ______.
A. Layer 2, the Data Link layer
B. Layer 4, the Transport layer
C. Layer 1, the Physical layer
D. Layer 3, the Network layer

A

C. In the OSI model, cabling and patchbays are elements of layer 1, the Physical layer.

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109
Q

A _____address is unique to every device and identifies a network’s equipment.
A. Transfer mode
B. Baseband
C. Digital subscriber line
D. MAC

A

D. A MAC address is unique to every device and identifies a network’s equipment.

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110
Q

IP deals with which of the following on a network?
A. Addresses
B. Names
C. Routes
D. Versions

A

A. IP deals with addresses on a network.

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111
Q

An IPv6 address uses _____ groups of four hexadecimal numbers.
A. Three
B. Eight
C. Six
D. One

A

B. An IPv6 address uses eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers.

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112
Q

Subnet masks can indicate how many ______ are allowed on the network.
A. Computers
B. Gateways
C. Devices
D. Printers

A

C. Subnet masks can indicate how many devices are allowed on the network.

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113
Q

What is required to set an IP address manually on a network?
A. IP address and device name
B. Subnet mask and gateway
C. Subnet mask and DNS server
D. IP address and subnet mask

A

D. An IP address and subnet mask are required to set an IP address manually on a network.

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114
Q

Which type of server automatically assigns an IP address to the MAC address during the device’s connection to a network?
A. Gateway
B. Virtual private network
C. DNS
D. DHCP

A

D. A DHCP server automatically assigns an IP address to the MAC address during the device’s connection to a network.

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115
Q

Which of the following switches just needs to be plugged in and connected to
devices?
A. Unmanaged
B. LAN
C. Addressing
D. Managed

A

A. Unmanaged switches just need to be plugged in and connected to devices.

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116
Q

A _____ sends packets to different locations on a network and connects to outside networks.
A. Switch
B. Gateway
C. Bridge
D. Router

A

B. A gateway sends packets to different locations on a network and connects to outside networks.

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117
Q

A ______ controls incoming and outgoing network traffic and determines what will be allowed through based on a set of security rules.
A. Switch
B. Gateway
C. Firewall
D. Router

A

C. A firewall controls incoming and outgoing network traffic and determines what will be allowed through.

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118
Q

Used for sending audio and control signals and for supplying power. The connector is typically found on microphones, audio mixers, amplifiers, headsets, audio-processing devices, communications systems, and lighting control systems.

A

XLR

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119
Q

Used to transport signals between audio devices. It is typically found on audio patch panels, musical instruments, audio mixers, and amplifiers.

A

6.5mm (1/4-inch) phone

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120
Q

Used to carry audio or control signals on
consumer and computer devices. It is typically found on headphones, computer loudspeakers, laptop and tablet computers, personal music and multimedia devices, and a variety of other places.

A

3.5mm (1/8-inch) phone

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121
Q

Carries unbalanced video signals, audio signals, or control signals. It is found on consumer video devices, audio devices, control systems, switching systems, and signal converters.

A

RCA (phono)

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122
Q

Carries RF, composite video, and audio signals. It is commonly found on antennas, consumer video recorders, set-top boxes, and televisions.

A

F Type

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123
Q

Used for control signal.

A

DB9

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124
Q

Used for data networking, control LDBaseT multimedia, and telephone purposes. It is often found on projectors, matrix switchers, laptops, system-control devices, and network devices.

A

RJ-45 (8PSC or 8-pin, &-conductor)

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125
Q

Used to transport different types of signals, including RE, component video, time code, sync, and SDI. It is often found on wireless equipment that connects to an external antenna and on some video equipment and projectors.

A

BNC

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126
Q

A four-pole loudspeaker connector commonly used to connect amplifiers to loudspeakers in professional audio systems. The two-pole (NL2) and eight-pole (NL8) variants are also used.

A

Speakon (NL4)

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127
Q

Used for mains power connections to audio, lighting, and AV
systems.

A

PowerCon

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128
Q

Designed with screws that secure the connector to the conductors within the cable.

A

Captive screw, Euroblock, Phoenix

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129
Q

Used to carry digital and analog video, plus video control signals through a 29-pin connector.

A

DVI (Digital Visual Interface)

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130
Q

This is found on computers and monitors that use analog video signals.

A

HD15 (VGA)

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131
Q

Builds on the DVI standard by adding audio, EDID device control, HDCP content protection, and Ethernet.

A

HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface)

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132
Q

Builds on the success of DVI and uses a similar, yet not completely compatible, format to send video and audio.

A

DisplayPort

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133
Q

Used for general-purpose serial data connectionsbetween computers and their peripherals. Signals carried include video and audio streams, device control, network data, and storage access.

A

USB (Universal Serial Bus)

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134
Q

Insert and Click.

A

SC Connector

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135
Q

Insert and Twist.

A

ST Connetor

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136
Q

Push and Pull.

A

LC Connector

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137
Q

The path on which signal types travel is called _____.
A. Signal flow
B. Signal transfer route
C. Wires and cables
D. Audio and video control

A

A. The path on which signal types travel is called signal flow.

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138
Q

The purpose of shielding is to prevent _______ from mixing with the signal.
A. Insulation
B. Jackets
C. Conductors
D. Noise

A

D. The purpose of shielding is to prevent noise from mixing with the signal.

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139
Q

Which of the following differentiates cable from wire?
A. Cable contains a shield.
B. Cable contains only one conductor.
C. Cable contains multiple conductors.
D. Conductors are insulated.

A

C. Cable contains multiple conductors.

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140
Q

Twisted-pair cable using balanced circuitry can help in _____.
A. Keeping noise from audio and video
B. Blocking static
C. Preserving the original transmission
D. Rejecting interference

A

D. Twisted-pair cable using balanced circuitry can help in rejecting interference.

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141
Q

Unless amplified or buffered, digital signals generally do not travel as far as ______ signals.
A. Wireless
B. Analog
C. Fiber
D. Cable

A

B. Unless amplified or buffered, digital signals generally do not travel as far as analog signals.

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142
Q

Switchers ______.
A. Must have power to operate
B. Mix different inputs to a signal output
C. Connect multiple inputs simultaneously to one output
D. Allow the user to select one input from a number of inputs

A

D. Switchers allow the user to select one input from a number of inputs.

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143
Q

A 4 x 2 matrix switcher _____.
A. Can connect any of four inputs to one or both of two outputs
B. Must have only one output connected at any given time
C. Can connect either of two inputs to any or all of four outputs
D. Has effectively eight outputs

A

A. A 4 x 2 matrix switcher can connect any of four inputs to one or both of two outputs.

144
Q

An AV rack is a housing unit that _______ electronic equipment.
A. Identifies
B. Elevates
C. Protects and organizes
D. Cools

A

C. An AV rack is a housing unit that protects and organizes electronic equipment.

145
Q

The inside of a typical AV rack is _____ wide, and the outside varies from ______.
A. 1 foot (305mm); 2 to 7 feet (610mm to 2.13m)
B. 19 inches (482.6mm); 21 to 25 inches (533 to 635mm
C. 25 inches (635mm); 19 to 21 inches (482.6 to 533mm
D. 21 inches (533mm); 19 to 25 inches (482.6 to 635mm)

A

B. The inside of a typical AV rack is 19 inches (482.6mm) wide, and the outside varies from 21 to 25 inches (533 to 635mm).

146
Q

What are some common control system functions?

A

• Raising or lowering a projection screen

• Commanding a switcher to change an input

• Setting volume levels

• Routing a signal from one device to another

• Powering on devices

• Opening or closing drapes

• Activating various functions on a single device (play, pause, and stop)

147
Q

What are some control system programmed functions?

A

• Power up the haze and smoke machines

• Power up the effects lighting system

• Power up the show replay system

• Power up the projectors, video processor, and video displays

• Power up the speaker arrays

• Power up the animatronics system

• Switch the audio and video inputs to the preshow players

• Display the preshow video content

• Play the preshow music

• Wait 10 minutes

• Lower house light levels in the room

• Fade out the preshow music and video

• Switch the video and audio inputs to the show replay system

• Trigger the show replay system

• Turn on external “Show in Progress” signs

148
Q

What are the most common serial digital control protocols?

A

. RS-232 The Electronic Industries Association (EIA) Recommended Standard 232 (RS-232) is a point-to-point protocol that uses an unbalanced line and is thus susceptible to external noise.

• RS-422 provides a balanced, four-wire (separate transmit and receive links) serial data signaling system that enables cable runs of up to 1,200 meters (4,000 feet).

• RS-485 standard is a balanced, transmission-line serial communications protocol that supports up to 32 transmitting and receiving devices or, in some applications, 256 transmitting and receiving devices.

. USB Universal Serial Bus, among its many other applications, is a serial data signaling system that is widely used for device control in AV systems. While USB may be limited to transmission distances less than 5 meters (16 feet), there are USB-to-Ethernet adapter systems that use ICP/IP to allow USB control to be extended to any point on the Internet.

149
Q

What are the most common radio-frequency communications?

A

• Zigbee is a relatively inexpensive, low-energy, low-speed wireless communications protocol that was designed for remote device communication and control over a small area such as a house or an office, with a maximum range of about 30 meters (100 feet) line of sight.

• Wi-Fi is a general data communications protocol used for computer networking. Because of its wide implementation across most spaces where AV systems are used, and because of the wide availability of devices with integrated Wi-Fi capabilities, it is used for both control communications and data distribution.

• Bluetooth is a low-energy data communications protocol designed for personal area networking over distances up to about 10 meters (30 feet) line of sight.

