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Finals Spring 2014 > Test Reviews > Flashcards

Test Reviews Flashcards

1-35; 36-65; 66-95; 96-130; 131-160; 161-192; 193-226

1
Q

All ionizing radiation is harmful and produces biological change in living tissues.
TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

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2
Q
  1. The two main mechanisms of radiation injury are ionization and free radical formation. 2. Free radical formation is an example of the indirect theory of injury.
    a. both statements are true
    b. both statements are false
    c. statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
    d. statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
A

a. both statements are true

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3
Q

The following is (are) true about free radical formation:

a. It is responsible for most of the damage to living tissue during radiation exposure
b. to achieve stability, free radicals may combine with molecules and produce toxins
c. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is a toxin produced that causes damage to tissues
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

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4
Q

In the sequence of radiation injury, the period between exposure to ionizing radiation and observable signs is known as:

a. the period of injury
b. the recovery period
c. the latent period
d. none of the above

A

c. the latent period

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5
Q

The amount of energy absorbed by a tissue, measured in RADs, refers to:

a. dose measurement
b. exposure measurement
c. dose equivalent (in man) measurement

A

a. dose measurement

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6
Q

All of the following are true about background radiation EXCEPT:

a. It is naturally occurring radiation we are exposed to daily
b. two main types are cosmic and terrestrial
c. medical and dental radiation are sources of background radiation
d. none of the above

A

c. medical and dental radiation are sources of background radiation

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7
Q

Which of the following could be a long-term effect of x-radiation?

a. vomiting
b. cancer
c. hair loss
d. hemorrhage

A

b. cancer

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8
Q

The type of filtration produced when the x-ray beam passes through the glass window (in the tube), insulating oil and tubehead seal is known as:

a. added filtration
b. inherent filtration
c. total filtration
d. all of the above

A

b. inherent filtration

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9
Q

Which of the following exposure factors will INCREASE patient exposure to x-radiation?

a. E-speed film rather than D-speed film
b. long-cone technique rather than short-cone technique
c. Circular collimation rather than rectangular collimation
d. high kVp (80kVp) rather than low kVp (60kVp)

A

c. Circular collimation rather than rectangular collimation

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10
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of the dose-response curve for radiation injury?

a. a threshold dose level for damage does NOT exist
b. The response of the tissues is proportional to the dose
c. it has a linear, threshold relationship
d. all of the above
e. A and B only

A

e. A and B only

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11
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor for determining radiation injury?

a. dose rate
b. cell sensitivity
c. total dose
d. occupational exposure
e. age

A

d. occupational exposure

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12
Q
  1. Short-term effects of x-radiation are associated with high doses over a short period of time. 2. Long-term effects of x-radiation are associated with small doses repeated over a long period of time.
    a. both statements are true
    b. both statements are false
    c. statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
    d. statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
A

a. both statements are true

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13
Q

X-radiation injury to reproductive (genetic) cells:

a. is not seen in the person irradiated
b. can be repaired
c. is rarely passed on to the offspring
d. all of the above

A

a. is not seen in the person irradiated

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14
Q

Radiation therapy is often successful at destroying cancer cells, this is due to the fact that cancer cells:

a. are immature (undifferentiated) cells
b. undergo mitotic activity at a rapid pace
c. have a fast cell metabolism
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a critical organ in dentistry?

a. skin
b. thyroid gland
c. brain
d. bone marrow

A

c. brain

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16
Q

Which units are TRADITIONAL UNITS of radiation measurement?

a. Roentgen, Gray, Roentgen Equivalent in Man
b. Roentgen, Radiation Absorbed Dose, Roentgen Equivalent in Man
c. Coulombs/kilogram, Gray, Sievert
d. Roentgen, Gray, Radiation Absorbed Dose

A

b. Roentgen, Radiation Absorbed Dose, Roentgen Equivalent in Man

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17
Q

The unit(s) that measures the amount of ionization by radiation that occurs in AIR is the:

a. Roentgen
b. Gray
c. Coloumbs/kilogram
d. both A and B
e. both A and C

A

e. both A and C

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18
Q

The risk of dental radiography inducing a fatal cancer is:

a. approximately three in a million
b. more likely to occur than from spontaneous cancer formation
c. approximately the same as the risk of death from riding a bicycle 10 miles
d. all of the above
e. A and C only

A

e. A and C only

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19
Q

The FIRST important step in limiting the amount of x-radiation exposure is correctly prescribing dental radiographs. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

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20
Q

All of the following are true about pregnancy and x-radiation exposure EXCEPT:

a. the FDA recommendations do not have to be altered
b. in a FMS (18 films) with lead apron, the uterus receives 1 REM to the uterus
c. background radiation in 9 months accounts for 225 mREMs to the uterus
d. you should avoid exposure unless needed (weigh risk to benefit)

A

b. in a FMS (18 films) with lead apron, the uterus receives 1 REM to the uterus

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT used to focus the x-ray beam and reduce scatter?

a. lead collimators
b. Position-Indicating Device (PID)
c. aluminum disks
d. none of the above

A

c. aluminum disks

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22
Q

Which of the following is an example of a radiosensitive cell?

a. muscle cells
b. nerve cells
c. mature bone cells
d. bone marrow cells

A

d. bone marrow cells

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23
Q

When taking radiographs, for patient protection during exposure:

a. always use a lead apron and thyroid collar for intraoral films
b. protec reproductive and blood forming tissues from scatter radiation
c. don’t use a thyroid collar for panoramic films
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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24
Q

The single most effective method for reducing patient’s exposure to x-radiation DURING exposure is:

a. longer PID
b. utilizing a lead apron
c. using a fast film
d. proper prescription of radiographs

A

c. using a fast film

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25
Q

All of the following are operator protection guidelines EXCEPT:

a. never hold the tubehead during x-ray exposure
b. stand at least 4 feet away from the tubehead
c. stand at a position perpendicular to the primary beam (90-135 degree angle)
d. when the adequate distance from the tubehead is not possible, a protective barrier should be used

A

b. stand at least 4 feet away from the tubehead

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26
Q

Any radiation with the exception of the primary beam that is emitted from the tubehead is:

a. background radiation
b. Compton scatter radiation
c. leakage radiation
d. photoelectric radiation

A

c. leakage radiation

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27
Q

The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act:

a. was enacted in 1981
b. addressed the certification of persons using radiographic equipment
c. was set by the federal government
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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28
Q

The maximum accumulated dose (MAD):

a. is determined by the worker’s age
b. addresses an accumulated (lifetime) dose
c. is 0.1rems for non-occupationally exposed persons
d. both A and B

A

d. both A and B

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29
Q

Using E-speed film rather than D-speed film reduces the exposure time by at least half. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

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30
Q

The film badge for personnel monitoring:

a. should be worn over the heart
b. should NEVER be removed
c. may be shared with personnel exposed to similar threat of radiation leakage
d. should NEVER be worn while the radiographer is undergoing x-ray exposure of their own

A

d. should NEVER be worn while the radiographer is undergoing x-ray exposure of their own

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31
Q

The purpose of the aluminum disks in the x-ray tubehead is:

a. to filter out the long wavelength x-rays
b. to focus the beam and reduce scatter radiation
c. to slow down the x-radiation and lower the energy and/or penetrating power of the x-rays
d. all of the above

A

a. to filter out the long wavelength x-rays

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32
Q

In dentistry, R=rad=rem. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

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33
Q

What does ALARA stand for?

a. a least radiation acquired accumulated
b. aiming for lowest radiation achieved
c. as low as reasonably achievable
d. as low as radiation acheived

A

c. as low as reasonably achievable

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34
Q

A thyroid shield should NOT be used in panoramic radiography because:

a. the thyroid is not exposed to radiation
b. thyroid shield blocks radiation
c. thyroid shield interferes with image
d. both B and C

A

d. both B and C

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35
Q

Which is the best PID shape for reducing radiation exposure to the patient?

a. conical
b. round
c. rectangular
d. triangular

A

c. rectangular

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36
Q

The person who discovered x-rays while working with cathode ray tubes was:

a. W.J. Morton
b. W. H. Rollins
c. Wilhelm Roentgen
d. F. Gordon Fitzgerald

A

c. Wilhelm Roentgen

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37
Q

Of the following uses of dental radiographs, which is the primary benefit to the patient?

a. detection
b. confirmation
c. localization
d. documentation of change

A

a. detection

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38
Q

Which film size is also called the narrow anterior film?