150
Q

Remote control systems _____ the operation of an AV system.
A. Complicate
B. Automate
C. Reconfigure
D. Simplify

A

D. Control systems simplify the operation of an AV system.

151
Q

Which of these is not a common method of interfacing with a control system?
A. GUIs
B. Flip charts
C. Wireless touch panels
D. Wall switches

A

B. Flip charts are not a common method of interfacing with a control system.

152
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be a function rather than a program?
A. Starting a videoconference
B. Playing a video
C. Dimming the lights and starting a media player
D. Setting volume levels

A

D. Setting volume levels is more likely to be a function than a program.

153
Q

Which of the following would most likely require a program?
A. Turning on the lights
B. Activating a single function on a device
C. Powering on the audio amplifier and display
D. Setting a volume level

A

C. Powering on the audio amplifier and display would most likely be a program.

154
Q

The purpose of a control system interface is to send instructions to the _____.
A. Internet gateway
B. Network printers
C. Hard drive
D. Control system CPU

A

D. The purpose of a control system interface is to send instructions to the control system CPU.

155
Q

Communication that allows a return message is called _____.
A. Omnidirectional
B. Bidirectional
C. Multidirectional
D. Unidirectional

A

B. Communication that allows a return message is called bidirectional.

156
Q

Contact-closure control communication provides device operation by _____.
A. Increasing the power level of the electrical circuit
B. Reducing the wattage in a current loop
C. Increasing resistance in a voltage loop
D. Closing or opening an electrical contact

A

D. Contact-closure control communication provides device operation by closing or opening an electrical contact.

157
Q

Which of the following can interfere with an IR control?
A. Quality of the device
B. Strength of the power source
C. Shadows and darkness
D. Bright sunshine or fluorescent lighting

A

D. Bright sunshine or fluorescent lighting can interfere with an I control.

158
Q

Ethernet is mainly used in control systems _____.
A. To control complex systems
B. For one-way device communication
C. To create IP addresses
D. For analog devices

A

A. Ethernet is mainly used in control systems to control complex systems.

159
Q

Study fucker

A
160
Q

Voltage is the force that causes _____ to flow through a conductor.
A. Ohms
B. Neutrons
C. Watts
D. Current

A

D. Voltage is the force that causes current to flow through a conductor.

161
Q

Current is measured in _____.
A. Amperes
B. Volts
C. Ohms
D. Watts

A

A. Current is measured in amperes.

162
Q

The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit is called _______.
A. Ohms
B. Resistance
C. Impedance
D. Dissipation

A

C. The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit is called impedance.

163
Q

Power is measured in _____.
A. Voltage
B. Impedance
C. Resistance
D. Watts

A

D. Power is measured in watts.

164
Q

The relationship between voltage, current, and resistance is defined by the formula ______.
A. V= I/R
B. I= R/V
C. I= V/R
D. R= V*I

A

C. The relationship between voltage, current, and resistance is defined by the
formula I = V/R.

165
Q

A current is always seeking to return to the ______.
A. Battery
B. Load
C. Ground
D. Source

A

D. A current is always seeking to return to the source.

166
Q

The main panel distributes power using ________.
A. Distribution panels and service entrances
B. Feeders and distribution panels
C. Branch circuits and feeders
D. Service entrances and distribution panels

A

B. The main panel distributes power using feeders and distribution panels.

167
Q

At what point in the AC power system are the branch circuits that power wall outlets and AV equipment connected?
A. Lateral feed
B. Feeders
C. Main distribution
D. Subsidiary distribution panel (panelboard)

A

D. The branch circuits that power wall outlets and AV equipment are connected to the subsidiary distribution panel (panelboard).

168
Q

When planning an electrical system, do not plan to exceed _______ of the current capacity of any circuit.
A. 95 percent
B. 80 percent
C. 65 percent
D. 75 percent

A

B. When planning an electrical system, do not plan to exceed 80 percent of the current capacity of any circuit.

169
Q

What is the difference between Radio, RF, and Wireless?

A

• Radio waves are part of the spectrum of electromagnetic radiation. They are a result of the movement of electric charge (current), which generates an electric field, a magnetic field, and electromagnetic radiation.

• Radio frequency (RF) refers to any signal with a frequency in the range from 3kHz to 300GHz. An RF signal does not have to be carried by radio waves; it can be carried in a copper cable, by a laser link, by an infrared link, or in a fiber-optic cable.

• Wireless refers to any signal that is carried without a wire or a fiber-optic cable connection. Radio waves, laser beams, and infrared signals are all examples of wireless connections. The handheld infrared remote control for a projector is an example of wireless communication that does not use radio waves.

170
Q

An AC signal of _____ falls into the RF spectrum.
A. 9kHz to 300GHz
B. No less than 9kHz
C. 300GHz and below
D. 3kHz to 300GHz

A

D. An AC signal of 3kHz to 300GHz falls into the RF spectrum.

171
Q

What does the transmitter do with its incoming signal stream?
A. Modulates it to be sent out via an antenna
B. Stores and reads it
C. Demodulates it
D. Converts it so that it can be translated and received

A

A. A transmitter modulates its incoming signal stream to be sent out via antenna.

172
Q

________ is the most important step in converting data in a transmitter.
A. Transmission
B. Demodulation
C. Extraction
D. Modulation

A

D. Modulation is the most important step in converting data in a transmitter.

173
Q

The range of frequencies between 300MHz and 3GHz is the _____ band.
A. VHF
B. HF
C. VLF
D. UHF

A

D. The range of frequencies between 300MHz and 3GH Iz is the UHF band.

174
Q

One of the most efficient configurations for a vertical antenna is to _____.
“A. Have a physical length one-quarter of the signal wavelength
B. Have a wavelength one-half the size of the receiving antenna
C. Have proper orientation
D. Have a mounting close to the ground

A

A. One of the most efficient configurations for a vertical antenna is to have a Physical length one-quarter of the signal wavelength.

175
Q

The main function of a diversity receiver is to _______.
A. Amplify echoes so that the main signal is strengthened
B. Find incident and reflected signals that arrive in phase
C. Compare phase differences between signals to avoid cancellation

A

C. The main function of a diversity receiver is to compare the phase differences between signals to avoid cancellation.

176
Q

Parabolic antennas are ideal for use _____.
A. In tropical climates
B. In point-to-point communications
C. Where wide area coverage is important
D. Where the transmitters or receivers are in motion

A

B. Parabolic antennas are ideal for use in point-to-point communications.

177
Q

Who should be present when having meetings about client needs?

A

• Administrative representatives/stakeholders, including owner executives, facility managers, department heads, and funding organizations

• End users, including representatives from each organization or department that will use the new systems

• AV technology managers, representing the technical side of the dients AV operational needs

• IT representatives, to address issues in utilizing or accessing the IT system and how IT relates to the users activities

• Architects and project designers, to provide input regarding space allocation and planning

• Program, production, or construction managers, who may be stakeholders in the overall project outcome

178
Q

What does the AV professional have to consider during the needs analysis phase to determines the end users’ requires?

A

• The specific activities the end users want to accomplish within the space/room
• The required AV presentation applications based on the users’ needs
• The tasks and functions that support the applications

179
Q

What are some infrastructure issues that need to be considered when planning an AV design and install project?

A

• Space allocation

• Security

• Electrical/lighting

• Data/telecommunications

• Structural

180
Q

What is Benchmarking?

A

Benchmarking refers to the process of examining methods, techniques, and principles from peer organizations and facilities. AV designers and integrators can use these benchmarks as a basis for designing a new or renovated facility.

181
Q

When examining site drawings and diagrams, what are some important things to look for?

A

• Mechanical services drawings show the ductwork that goes through the building.

• Engineering drawings show the load-bearing and suspension points.

• Electrical drawings show locations of power and lighting.

• Engineering drawings show the location of communications and networking cabling, patch facilities, and distribution frames.

• Reflected ceiling plans depict the ceiling grid, diffusers, light fittings, sprinklers, projection system, and loudspeakers.

• Site drawings locate geographically where you will need to go to perform the installation.

182
Q

What are some constraints that will need to be taken into account before beginning a project?

A

• Limitations on times of day when on-site work is acceptable

• Limitations to on-site work activities

• Security

• Noise limitations

• Limitations on parking or loading vehicles

• Areas that require special care or attention

• Locations that present potentially dangerous conditions or require special procedures

• Ongoing construction

• Cultural issues

183
Q

Which of the following is not considered part of active listening?
A. Focusing on what the person is saying
B. Summarizing and paraphrasing the person’s statements
C. Asking frequent questions to guide the conversation to the topic you are interested in discussing
D. Maintaining eye contact with the person

A

C. Active listening includes focusing on what the person is saying, summarizing and paraphrasing the person’s statements, and maintaining eye contact with a person. It does not include asking frequent questions to guide the conversation to the topic you are interested in discussing, because the point of active listening is to actually hear what the client is trying to communicate.

184
Q

What is usually the best approach for communicating detailed technical AV plan information to a client?
A. Sending the information within an e-mail message
B. Sending the client an electronic document containing the information
C. Sending a fax message
D. Calling the client on the phone

A

B. Usually, the best approach for communicating detailed technical AV plan information to a client is to send the client an electronic document containing the information. Other methods, such as e-mail, text, messaging, or telephone conversations, are likely too informal to enable the client to review the detailed information.

185
Q

What is the most valuable source of information when defining the needs for an AV system?
A. Architectural drawings of the building
B. Feedback from benchmarking site visits
C. End-user descriptions of the tasks and applications the AV system will support
D. Client/building owner preferences for AV system equipment

A

C. The most valuable source of information when defining the needs for an AV system is usually end-user descriptions of the tasks and applications the AV system will support.

186
Q

What is the main purpose of an initial needs analysis?
A. To identify the specific equipment needs for the desired AV system
B. To determine the overall design of the AV system
C. To obtain the client’s vision of the AV system design
D. To identify the activities that the end users will perform and the functions that the AV system should provide to support these activities

A

D. The main purpose of an initial needs analysis is to identify the activities that the end users will perform and the functions that the AV system should provide to support these activities.