a. Size 0
b. Size 1
c. Size 2
d. Size 3
e. Size 4

A

b. Size 1

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39
Q

The number of BWX films necessary is based on which of the following?

a. the curvature of the arch
b. the number of teeth present in the posterior areas
c. the size of film used
d. all of the above
e. A and B only

A

d. all of the above

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40
Q

Which component of x-ray film provides a stable support for the emulsion?

a. film base
b. adhesive layer
c. gelatin
d. halide crystals

A

a. film base

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41
Q

The latent image is stored by the ________ in the dental x-ray film.

a. gelatin
b. film base
c. adhesive layer
d. silver halide crystals

A

d. silver halide crystals

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42
Q

Which of the following statements about duplicating film is false?

a. it is not exposed to x-rays
b. it may be placed intraorally or extraorally
c. it is used in the darkroom
d. it is used to make copies of radiographs

A

b. it may be placed intraorally or extraorally

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43
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of film composition, from external to internal?

a. protective layer, film emulsion, adhesive layer, film base
b. film base, film emulsion, adhesive layer, protective layer
c. protective layer, film base, adhesive layer, film emulsion
d. protective layer, adhesive layer, film emulsion, film base

A

a. protective layer, film emulsion, adhesive layer, film base

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44
Q

The tube side of the dental film packet:

a. has the flap used to open the dental film
b. is solid white
c. should face the patient’s tongue
d. is color coded

A

b. is solid white

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45
Q

The purpose of __________ is to chemically reduce the exposed, energized silver halide crystals into black metallic silver.

a. developer
b. fixer
c. rinsing
d. washing

A

a. developer

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46
Q

Where is the BEST place a box of OPENED extraoral films be stored?

a. in a well ventilated area
b. in a cool dry area
c. in the darkroom
d. none of the above

A

c. in the darkroom

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47
Q

What is the function of the gelatin in the film emulsion?

a. suspends silver halide crystals in the film base
b. helps absorb the fixing solution
c. absorbs radiation, allowing it to come into contact with the silver halide crystals
d. provides the stable support for the film

A

a. suspends silver halide crystals in the film base

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48
Q

Which of the following components is the same in both the developer and the fixer?

a. acidifier
b. hardening agent
c. accelerator
d. preservative

A

d. preservative

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49
Q

Which of the following film packet layers protects the film from back-scatter radiation?

a. paper film wrapper
b. lead foil sheet
c. outer package wrapper
d. none of the above

A

b. lead foil sheet

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50
Q

The aggregate of _________ that make up the latent image center in the crystal.

a. film emulsion
b. bromine atoms
c. neutral silver atoms
d. gelatin

A

c. neutral silver atoms

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51
Q

Which of the following conditions contribute to faster film speed?

a. double sided emulsion
b. the presence of radiosensitive dyes
c. larger silver halide crystals
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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52
Q

The film emulsion is hardened during:

a. development
b. fixation
c. drying
d. washing

A

b. fixation

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53
Q

Reticulation of the film is most commonly caused by:

a. static electricity
b. extreme temperature changes
c. insufficient fixing time
d. air bubbles

A

b. extreme temperature changes

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54
Q

The central ray of the beam should be directed perpendicular to the curve of the arch and through the contacts to help avoid:

a. cone cuts
b. elongation
c. overlap
d. forechortening

A

c. overlap

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55
Q
  1. Foreshortening is caused by excessive vertical angulation. 2. Elongation is caused by excessive vertical angulation.
    a. both statements are true
    b. both statements are false
    c. statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
    d. statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
A

c. statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false

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56
Q

During processing, unexposed silver halide crystals are removed from the film emulsion by which of the following?

a. Elon
b. Hydroquinone
c. Sodium thiosulfate
d. Potassium bromide
e. Sodium carbonate

A

c. Sodium thiosulfate

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57
Q

Which fo the following solutions is responsible for softening the emulsion during processing?

a. acetic acid
b. sodium carbonate
c. sodium thiosulfate
d. sodium sulfite

A

b. sodium carbonate

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58
Q

An unexposed radiograph will appear:

a. completely clear
b. completely dark
c. partially dark (fogged)
d. none of the above

A

a. completely clear

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59
Q

With ____________, images appear stretched and distorted.

a. film creasing
b. film bending
c. tubehead movement
d. patient movement

A

b. film bending

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60
Q

The fixing agent is commonly called?