187
Q

How does knowledge of the overall room function assist the AV system designer in defining the client needs?
A. Provides a starting point from which to determine client needs
B. Defines the functionality that the system elements should provide
C. Provides a standard design that can be used for most clients
D. Provides a standard design template that can be given to the building architect

A

A. Knowledge of the overall room function assists the AV system designer by providing a starting point from which to determine client needs.

188
Q

How are task parameters used when defining user needs?
A. To provide overall information about the desired general AV needs
B. To define the layout of AV components within a room
C. To define the specific AV functions that the components must support
D. To define the specific AV components

A

A. Task parameters are used to provide overall information about the desired general AV needs.

189
Q

What is the purpose of benchmarking?
A. To demonstrate specific AV equipment in operation
B. To give the client an opportunity to experience a number of AV system designs that address similar needs
C. To test AV system designs
D. To evaluate AV vendors prior to final selection of a vendor

A

B. The purpose of benchmarking is to give the client an opportunity to experience a number of AV system designs that address similar needs.

190
Q

Why is it important for the AV professional to obtain a full set of building plans?
A. To understand the full range of room features to ensure that the AV system design takes other building systems and components into account.
B. To evaluate and approve plans to ensure chat room elements are compatible with the AV system installation needs.
C. To be able to use general site plans to determine the layout of the selected AV
components.
D. Detailed building plans for the rooms in which the systems will be installed are typically not required; only a general floor plan is necessary.

A

A. It is important for the AV vendor to obtain a full set of building plans because the AV designer must understand the full range of room features to ensure that the AV system design takes other building systems and components
into account.

191
Q

What client contact information should be collected during initial client meetings?
A. The main client contact
B. The client technical representative
C. Contacts that may be required for site inspection and installation, including the architect, building manager, construction manager, security manager,
IT manager, and so on
D. All of the above

A

D. The AV team should collect the full range of client contact information, including the main client contact and the client technical representative. Also, the AV team should collect information about any contacts who may be required for site inspection and installation, including the architect, building manager, construction manager, security manager, IT manager, and so on.

192
Q

How does the AV team use information about any identified constraints to the
AV design and installation tasks?
A. To select alternative AV system components that are not affected by the identified constraints
B. To inform the client that these constraints must be removed prior to installation tasks
C. To develop a work-around plan when these constraints will affect the design or installation tasks
D. To eliminate specific tasks that may be adversely impacted by constraints

A

C. The AV team uses information about any identified constraints to the AV design and installation tasks to develop a work-around plan when these constraints will affect the design or installation tasks.

193
Q

What standard safety equipment may you be required to use on the job?

A

• PPE

• Approved ladders

• Fall protection

194
Q

What are the two primary groups of drawings you will need for an AV project?

A

• Architectural drawing package: The drawings in this package illustrate the overall design of the building and rooms. These include the room layouts; features and dimensions; and locations of building systems such as HVAC, plumbing, lighting, data and communications, and electricity.

• AV project drawing package: This package provides the overall picture for an AV installation. These plans, created by the AV system designer, depict the equipment, where each component will be located, and how each component should be physically installed.

195
Q

What kind of drawing is this?

A

Plan view

196
Q

What kind of drawing is this?

A

Reflected ceiling plan

197
Q

What kind of drawing is this?

A

Elevation drawing

198
Q

What kind of drawing is this?

A

Section drawing

199
Q

What kind of drawing is this?

A

Detail drawing

200
Q

What kind of drawing is this?

A

Title block

201
Q

Site drawing abbreviations

A
202
Q

Some AV object symbols from the ANSI-J-STD-710 standard

A
203
Q

What is this symbol?

A

Elevation flag

204
Q

What is this symbol?

A

Section cut flag

205
Q

What is this symbol?

A

Detail flag

206
Q

What is this symbol?

A

Grid system symbol

207
Q

What is the difference between an Elevation drawing and a Section drawing?

A

Elevation drawings only show the wall and what’s mounted to it. Section drawings show a perspective from inside the room, including other furniture.

208
Q

US - Metric conversion

A
209
Q

When visiting a client site, the primary work site regulations governing the use of PPE are typically defined by which of the following?
A. The client
B. The AHJ (Authority having jurisdiction)
C. The client’s insurance company
D. Your company

A

B. When visiting a client site, the primary work site regulations governing the use of PPE are typically defined by the AHJ (Authority having jurisdiction). However, keep in mind that the client, the client’s insurance company, and your company may also have safety requirements that you should follow.

210
Q

Which of the following is not considered part of the safety equipment that
AV technicians should use when working at a work site?
A. PPE, such as hard hats, work boots, gloves, and safety glasses
B. Tools with nonslip handles
C. Approved nonconductive ladders
D. Fall protection

A

B. The safety equipment that AV technicians should use when working at a site include PPE (such as hard hats, work boots, gloves, and safety glasses), approved nonconductive ladders, and fall protection. Nonslip handle tools are not typically considered required safety equipment.

211
Q

What is a site survey checklist typically used to do?
A. Document the required AV system components for a client
B. Document the AV, electrical, and mechanical systems
C. Document information about client satisfaction with the AV system
D. Document general information about a client and the site that may be relevant for the AV design and installation tasks

A

D. A site survey checklist is typically used to capture general information about a client and site that may be relevant for the A system design and installation tasks.

212
Q

What type of plan drawing depicts the layout of items on the ceiling?
A. Reflected ceiling plan
B. Detail ceiling drawing
C. Reflected floor plan
D. Elevation drawing

A

A. Reflected ceiling plans depict the layout of items on the ceiling.

213
Q

What type of drawing depicts the ductwork that goes through the building?
A. Mechanical drawing
B. Reflected ceiling plan
C. Detail drawing
D. Section drawing

A

A. Mechanical drawings depict the ductwork that goes through the building.

214
Q

What type of drawing would you use to determine the characteristics of a wall to ascertain the appropriate height and location of a video display?
A. Elevation drawing
B. Reflected ceiling plan
C. Detail drawing
D. Mechanical drawing

A

A. Elevation drawings depict the characteristics of a wall using a side view, which would allow you to determine the appropriate height and location of a video display.

215
Q

What type of drawing would you use to determine what is behind a wall or above a ceiling that could interfere with your system installation plan?
A. Elevation drawing
B. Reflected ceiling plan
C. Section drawing
D. Mechanical drawing

A

C. Section drawings depict the structures behind a wall or above a ceiling that could interfere with your system installation plan.

216
Q

What drawing would you review to find out exactly how the projector should be mounted to the ceiling?
A. Reflected ceiling plan
B. Detail drawing
C. AV system schematic
D. Mechanical drawing

A

B. A detail drawing would depict exactly how the designer wants the projector mounted to the ceiling.

217
Q

Which abbreviation on a drawing tells you something on the drawing is not consistent with the scale?
A. NTS
B. NCS
C. SCN
D. NIC

A

A. The abbreviation NTS refers to “not to scale” and is used to tell you something on the drawing is not consistent with the scale.

218
Q

Which abbreviation, along with a measurement given on a drawing, tells you how high on a wall an interface plate should be installed?
A. NIC
B. FUT
C. SCN
D. AFF

A

D. The abbreviation AFF refers to “above finished floor” and would indicate how high on a wall the interface plate would be installed.

219
Q

Which type of drawing provides the best information about the ducts and piping in a facility?
A. Mechanical drawing
B. Section drawing
C. Electrical drawing
D. Structural drawing

A

A. Mechanical drawings provide the best information about the ducts and piping in a facility.

220
Q

On a drawing with a 1:50 scale, 2 centimeters equal how many meters?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1/2
D. None of the above

A

A. On a drawing with a 1:50 scale, 2 centimeters equal 100 centimeters, or 1 meter.

221
Q

On a drawing using a 1/4 scale, 6 inches equal how many feet?
A. 24
B. 8
C. 16
D. None of the above

A

A. On a drawing using a 1/4 scale, 6 inches equal 24 feet.

222
Q

What does a section cut symbol on a drawing indicate?
A. A sectional view through part of the structure
B. The number of a more detailed drawing that depicts a specific portion of a master drawing
C. A drawing that depicts items in great detail, such as equipment mounting plans
D. A view of a wall from an angle

A

A. A section cut symbol on a drawing indicates a sectional view through a part of the structure.

223
Q

Which of the following equations allows you to convert a measurement of
10 inches into an equivalent measurement in millimeters?
A. 25.4 × 10 - 254mm
B. 3.94 x 10 = 39.4mm
C. 25.4 / 10 = 2.54mm
D. 3.94 / 10 = 0.394mm

A

A. The equation 25.4 × 10 = 254mm allows you to convert a measurement of
10 inches into an equivalent measurement in millimeters.

224
Q

Which of the following equations allows you to convert a measurement of
100 millimeters into an equivalent measurement in inches?
A. 100 × 25.4 = 2540in
B. 100 × 2.54 = 254in
C. 100 / 25.4 = 3.94in
D. 100 / 2.54 = 0.394in

A

C. The equation 100 / 25.4 = 3.94in allows you to convert a measurement of
100 millimeters into an equivalent measurement in inches.

225
Q

What is the area of a space measuring 15 feet wide by 20 feet long by 10 feet high?
A. 30 square feet
B. 35 square feet
C. 300 square feet
D. 3000 square feet

A

C. The area of a space measuring 15 feet wide by 20 feet long by 10 feet high is
300 square feet (length x width).

226
Q

What is the volume of a space measuring 15 meters wide by 20 meters long by
3 meters high?
A. 39 cubic meters
B. 95 cubic meters
C. 900 cubic meters
D. 9000 cubic meters

A

C. The volume of a space measuring 15 meters wide by 20 meters long by
3 meters high is 900 cubic meters (length × width × height).

227
Q

What should an AV designer understand before beginning to plan for a project?

A

• Client’s requirements: At least initially, spaces should be designed to focus on
the client’s needs, not the system’s needs.

• Client’s processes: Designers should learn the end users processes for activities they will conduct in the space.