a. clearing agent
b. gelatin agent
c. neutralizing agent
d. preservative

A

a. clearing agent

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61
Q

It is necessary to maintain an adequate distance of 4 feet or more and not exceed 2-3 min. under safelight illumination when unwrapping x-ray film for developing. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

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62
Q

Which of the following is the largest intra-oral film?

a. size 4
b. size 3
c. size 2
d. size 1

A

a. size 4

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63
Q

The first step in =manual film processing is:

a. development
b. rinsing
c. fixation
d. washing
e. drying

A

a. development

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64
Q

An interproximal examination is ___________.

a. called a bitewing x-ray
b. used to examine in-between teeth and crestal bone
c. A and B
d. none of the above

A

c. A and B

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65
Q

A periapical examination is used to examine the ________.

a. interproximal areas
b. apex of the tooth only
c. the entire tooth
d. the crown of the tooth

A

c. the entire tooth

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66
Q
  1. The quality of the x-ray beam refers to the energy or penetrating power of the x-ray beam. 2. The quality of the x-ray beam is controlled by the kVp.
    a. both statements are true
    b. both statements are false
    c. statement 1 is true and 2 is false
    d. statement 1 is false and 2 is true
A

a. both statements are true

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67
Q

The overall darkness or blackness of the film is known as its:

a. opacity
b. density
c. contrast
d. shaprness

A

b. density

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68
Q

___________ refers to the number of x-rays produced and is controlled by the _________.

a. Quality; kVp
b. Quantity; kVp
c. Quality; mA
d. Quantity; mA

A

d. Quantity; mA

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69
Q

To keep the film DENSITY constant; If mA is increased, then the exposure time is decreased; if mA is decreased, then exposure time is increased. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

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70
Q

What is the main function of changing the mA on the dental x-ray control panel?

a. wavelengths
b. speed of electron travel
c. penetrating ability of the x-ray beam
d. quantity of x-rays
e. all of the above

A

d. quantity of x-rays

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71
Q

When density of the tissues is being considered, a very low density area (tissue) will:

a. stop the x-ray completely and appear white on the radiograph
b. partially block the x-ray and appear gray
c. allow the x-rays to pass through and appear black on the film
d. none of the above

A

c. allow the x-rays to pass through and appear black on the film

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72
Q

When increasing the kVp on the control panel, which of the following is likely to occur?

a. a low contrast image
b. a radiograph with high density
c. an image with more black and white
d. all of the above
e. B and C only

A

d. all of the above

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73
Q

The measurement of force used to provide the penetrating ability of the x-ray is the:

a. amperage
b. voltage
c. velocity
d. frequency

A

b. voltage

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74
Q

A higher kilovoltage produces x-rays with:

a. greater energy levels
b. shorter wavelengths
c. more penetrating ability
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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75
Q

Magnification can be caused by which of the following factors?

a. A long PID
b. a short object-film distance
c. a short target-film distance
d. all of the above

A

c. a short target-film distance

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76
Q

Which of the following are true concerning contrast?

a. short-scale (high contrast) results from a low kVp setting
b. long-scale (low contrast) can be described as having low contrast
c. long-scale contrast exhibits many densities or shades of gray
d. all of the above
e. B and C only

A

d. all of the above

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77
Q

The penumbra or fuzziness surrounding a radiographic image is used to distinguish which geometric characteristic?

a. distortion
b. magnification
c. sharpness
d. all of the above

A

c. sharpness

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78
Q

All of the following are true concerning the focal spot size EXCEPT:

a. it is found on the tungsten target of the anode
b. it is set by the manufacturer (can’t be changed)
c. the larger the focal spot area, the sharper the image appears
d. none of the above (all of the above are true)

A

c. the larger the focal spot area, the sharper the image appears

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79
Q

The target-to-surface distance:

a. is the same thing as the object-to-film distance
b. is determined by the length of the PID
c. determines the amount of distortion you will get
d. all of the above

A

b. is determined by the length of the PID

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80
Q

The x-ray beam should be directed perpendicular to the tooth and film. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

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81
Q

The tooth structure that appears the most radiolucent on the radiograph is the:

a. enamel
b. dentin
c. cementum
d. pulp

A

d. pulp

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82
Q

When radiographs are mounted labially, which of the following accurately describes the labial mount method?