• Client awareness: End users and/or clients do not always understand clearly what they want or need. Clients often have a general idea of what they want an AV system to do, but they may not actually know what is possible or practical to implement.

228
Q

What are some of the most commonly required AV spaces?

A

• Boardrooms

• Conference and meeting rooms

• Huddle rooms

• Training rooms, lecture theaters, and classrooms

• Auditoriums

• Divisible spaces

• Videoconference rooms

• Courtrooms

• Museums, galleries, and exhibition spaces

• Arenas, sports complexes, and stadiums

• Houses of worship and religious education centers.

229
Q

What common room features should you take into consideration when evaluating for a project?

A

• Accessibility

• Doors

• Ceiling height

• Windows

• Interior finishes

• Static display systems

• Lighting and light levels

• Sightlines

• Electrical power

• Grounding

• Phone and networks

• Wi-Fi

• Ventilation

• Structural mountings

• Acoustics

230
Q

What are the three primary areas in most layouts?

A

• Audience area

• Presenter area

• Control and/or projection area

231
Q

When designing the audience area, what should be your main concerns?

A

• Visual

• Sound

• Ease of movement throughout the room

• Audience comfort

232
Q

When designing the presenter area, what should be you main concerns?

A

• Presenter workstation

• Presenter and equipment

• Power, voice, and data

• Sightlines

• Versatility

233
Q

When designing the control and/or projection area, what should be you main concerns?

A

• Equipment space

• Heating and cooling

• Electrical power requirements

• Voice and data

• Signal cabling

• Task lighting

• Sound isolation

• Monitoring

234
Q

What associated spaces should be taken into consideration when planning an AV design?

A

• Reception area

• Phones/network access

• Break area or lounge

• Restrooms

•Beverage and food service

• Kitchen and vending area

• Breakout room

235
Q

What are the primary factors in room reverberation?

A

• The shape of the room

• The composition of walls and other materials in the room

236
Q

What is the definition of Color temperature?

A

A numerical measure of the color of a light source compared to the light from a standard glowing object. “White” light sources each have a different mix of the colors of the visible spectrum, and color temperature is expressed in Kelvins (K). Lower color temperatures, such as 2,000K, indicate the light source produces more light at the red/orange end of the spectrum, while higher color temperatures, such as 6,000K, indicate the source produces more light at the blue/green end of the spectrum.

237
Q

What is the definition of Luminaire?

A

A complete lighting device, composed of a light source, optics, and housing. This is often called a light fixture or simply a fixture.

238
Q

What is the definition of a light “Zone?”

A

A grouping of architectural lighting fixtures that illuminate the same area.

239
Q

What is the definition of a light “Scene?”

A

A set of lighting levels that combine to create a complete lighting “look” or picture.

240
Q

What are the main concerns of the AV system designer regarding the audience area?
A. Determine whether the audience can see and hear the presentation, and determine whether movement within the seating area will be comfortable.
B. The architect addresses the audience area design, not the AV designer.
C. Determine whether the proposed audience area HVAC and lighting are adequate.
D. Ensure that the audience seating is placed between 5 feet (1.5 meters) and 25 feet (7.6 meters) from the screen.

A

A. The AV designer should evaluate the overall design to determine whether the audience can see and hear the presentation and that movement within the seating area will be comfortable.

241
Q

What is the primary issue the AV designer should examine when evaluating the
AV control or projection room area?
A. If the room location is close enough to run cabling to the AV components
B. That the room has a clear sightline to the presenter areas
C. If the room meets the required size, power, and HVAC requirements, and provides other services needed for the AV system components
D. If the proposed control room design and layout meet government construction standards and requirements

A

C. The AV designer should determine whether the room meets the size, power, and HVAC requirements and provides other services needed for the AV system components.

242
Q

What is the typical primary concern of the AV designer when evaluating the HVAC systems at a client site?
A. Whether the HVAC system will provide sufficient heating and cooling within the audience areas
B. Whether the HVAC system will provide sufficient heating and cooling within the control room area
C. Whether the HVAC system will interfere with AV system component placement or create excessive noise
D. Whether the HVAC system will create electrical interference that impacts AV component operation

A

C. The primary concern of the AV designer regarding HVAC systems at a client site is whether the HVAC system will interfere with AV system component placement or create excessive noise.

243
Q

What is the primary issue that the AV designer should assess when reviewing the acoustic environment at a client site?
A. Ambient noise and reverberation
B. The required loudness level of the AV system
C. The optimum locations for AV system loudspeakers
D. The audio system needs for the presenter and presenter area within the room

A

A. The primary concern when reviewing the acoustical environment within a client site is the level of ambient noise and reverberation that is present within the room.

244
Q

A client needs a display system for a room that will be used for inspecting detailed drawings of computer system networks. Which of the online DISCAS tools should be used to make the calculations for screen size, viewer distance, and content size?
A. Projected image system contrast ratio (PISCR)
B. Analytical decision-making (ADM)
C. Basic decision-making (BDM)
D. Passive viewing

A

B. For inspecting detailed images, such as graphics and engineering diagrams, calculations should be made using the online analytical decision-making tool to establish screen size, viewing distances, and the sizes of image content.

245
Q

Based on your review of the client needs, the display should consist of an HD wide-screen flat-panel display that is 4 feet high. How wide is the image displayed on this monitor?
A. 5 feet (1.52 meters)
B. 6.41 feet (1.95 meters)
C. 7.11 feet (2.17 meters)
D. 8.1 feet (2.47 meters)

A

C. An HD display has an aspect ratio of 16:9, which is equal to multiplying the height by 1.7777 to determine the width. In this case, the screen height of 4 foot (1.2 meters) times 1.7777 results in a screen width of 7.11 feet (2.17 meters).

246
Q

Your client is interested in installing a large projection screen in a front lobby area to display images of various projects for promotional purposes. The screen will be installed directly across from a street-level entrance with several windows and a revolving glass door. What should be the primary initial concern of the AV designer regarding the projection system?
A. Ambient noise
B. Audience sightlines
C. Ambient light
D. Projector placement

A

C. The typical primary concern for AV designers regarding projectors and screens is the impact of ambient light on the quality of the image. In this instance, since there are several windows in this space, ambient light will likely be a substantial issue.

247
Q

What is the primary factor an AV designer should examine when evaluating the potential to ensure a high contrast ratio for a front-projected image within a room?
A. Proposed projector location and angle
B. Proposed screen material
C. Ambient light levels in the room
D. Distance between the projector and the screen

A

C. In a projection environment, the contrast ratio of the image is most affected by the ambient light levels within the room.

248
Q

The AV designer is evaluating the proposed AC power supply to an AV control room. What issue(s) should the AV designer consider?
A. How much power is necessary to operate the AV system components
B. What non-AV equipment is on the same distribution board as the AV equipment
C. What existing outlets are available for the AV equipment
D. All of the above

A

D. When evaluating the proposed AC power supply to an AV control room, the AV designer should consider how much power is necessary to operate the AV system components, what non-AV equipment is on the same distribution board as the AV equipment, and which existing outlets are available for the AV equipment.

249
Q

When planning viewer placement, what should be considered?

A

• Viewing cone

•Viewing angle

• Viewing distance

250
Q

What is the purpose of a sightline study?
A. To determine the brightness of an image for a particular viewer
B. To determine whether a viewer can see the smallest items on a screen
C. To identify the most appropriate location for a projector
D. To determine whether the audience has a clear view of the screen

A

D. Sightline studies are used to determine which portion of the screen the audience will be able to see from each of the seating areas throughout a room.

251
Q

Which of the following is not a recommended approach to minimize ambient light levels within a room?
A. Use lighter-colored finishes on walls
B. Use focused task lighting
C. Install lighting controls such as dimmers
D. Treat windows for light infiltration

A

A. Darker colors are better suited to reduce ambient light levels within a room.

252
Q

What is the primary concern the AV designer has regarding the design of the building’s HVAC system?
A. Minimize noise levels within the room during HVAC operation
B. Provide sufficient cooling and heating for audience comfort
C. Ensure sufficient cooling to maintain appropriate temperature levels for
AV component operation
D. Locate HVAC system controls near the AV system control to allow for adjustment during a presentation

A

A. The AV designer is typically mostly concerned with reducing the amount of noise generated by an operating HVAC system.

253
Q

How do building regulations or codes impact the AV system design?
A. AV systems are not affected by building codes.
B. The layout and design of AV systems are usually strictly regulated via building regulations and codes.
C. Building regulations and codes often specify the type of electrical wiring that must be used for specific AV installations.
D. Building regulations and codes typically specify that a separate technical power system be installed for AV systems.

A

C. Building regulations or codes typically define the type of wiring used by the
AV system, in addition to other factors, such as mounting requirements.

254
Q

What organizational documents should be examined?

A

• Project directories

• Contract scopes and roles

• Owner and end-user information

• Industry standards

255
Q

What technical documents should be examined?

A

• Owner and design manuals

• Codes and ordinances

• Industry standards

• Network architecture

256
Q

What should be discussed during the Program Meeting to determine client and user needs?

A

• Technology trends

• End-user needs

• AV tasks and parameters

• Infrastructure issues

• IT issues

257
Q

What areas should be addressed where the AV system can have unforeseen external consequences?

A

• Lighting

• Electrical

• Mechanical (both noise and heat)

• Acoustical

• Data/telecommunications

• Networking

• Structural

• Architectural (space plans, adjacencies, allocations, and other architectural issues)

• Interiors (finish requirements)

• Coordination of other trades with AV installation needs

• The budget impacts of these issues

258
Q

What terms should be used when discussing budget?

A

• Opinion of probable cost: This term describes an early attempt to determine the cost of a system before there is enough detail in the design to produce a line-item estimate.

• Estimate: This implies that there is a more objective basis for the cost provided. It is an approximate calculation that includes a line-item analysis for equipment and labor (perhaps including taxes and other ancillary costs) and would be more accurate than an opinion of probable cost.

• Quote: This is a detailed and enforceable estimate. It should be provided and identified as a quote for an AV system only if the estimate is based on a concept design/program report and a detailed system design.

259
Q

What stakeholders should be involved in the final stages and receive final reports?

A

• Owners

• End users and technology managers

• Architect

• Project manager

• General/prime contractor

• AV integrator

• Other professionals with special interests

260
Q

What is the objective of the program phase of AV system design?
A. Create the computer software required to control an AV system
B. Create detailed design documents depicting the AV system components and installation
C. Describe the AV systems necessary to support the defined needs and the general cost of those systems
D. Provide a detailed cost quote for the client to approve

A

C. The program phase should focus on defining the user needs, the general AV systems required to meet these needs, and the general costs of these systems.

261
Q

What should the specific AV system capabilities be based on?
A. Identified needs of the end users
B. Results of the baseline visits
C. Installation capabilities of the general contractor
D. Recommendations from the client

A

A. The AV system capabilities should be defined based on what the end users need to accomplish. This will ensure that the system meets the needs of the users.

262
Q

What is the main objective of an AV concept design/program report?
A. Communicate to the decision-makers about the overall system’s capabilities and budget
B. Provide a detailed layout of AV components to the general contractor
C. Provide a listing of specific components to be used within the AV system
D. Describe the location and layout of AV components within a room

A

A. The concept design/program report provides an overall description of the system, its capabilities, and general cost. Once it is reviewed and approved, it will provide the basis for more detailed descriptions of the AV system.

263
Q

Which portion of the AV concept design/program report should describe the end users who were consulted to determine system requirements?
A. Special issues
B. Infrastructure considerations
C. System descriptions
D. Executive summary

A

D. The end users who were consulted during creation of the program report are typically identified within the executive summary.

264
Q

Which of the following cost descriptions provides a general budget for the
AV system for use within the AV concept design/program report?
A. System quote
B. System estimate
C. Opinion of probable cost
D. System ballpark’

A

C. The opinion of probable cost is a general estimate of the overall cost of the AV system that can be used by the client as a basis for creating a general budget for the AV system portion of a project.

265
Q

Once approved, what does the AV concept design/program report become the basis for?
A. Identifying required AV system components
B. Purchasing and installing the AV system components
C. Developing more detailed AV system design documents and cost estimates
D. Additional discussions of AV needs

A

C. Once the AV concept design/program report is reviewed and approved, it will provide the basis for creating detailed AV design documents and cost estimates.

266
Q

What are some examples of common loudspeaker configurations?

A

• Two-way or three-way, with passive crossover: These are usually cabinet units with multiple (typically two or three loudspeaker types included to cover the full range of hearing.

• Powered/Active: Often called powered or active loudspeakers, these have one or more crossover networks and amplifiers integrated within the loudspeaker cabinet.

• Constant-voltage (25V, 70V, and 100V): Also called a high-impedance speaker system, this method of distributing sound over a large area throush a network of speakers tends to minimize power loss.

• Subwoofers: Also known as sub-bass loudspeakers or simply subs, these are used to reproduce only the lowest acoustic frequencies. The subwoofer is a critical addition to a high-fidelity audio system.

• Clusters/Arrays: These are groups of loudspeakers used to cover a wide area.
Each speaker component of the cluster/array is directed to provide coverage to a section of the audience.

• Specialty: systems are designed to meet various situations, such as very narrow focused beams, or asymmetric coverage. Some can even be steered electronically to respond to a changing situation.

267
Q

What is this circuit an example of?

A

Echo-cancellation system

268
Q

How do you calculate the total impedance of loudspeakers on a series circuit?

A

Total Impedance Zt = Z1 + Z2 + Z3

where:

• Zt equals the total impedance of the circuit.

• Z1 equals the rated impedance of the first loudspeaker.

• Z2 equals the rated impedance of the second loudspeaker.

• Z3 equals the rated impedance of the third loudspeaker, and so on.

If you have four loudspeakers, each rated at 4 ohms:

Z=4+4+4+4

Z = 16 ohms

Therefore, an amplifier rated for a 16-ohm load would be the best choice. An amplifier optimized for a 4-ohm load could not efficiently couple energy to this circuit of loudspeakers.

269
Q

How do you calculate the total impedance of loudspeakers on a parallel circuit?

A

Zt=1/((1/Z1)+(1/Z2)+(1/Z3))

where:

• Zt equals the total impedance of the circuit.

• Z1 equals the rated impedance of the first loudspeaker.

• Z2 equals the rated impedance of the second loudspeaker.

• Z3 equals the rated impedance of the third loudspeaker, and so on.

Fortunately it is quite common for all of the loudspeakers in a parallel circuit to be rated at the same impedance. In that case, the impedance of the circuit equals the impedance of one of the loudspeakers divided by the total number of loudspeakers wired in parallel:

Total Impedance Zt = Z1/N

where:

• Zt equals the total impedance of the circuit.

• Z1 equals the rated impedance of one of the loudspeakers.

• N equals the number of loudspeakers wired in parallel.

If you have four loudspeakers wired in parallel, each rated at 8 ohms, the circuits impedance is 2 ohms.

Zt = 8/4

270
Q

What is the difference between Direct-Coupled and Constant-Voltage?

A

• Direct-coupled: A direct-coupled system (also called a low impedance system) is designed for low impedance loudspeakers (16 ohms, 8 ohms, or 4 ohms) and works pretty much as its name implies. The system loudspeakers are connected directly to a power amplifier output.

• Constant-voltage: When it becomes impractical to connect a large number of
loudspeakers in a direct-coupled scheme, its common to employ transformers. This setup is called a distributed or constant-voltage system. Constant-voltage systems are often identified by the maximum voltage allowable, such as 25V, 70V, or 100V.

271
Q

What are the three types of transformers?

A

• 1:1 transformer: This type of transformer has an equal number of primary and secondary windings. It is used for electrical (galvanic) circuit isolation to solve problems such as audible hum, buzz, or rolling hum bars on a display.

• Step-up transformer: This type has more windings on the secondary side than on the primary side. Voltage and impedance increase, while available current decreases.

•Step-down transformer: This type has fewer windings on the secondary side than on the primary side. Available current increases, while voltage and impedance
decrease.

272
Q

What is the formula for calculating dB drop off at distance?

A

dB - 20 log10 * (distance1 / distance2)

dB = 20 log(1 meter / 2 meters)

dB = 20 log(0.5)

dB = 20(-0.301)

dB = -6.02

Subtract final number from original dB output.

273
Q

What is the formula for calculating how much power is needed to maintain dB at a distance?

A

SPL increase = 10 log (power2 / power1)

6dB = 10 log(x / 1)

0.6 = log x

x = 3.98 watts

where:

• 6dB is the SPL increase required from the loudspeaker.

• x represents the power in watts required at the loudspeaker.

• 1 watt is the reference power input from the loudspeaker specification.

274
Q

What should be considered when defining a control system?

A

• Functionality

• Interoperability

• Interconnectivity

• Capabilities

275
Q

What are some networking technologies that you may need to go over with IT during system design?

A

• IP addressing

• Subnetting

• Virtual LANs (VLANs)

• Virtual private networks (VPNs)

• Directory integration

• Network security

276
Q

What are the most common protocols for networking AV systems?

A

• Audio Video Bridging (AVB):
Ethernet AVB is an IEEE standard that transports uncompressed video and up to 200 channels of 48kHz/24-bit audio in real time, plus embedded control and monitoring, using Ethernet frames. It requires special, AVB-enabled switches and network components but does not require separate network infrastructure or dedicated bandwidth.

• Dante: Over gigabit Ethernet (1Gbps), Dante transports up to 1,024 channels of 48kHz/24-bit audio; 512 channels at 96kHz/24 bit; or HDMI video including eight channels of audio. Over 100Mbps Ethernet, it can transport up to 96 channels of 48kHz/24-bit audio, or half that number at 96kHz/24 bit. Dante is fully routable over IP networks using standard Ethernet switches, routers, and other components. It requires no separate infrastructure.

277
Q

What kind of drawing is this?

A

Signal flow diagram

278
Q

What AV system documentation and drawings should be provided and/or made for the project?

A

• Equipment rack elevations

• Specialized plates and panels

• Specialty connector and miscellaneous wiring diagrams

• Custom configurations and modifications

• Patch-panel layouts and labeling

• Custom application documentation

• User interface descriptions

279
Q

When designing a video display system, what should be the first consideration of the AV system designer?
A. How the client is going to use the video display system
B. The resolution of the video display system
C. The size of video displays
D. The location of screens

A

A. The primary initial consideration of the AV system designer when designing a video display system component of an AV system is determining how the client will use the display system. This will drive the subsequent decisions about resolutions, screen size, screen location, and so on.

280
Q

The AV designer is creating a system for a client who also needs to route video
and audio signals to various other locations at the site. At what level should the AV designer consider this need?
A. The AV designer is concerned with only the display systems within the room.
B. The AV designer should ensure that a standard video and audio signal output is available in the control room to allow other users to connect external systems.
C. The AV designer should determine the needed monitoring, feeds, and recording requirements, and ensure that they are supported by the system design.
D. Accommodating monitoring and feed needs is the responsibility of the AV installation team.

A

C. The AV designer should determine the needed monitoring, feeds, and recording requirements, and ensure that they are supported by the system design.

281
Q

How should the AV design ensure that the AV system addresses the necessary display signal sources?
A. By including a signal switcher in the system design
B. By including all potential signal sources in the AV system control room
C. By establishing a clear, up-front understanding of the media that the client needs to present
D. By providing appropriate system inputs for each type of signal source

A

C. During the design stage of the AV system, the designer must have a clear understanding of the client needs, such as the media that the client must be able to present, and use this information to design a system that accommodates the necessary sources.

282
Q

How should an AV system designer address system bandwidth?
A. Minimize the bandwidth of signals transmitted within the system
B. Maximize the bandwidth of signals transmitted within the system
C. Select components that minimize bandwidth
D. Select components that maximize the bandwidth of the entire AV system

A

D. Since the system bandwidth is limited by the lowest bandwidth device within the system, the AV system designer should select components that maximize the bandwidth of the entire system.

283
Q

What are the three main performance parameters that an audio system should be designed to achieve?
A. Directivity, intelligibility, and consistency
B. Intelligibility, frequency response, and headroom
C. Loudness, headroom, and frequency response
D. Loudness, intelligibility, and stability

A

D. The three main performance parameters that an audio system should be designed to achieve are loudness, intelligibility, and stability.

284
Q

How should an AV system designer determine the required frequency response of an audio system?
A. The frequency response should be based on the type of applications the audio is intended to support.
B. The designer should work to achieve a frequency response as wide as possible within the project budget.
C. The audio system output frequency response should match the frequency
response of the audio source components.
D. The audio system frequency response should meet the industry standard of 20Hz to 20kHz.

A

A. As with all AV system design decisions, the frequency response of an audio system should be based on the client needs and intended applications. For example, an audio system that will transmit only videoconferences does not need to achieve the same wide frequency response as a system intended to amplify music performances.

285
Q

Which of the following audio processors would a system design specify to enhance the intelligibility of a videoconferencing system?
A. DSP matrix mixer
B. Echo canceler
C. Crossover
D. Compressor

A

B. An echo canceler can reduce the echoes that sometimes impact the intelligibility of the audio portion of a videoconference.

286
Q

What is the total impedance of a system consisting of three loudspeakers, each with 4 ohms of impedance, connected in series?
A. 2 ohms
B. 4 ohms
C. 12 ohms
D. 32 ohms

A

C. When wiring loudspeakers in a series, the impedance is additive, meaning that three loudspeakers that each have 4 ohms of impedance will result in a system of 12 ohms of impedance.

287
Q

In audio systems where the loudspeakers are located far from the amplifier, what type of loudspeaker system is typically used?
A. Direct-coupled system
B. Constant-voltage system that uses transformers
C. Series/ parallel wired loudspeaker system
D. Low impedance loudspeaker system

A

B. Audio systems where the loudspeakers are located far from the amplifier typically use a constant-voltage loudspeaker system that includes transformers for each loudspeaker.

288
Q

As a listener moves away from a sound source, such as a loudspeaker, the sound energy drops. According to the inverse square law, which formula would you use to determine the drop in acoustic energy if the user moved from 6 to 12 meters away from a sound source?
A. dB = 20 log(6 meters / 12 meters)
B. dB = 20 log(12 meters / 6 meters)
C. dB = 20 log(6 meters × 12 meters)
D. B = 20 log(6 meters = 12 meters)

A

A. The formula used to determine the drop in acoustic energy if the user moves from 6 to 12 meters away from a sound source is dB = 20 log × (6 meters / 12 meters).

289
Q

What are the main forms of cable termination?

A

• Direct-connection termination

• Compression termination

• Soldering termination

• Crimping termination

• Linear-compression termination

• Insulation-displacement termination

290
Q

What should you watch out for during cable termination?

A

• Stray wires that may produce short circuits

• Use of the correct wires at the appropriate contact points or pins

• Excessive or insufficient solder

• Sharp protrusions, extensions, or evidence of foreign matter

291
Q

What three tasks are a part of rack building?

A

• Building the rack itself

• Installing the equipment

• Wiring the hardware together

292
Q

What kind of drawing is this?

A

Rack-elevation drawing

293
Q

What are the three types of rack cooling?

A

• Convection cooling: This type of cooling relies on the fact that hot air rises to move heat upward and out of vents at the top of the rack.

• Evacuation cooling: This type of cooling uses fans to draw hot air out of the rack, usually through top vents.

• Forced air cooling: This type of cooling uses an approach that’s the opposite of evacuation. It uses fans to force cool or even chilled air into the rack from below, and uses vents at the top of the rack to provide an exhaust for the hot air.

294
Q

What are the steps to installing a rack?

A

• In some cases, the first step in building an equipment rack is actually assembling the rack itself. It may come in many pieces that must be put together prior to placing electronic equipment inside.

• Install all rack mechanical accessories. These can include power and grounding strips, horizontal and vertical cable management systems, casters, and fans.

• Assemble the equipment to be mounted in the rack.

• Document any information, such as equipment serial numbers, to include in manuals you will provide to the client. Some serial numbers or product labels can be difficult to locate after the equipment is in the rack. Therefore, it’s important to gather this information before loading the rack.

• Install mounting ears on equipment where necessary. Mounting ears are metal brackets you attach to an AV component so that you can mount it in a rack. They could be optional accessories purchased from the equipment manufacturer, or they could be included with the equipment. Some AV equipment has built-in mounting ears.

• Identify the intended locations for specific components and install them in the 9 rack appropriately. Keep in mind that attempting to hold individual pieces of equipment in place while installing the mounting screws can be hard work. A as common best practice is to lay the rack on its back on top of a protective sheet so that the rack is not scratched or damaged.

• Fill all rack spaces with equipment, blanks, vents, or power strips, so that the space matches your rack-elevation drawing. Empty spaces can affect air flow.

• Fasten the equipment mounting ears to the rack rail using screws.

• Make all internal rack-wiring connections between equipment inputs and outputs and organize the cabling. Use the AV system block diagrams to determine the signal path through a system.

• Install the AC power components defined in the rack design documents and applicable codes and standards. This step may include configuring the system to access more than one AC power circuit, properly placing transformers (to allow for service access and minimize electrical interference), and ensuring proper grounding both for safety and to minimize the potential for hum.

295
Q

What are the acceptable conduit capacity’s when passing cable through?

A

• 1 cable = 53 percent
If you are running only one cable through a conduit, that
cable’s cross-sectional area may take up to 53 percent of the conduit’s internal cross-sectional area.

• 2 cables = 31 percent If you are going to run two cables inside a conduit, the sum of the two cables’ cross-sectional area may be up to 31 percent of the conduit’s internal cross-sectional area.

• 3 cables = 40 percent If you are going to run three cables through a conduit, the sum of the three cables’ cross-sectional area may be up to 40 percent of the conduit’s internal cross-sectional area.

296
Q

What are some things that can go wrong when mounting?

A

• Improper calculation of loads

• Shear load, in which gravity pulls the mount down the wall, shearing off the bolts like a pair of scissors

• Tensile load, in which the load stretches the mounting fastener, causing soft, inferior grade fasteners (like bolts) to stretch, distort, or break

• Pull-out, which refers to the fastener pulling out of the structure, wall, or ceiling from which it is mounted

• Shock loading, which refers to a sudden additional load, such as from an earthquake or a person hanging from a mount

• Bolts placed at the top of the mount carry more stress than those placed at the bottom (since not all fasteners carry the same the load in a mount), although following the manufacturer’s instructions for placement should avoid this problem

297
Q

What kind of mounting failure is this?

A

Shear load

298
Q

What kind of mounting failure is this?

A

Tensile load

299
Q

What kind of mounting failure is this?

A

Pull-out

300
Q

What are the main IP addressing schemes?

A

• DHCP: This approach allows network administrators to automate address assignment. When a device connects to the network, the DHCP service of server will assign an IP address to the device’s MAC address. The pool of available IP addresses is based on the subnet size and the number of addresses that have been allocated. DHCP is easy to manage because no two devices get the same address, relieving potential conflicts. It also allows more devices to connect to the network. However, with DHCP, you never know what a device’s IP address will be from connection to connection. Blocks of IP addresses can be omitted from the DHCP pool to use for statically addressed devices.

• Static IP addressing: This approach assigns fixed IP addresses to networked devices. Many AV devices must always have the same address so control and monitoring systems can find them. In the absence of a DHCP server, you will need to manually set the IP address (which you must obtain from the IT manager), hard-coding ic onto each device. To do this, you will need the IP address, the subnet mask, the device name, and the DNS server and gateway addresses.

• Reserve DHCP: This is a hybrid approach to IP addressing. Using reserve DHCP, a block of statically configured addresses can be set aside for devices whose IP addresses must always remain the same. The remaining addresses in the subnet will be assigned dynamically. To reserve addresses for AV devices, you need to list the MAC address of each device that requires a static address.

• DNS This approach uses a hierarchical, distributed database that maps easily remembered names to data such as IP addresses. A DNS server keeps track of all the equipment on the network and matches the equipment names so they can be easily located on the network or integrated into control and monitoring systems. Many AV devices don’t natively or fully support DNS address assignment.

301
Q

Which of the following is a sign of an improperly fabricared cable terminations?
A. Visible stray wires
B. Visible solder
C. Removed jacket or insulation
D. Crimping

A

A. Stray wires that extend outside the termination are a sign of an improper termination. A stray wire can cause a short that will interfere with system operation.

302
Q

Which of the following tests should be conducted to evaluate whether a termination is properly transmitting a signal?
A. Voltage test
B. Continuity test
C. Signal sweep test
D. Isolation test

A

B. The AV technician should test continuity of the cable to determine whether it is properly transmitting signals or whether it is shorted in some manner.

303
Q

To communicate with devices installed onto a TCP/IP network, what must each device have?
A. An IP address
B. A wireless card
C. A web address
D. A TCP card

A

A. An IP address is used to give each component on a TCP/IP network a unique address that allows components to communicate.

304
Q

What is a drawback of using a rack-mounted RF receiver?
A. The metal rack can shield the receiver from its intended signal.
B. It relies on line of sight to the signal transmitter.
C. It operates on different frequencies than its receivers.
D. It is sensitive to fluorescent light.

A

A. The metal rack casing and components can interfere with an RF signal transmitted from within a rack.

305
Q

Which of the following rack-ventilation methods uses a fan that draws air from the rack?
A. Convection
B. Pressurization
C. Conditioning
D. Evacuation

A

D. A ventilation approach that uses a fan to draw hot air from inside the rack is called an evacuation method.

306
Q

What does signal separation refer to within a rack layout?
A. Separating cables according to signal strength
B. Separating components according to signal type
C. Running several cables carrying the same signal to separate components
D. Splitting composite video signals into component RB signals

A

A. Signal separation within a rack refers to grouping cables according to signal strength so that stronger signals will not create interference on cables carrying lower-level signals, such as power cables interfering with microphone cable signals.

307
Q

When mounting heavy equipment, always mount to which of the following?
A. The building’s structural support or blocking
B. Drywall
C. Ceiling
D. Any stud in the wall

A

A. Heavy equipment should be securely mounted, either using the building structural support elements or blocking installed behind the drywall specifically to be used as a mounting support.

308
Q

Who should evaluate all mounting plans and advise the installation technician on difficult mounting situations?
A. Structural engineer
B. AV manager
C. Mechanical contractor
D. Client

A

A. Mounting plans for difficult mounting situations should be evaluated by a structural engineer familiar with the building’s structural elements.

309
Q

What is the load limit?
A. The maximum weight of an equipment rack
B. The highest intensity a sound system can produce
C. The weight at which the item will structurally fail
D. The tendency for an equipment rack to tip over

A

C. The load limit rating refers to the weight at which the item will structurally fail. For example, the load limit on a flat-screen mount is provided to indicate the maximum weight that can be supported using the mount.

310
Q

Roof-mounted HVAC systems may produce vibrations that cause the projector to vibrate and cause an image to appear unfocused.
A. True
B. False

A

A. It’s true that HVAC systems can transmit vibrations that can adversely impact the quality of a projected image.

311
Q

To what does the permissible area of a conduit refer?
A. The locations within the ceiling where the conduit may be run
B. The outer diameter of the conduit used for specific applications
C. The amount of the inner diameter of a conduit that may be filled with cable
D. Conduits must be rated as fireproof when used within ceiling (plenum) spaces

A

C. The permissible area refers to the amount of cable that can be run through a conduit, based on the outside cable diameter.

312
Q

What is the main purpose for reviewing the system design when preparing for providing AV support for a live event?
A. Allows the AV team to brief the presenters or performers on the capabilities of the AV system
B. Ensures that the system meets building code or regulation requirements
C. Helps the AV team integrate the live AV support with any broadcasting requirements
D. Helps the AV installer determine the required equipment and crew resources

A

D. The installation team should review the system design to determine what equipment and materials are needed, along with the staff required to actually set up the system. It will also help the team determine how much time is required for system setup, which will aid in scheduling the installation tasks in a manner that meets the client deadlines.

313
Q

Why can implementing a VLAN be labor-intensive?
A. Its broadcast domain must be segmented on every switch in the network.
B. You may be limited to whatever addressing scheme the client already uses.
C. It increases bandwidth overhead by adding an encryption and tunneling wrapper.
D. You will need to manually set IP addresses for each device.

A

A. Implementing a VLAN can be labor-intensive because its broadcast domain must be segmented on every switch in the network.

314
Q

Which of the following objectives should the AV team target when locating microphones for a live event?
A. Ensure that all microphones are behind loudspeakers
B. Ensure that all microphone cables are no longer than 15 feet (4.5 meters) in length
C. Ensure that all microphone cables are taped to the floor
D. Mount all microphones on nonconductive stands

A

A. The AV team should strive to ensure that all microphones are mounted behind the loudspeakers to minimize any feedback.

315
Q

How far away from the screen should you place a video projector with a lens ratio of 2.0 to create an image 3 meters (10 feet) wide?
A. 3 meters (10 feet)
B. 4.5 meters (15 feet)
C. 6 meters (20 feet)
D. 9 meters (30 feet)

A

C. You would place a projector with a 2.0 ratio lens 6 meters (20 feet) from the screen to create an image 3 meters (10 feet) wide.

316
Q

The maintenance technician for a system should document which of the following items?
A. When preventive maintenance is provided
B. When equipment is updated
C. When another company’s equipment fails
D. All of the above

A

D. The maintenance log should document all relevant maintenance actions in a manner that aids in ensuring the ongoing operation of the AV system.

317
Q

In the context of AV system installations, what is the systems performance verification, or commissioning, process?
A. A process for registering the ownership of components
B. A process for documenting that the AV system conforms with international
C. A formal process for testing the elements of the AV system to ensure that they operate as intended
D. Oficially “launching” an AV system with users within the client organization

A

C. Commissioning is a process that systematically evaluates the performance of the AV system and components and documents that the performance meets the identified standards.

318
Q

What is the objective of commissioning an AV system?
A. To systematically test all components to demonstrate that the AV system operates properly
B. To allow time to “burn in’ components to identify any potential failure points
C. To document the delivery and installation of all system components to enable final billing for system installation
D. To document how the user should operate the AV system

A

A. Commissioning is intended to demonstrate that the installed AV system operates as intended.

319
Q

How does the AV technician use an understanding of system signal flow to ensure proper operation?
A. To identify appropriate signal levels for each component
B. To document the system during the commissioning process
C. To calibrate AV system components
D. To gain an understanding of overall system operation that will aid in identifying sources of problems

A

D. Understanding signal flow will help an AV technician to determine the source of any problems or performance issues.

320
Q

When briefing end users on how to operate the AV system, the AV team should do which of the following?
A. Provide a detailed description of system components and operation
B. Provide manuals for all system components
C. Focus on how to perform basic presentation functions
D. Use a schematic of the system to present how the signal flows through the system

A

C. Guidance for AV system users should focus on the basics, such as how to display an image, control sound, and turn components on and off.

321
Q

What is a proper AV system shutdown procedure?
A. Shut down system components in any order
B. Shut down system components in a specifically defined order
C. Turn off all system power at once
D. Turn off sources, then processing, then display components

A

B. The proper shutdown procedure for an AV system is typically based on turning off components in a specific order to ensure that other components are not damaged by an improper shutdown sequence.

322
Q

What is the main reason for carefully documenting AV system preventive maintenance tasks in a maintenance log?
A. Provide detailed maintenance records that will aid in ongoing maintenance and repair
B. Provide a record for client billing purposes
C. Determine why a component failed
D. Determine warranty coverage of individual components

A

A. A detailed maintenance log provides valuable information that will aid in ongoing preventive maintenance.

323
Q

Which of the following is not an objective of training end users on the operation of the AV system?
A. To give users a higher level of confidence when operating the AV system
B. To reduce service calls resulting from user errors
C. To reduce the potential for damage due to improper use
D. To eliminate the need for AV company maintenance and repair calls

A

D. End-user training will typically not address how to repair or maintain the
AV system.

324
Q

AV companies are typically required to provide documentation of the AV system after a project is complete. What is that documentation typically composed of?
A. Manufacturer manuals for all equipment that contain instructions for its operation
B. System design and configuration, including signal paths, to enable a technician to troubleshoot and correct any problems with the system
C. Configuration of the control system, including DIP switch settings and IP addresses of individual components
D. Operating instructions written for the AV knowledge level of the end user
E. All of the above

A

E. The AV system documentation is typically composed of manufacturer manuals for all equipment. These contain instructions for the system’s operation and information about its design and configuration, including signal paths, to enable a technician to troubleshoot and correct any problems with the system.
The documentation should also detail the configuration of the control system, including DIP switch settings and IP addresses of individual components.
Additionally, the documentation should include basic operating instructions written for the AV knowledge level of the end user.

325
Q

What are the five key elements of any project?

A

• Scope, which covers deliverables and activities that must be accomplished

• Time, including its estimation and duration

• Cost, for human and material resources

• Quality, to make sure performance meets expectations

• Risk, including threats, opportunities, and response strategies

326
Q

What kind of chart is this?

A

Gantt Chart

327
Q

Project budget refers to which of the following?
A. The total amount that the client has paid the AV company for the project
B. The total cost of purchasing the needed materials and supplies
C. The amount of labor and materials the project manager has allocated to complete the project
D. The amount of labor and materials the project manager used to successfully complete the project

A

C. The project budget is the amount of labor and materials allocated to perform the agreed-upon work.

328
Q

How should the AV company respond if a client requests changes in the project that end up increasing the cost of completing the project?
A. Ask the client to agree to a CO that describes the changes to the project agreement and the additional costs.
B. Perform the requested additional work to ensure that the client is satisfied.
C. Never perform any work that was not agreed to within the original work contract.
D. Remove another element of the project to keep the final cost the same.

A

A. The best approach is to document the changes and costs for the changes within a formal CO and have both the client and the company representative sign the CO to confirm that each side agrees to the changes to the original contract.

329
Q

What is a dependency within a project task schedule?
A. A task that cannot begin before another task is complete
B. A task that must be completed by a specific date
C. A task that will be required if specific conditions occur at the project site
D. An optional task that the client can determine is needed once the project is underway

A

A. A dependency on a project task schedule refers to a task that cannot be started until another task has been completed. For example, the task of installing a painting walls have been completed.

330
Q

Which statement best describes the relationship of the AV installation team with other vendors on the site?
A. The AV team should focus on the AV installation; the project manager is responsible for coordinating work at the project.
B. The AV team should review the project schedule: it defines all coordination
necessary for the project.
C. The AV team should actively communicate and coordinate with the project manager and other vendors to ensure that the AV installation is not impacted by other vendors working on the project.
D. The AV team should negotiate work schedules directly with the other vendors.

A

C. The AV team should actively communicate and coordinate with both the project manager and other vendors to ensure that the AV installation is not impacted by other vendors working on the project.

331
Q

Which of the following documents would an AV company submit in the event that a modification in the building design impacted the AV system installation requirements?
A. Modification announcement (MA)
B. Construction change directive (CCD)
C. Request for change (RFC)
D. Progress report (PR)

A

C. An RFC is the appropriate document for the vendor to submit to the owner in the event that changes to the AV system installation contract are required

332
Q

Which of the following defines project deliverables and relates the elements of work?
A. Logic network
B. Assumptions and risks
C. WBS
D. Gantt chart

A

C. The WBS (work breakdown structure) defines project deliverables and relates the elements of work.

333
Q

Which of the following statements describes the typical relationship of an AV company with its suppliers and vendors?
A. The AV company should identify the suppliers and vendors with the lowest
current prices.
B. The suppliers and vendors often become long-term partners with the AV company in meeting the client needs.
C. The AV company should work with only one supplier or vendor to procure the needed goods and services.
D. The AV company client will usually specify the vendors or suppliers to support the clients project.

A

B. The most desirable approach is for the vendors and suppliers to become long. term partners with the AV company, with all parties striving to meet the dient needs.

334
Q

Which of the following statements best describes how an AV manager should manage stock and inventory?
A. Check in orders as they arrive.
B. Ensure the proper amount of warehouse space is available for inventory.
C. Ensure that the total value of stock and inventory does not exceed a specific amount.
D. Keep track of the equipment and supplies the company has on hand, what is on order, and what is at the client site.

A

D. The overall objective of managing stock and inventory is putting in place systems that will enable the manager to know the following:
• The equipment and supplies the company has on hand at any time
• The items that are on order and when they are expected to arrive
• The specific equipment and supplies that have been sent to client sites, either for temporary use to support an event or for installation at the site

335
Q

Why does an AV company use a unique bar code, RFID tag, or other identifier on an equipment case for rental AV equipment?
A. To identify a specific component and allow an inventory system to check the component in and out of the warehouse and venue site
B. To allow the scanner to identify the price of the equipment for rental customers
C. To identify the brand of the equipment or components
D. To identify in which room the equipment should be placed when it arrives at the venue

A

A. A unique bar code or RFID tag placed on an equipment case or road case can be used to check that individual item of equipment in and out of a warehouse
or venue.

336
Q

Once equipment leaves the warehouse, who is responsible for ensuring security and preventing theft?
A. Client
B. AV company
C. End user
D. Whoever has taken control of the equipment

A

D. Ensuring security for the AV equipment is the responsibility of whoever has control of the equipment at the time. This can be the AV company staff, the client, the end user, or security personnel. It depends on the use of the equipment and at which point in the event or installation process security is required.

337
Q

What is a key security concern when renting AV equipment?
A. Properly identifying the person taking possession of the equipment from the
AV company
B. Ensuring that the renter knows how to properly operate the equipment
C. Ensuring that the renter knows how to properly transport the equipment
D. Ensuring that the renter has hired a security guard to protect the equipment once it has arrived at the site

A

A. The key initial concern related to security and theft prevention for rental equipment is ensuring that you properly identify the person renting the equipment. This reduces the opportunity for theft resulting from fraud, such as someone providing a false identification in order to take possession of your equipment.

338
Q

Which of the following best describes the recommended approach to maintaining professional skills and knowledge?
A. Take courses on state-of-the-art AV techniques at AV industry trade shows.
B. Obtain and renew a professional certification.
C. Obtain industry information from a range of sources, including courses, seminars, publications, vendor presentations, and professional certification courses.
D. Take college-level AV technology courses.

A

C. AV professionals should strive to keep up-to-date on the latest technology and practices by obtaining industry information from a wide range of sources, including courses, seminars, publications, vendor presentations, and professional certifications.

339
Q

Remote-monitoring services for client sites are intended to perform which of the following:
A. Maintain security via the use of CCTV systems.
B. Track system usage, identify system or component failures, and identify tampering.
C. Track AV system operation costs.
D. Track the type of program materials viewed via the AV system to ensure that inappropriate program materials are blocked.

A

B. Remote-monitoring systems are typically used to track system usage, identity system or component failures, and identify any instances of tampering or removal of system components.

340
Q

What does a service contract typically cover?

A

• Extension of manufacturers warranties

• Emergency and nonemergency service visits

• Preplanned schedule of preventive maintenance visits

341
Q

What are a few examples of preventative maintenance tasks?

A

• Replace system components that have limited, defined life cycles

• Calibrate or adjust system devices

• Physically adjust equipment

342
Q

Which of the following types of maintenance agreements commits an AV company to providing ongoing preventive maintenance for a client system?
A. System warranty
B. Service agreement
C. Manufacturer’s warranty
D. Preventive warranty

A

B. A service agreement is a type of maintenance agreement that commits an AV company to providing ongoing preventive maintenance for a client system.

343
Q

When a new AV device fails within the first few weeks after installation, under which type of warranty is the repair typically addressed?
A. System warranty
B. Service agreement
C. Manufacturer’s warranty
D. Preventive warranty

A

C. A new AV device that fails within the first few weeks after installation is typically repaired as part of the manufacturer’s warranty.

344
Q

What is the first step that an AV technician should take when a client reports a problem with an AV system?
A. Obtain more information about the problem, such as the symptoms of the system failure
B. Locate the detailed system documentation
C. Travel to the client site to repair the system
D. Contact the manufacturer of the component to assist in troubleshooting

A

A. The first step the AV technician should take when an AV system problem is reported is to obtain more information about the problem, such as the symptoms of the failure, so that the technician can begin to narrow down the cause of the problem.

345
Q

Which of the following is an example of preventive maintenance?
A. Replacing system cabling that is causing static within the system
B. Upgrading a display to a greater resolution to meet client needs
C. Replacing a projector bulb that is nearing the end of its operational life
D. Upgrading the programming on a control system to address newly installed components

A

C. The objective of preventive maintenance is to address system maintenance issues prior to a failure to ensure that the system continues to operate. In this case, replacing a projector bulb according to a schedule and prior to the failure of the bulb is preventive maintenance.

346
Q

What are ways to identify faulty hardware?

A

• Swapping

• Divide and conquer

• Divide the problem into subsystems

• Signal flow

347
Q

What should be the first step in troubleshooting a failure in an AV system?
A. Determine the possible failure points
B. Determine which components are fully operational
C. Review a system diagram depicting interconnections and signal flow
D. Clearly identify the failure symptoms

A

D. The first step in the troubleshooting process is to clearly identify the failure
symptoms.

348
Q

What is an intermittent problem?
A. A system failure that affects multiple components
B. A system failure that is difficult to reproduce
C. A disruption in signal flow affecting the system
D. A failure of an interface component

A

B. An intermittent failure is difficult to reproduce because it is not present all the time. This makes it hard for the technician to identify and isolate the problem.

349
Q

Once the characteristics of the system failure are clearly identified, what is the recommended next step required to return the system to normal operation?
A. Examine the system to determine whether the problem is simple to address and gather more information
B. Logically divide the system in half, and determine which half has the failure
C. Replace the component that has appeared to fail
D. Ask the user to further describe the nature of the problem

A

A. Once the characteristics of the system failure are clearly identified, the next step is to examine the system to determine whether the problem is simple to address and, if not, gather more information that will aid in identifying possible faulty functions.

350
Q

What is typically the most efficient process for localizing the faulty function within a malfunctioning AV system?
A. Test each of the components in the order of signal flow
B. Test each of the components beginning at the final output, working backward
C. Begin with testing the major functions, and then move to the minor functions
D. Logically divide the system in half, determine which portion has the failure, and then repeat for the failed half

A

D. Often, the most efficient process for localizing the faulty function within a malfunctioning AV system is to logically divide the system in half, determine which portion has the failure, and then repeat for the failed half. Continue the process until the failure source is narrowed down to the faulty component.

351
Q

When troubleshooting an AV system, should the AV technician consider user error as the source of the problem?
A. No, because the users usually understand system operation
B. No, because the users are not considered part of the system that has failed
C. Yes, because users often do not understand how to properly operate the system and may have changed settings or performed other actions that caused the failure
D. Yes, because user error is typically considered the main cause of AV system failure

A

C. The technician should consider user error when troubleshooting an AV system failure because some users do not understand how to properly operate the system. It’s possible that a user has changed a setting or performed another action that caused the failure.

352
Q

What is the best method to determine whether a microphone is the source of a
problem?
A. Change the cable to the microphone
B. Test the microphone with a multimeter
C. Plug the microphone into a preamp and test
D. Swap out the suspect microphone with a new microphone that you know is working and see whether the system works properly

A

D. The easiest method to test whether a failed microphone is the source of a system problem is to swap out the suspect microphone with a new microphone that you know is working and see whether the system works properly.

353
Q

Which of the following is not an example of an issue that can cause a video projector to overheat?
A. Brightness set too high
B. Fan has failed
C. Projector not properly positioned
D. Air filters clogged with dust

A

A. The brightness setting is not a typical reason for a video projector to overheat.

354
Q

Which of the following is the most likely source of an AV system failure or problem?
A. Amplifier failure
B. Projector failure
C. Computer source failure
D. Cable/connector failure

A

D. Cables and connectors fail more frequently than components. When cables and connectors are used on a regular basis and not handled carefully, they can be damaged and may present a variety of symptoms.

355
Q

Which of the following is not a method of addressing feedback within an audio
system?
A. Adding compression to the microphone signal chain
B. Keeping the microphone as close to the sound source as possible
C. Keeping the loudspeakers in front of and as far from the microphones as possible
D. Turning down or muting all unused microphones

A

A. Adding compression to the microphone signal chain will not address feedback. The best practices for controlling feedback include keeping the microphone as close to the sound source as possible, keeping the loudspeakers in front of and as far from the microphones as possible, appropriately positioning the volume (gain), and turning down or muting all unused microphones.

356
Q

An excessive amount of high-frequency hiss within an audio system is likely due to which of the following situations?
A. Poor gain structure
B. Insufficient compression
C. Noise gate thresholds set too low
D. Source output gain set too high

A

A. Poor gain structure is a typical source of a constant high-frequency hiss in the system. This is because of the inputs on the mixer being set too low and subsequent stages having their gain increased in an attempt to compensate.