a. the embossed dot is up/convex and the viewer’s orientation is facing the patient
b. the embossed dot is down/concave and the viewer’s orientation is facing the patient
c. the embossed dot is up/convex and the viewer’s orientation if from inside the patient’s mouth
d. the embossed dot is down/concave and the viewer’s orientation is from inside the patient’s mouth

A

a. the embossed dot is up/convex and the viewer’s orientation is facing the patient

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83
Q

A high-energy radiation produced by the collision of a beam of electrons with a metal target in an x-ray tube is called?

a. radiography
b. wavelength
c. radiograph
d. x-radiation

A

d. x-radiation

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84
Q

The overall blackness of an image is termed?

a. contrast
b. density
c. overexposure
d. polychromatic

A

b. density

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85
Q

A decreased focal spot size = increased sharpness. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

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86
Q

A radiograph that has high contrast is produced with:

a. high kilovoltage
b. low kilovoltage
c. high milliamperage
d. low milliamperage

A

b. low kilovoltage

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87
Q

The overall portion of a processed radiograph that appears light or white is termed

a. radiolucent
b. radiopaque
c. dense
d. high density

A

b. radiopaque

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88
Q

A dental patient has thick soft tissues and dense bones. To compensate for this increase in subject thickness and provide an image of diagnostic density, the dental radiographer may:

a. increase the exposure time
b. increase the milliamperage
c. increase the operating kilovoltage peak
d. any of the above

A

d. any of the above

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89
Q

Inverse square law: The intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source of radiation. Which statement is true?

a. PID length is changed from 8 inches to 16 inches - the result of the x-ray beam is 1/4 as intense.
b. PID length is changed from 16 to 8 - the result of the x-ray beam is tripled.
c. both statements are true
d. both statements are false

A

a. PID length is changed from 8 inches to 16 inches - the result of the x-ray beam is 1/4 as intense.

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90
Q

The distances to consider when exposing dental radiographs are:

a. target to surface
b. target to object
c. target receptor distance
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

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91
Q

The length of the PID device is changed from 16 inches to 8 inches. The resultant intensity of the beam will be:

a. 4 times as intense
b. 2 times as intense
c. 1/2 as intense
d. 1/4 as intense

A

a. 4 times as intense

92
Q

In the labial film mounting method, all the embossed identification dots are placed in the mount with the raised (convex) side facing the viewer. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

93
Q

Although all members of the dental team may view films, it is the responsibility of the dental hygienist to establish a final diagnosis. TRUE OR FALSE

A

False

94
Q

What are the 2 methods of mounting?

a. anterior and posterior mount
b. posterior and lingual mount
c. labial and lingual mount
d. none of the above

A

c. labial and lingual mount

95
Q

Anterior periapical images can be distinguished from posterior images because of:

a. the identification dot
b. the orientation of the x-ray film placement
c. the size of the x-ray film
d. the number of films used

A

b. the orientation of the x-ray film placement

96
Q

The kind of ionizing radiation that occurs in the dental tube is called _________. The kind that leaves the x-ray tube and penetrates the patient is called __________.

a. particulate; electromagnetic
b. electromagnetic; particulate
c. particulate; particulate
d. electromagnetic; electromagnetic

A

a. particulate; electromagnetic

97
Q

All of the following are component parts of the dental x-ray tubehead EXCEPT:

a. insulating oil
b. transformers
c. position-indicating device (PID)
d. kVp and mA selectors

A

d. kVp and mA selectors

98
Q

The process of converting incoming current that flows in two opposite directions, or ______ to ______, and which flows in one direction is called _______.

a. AC; DC; rectification
b. DC; AC; rectification
c. AC; DC; transformation
d. DC; AC; transformation

A

a. AC; DC; rectification

99
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the high-voltage circuit?

a. it uses 65,000 to 100,000 volts to operate
b. it requires the use of a step-up transformer to operate
c. it provides the high voltage required to accelerate electrons across the x-ray tube
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

100
Q

When an electron hits the nucleus of a tungsten atom or when an electron passes very close to the nucleus, this kind of radiation occurs.

a. general radiation
b. Bremsstrahlung radiation
c. “braking radiation”
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

101
Q

The following are true about wavelength EXCEPT:

a. it is the distance between one crest of a wave and the next crest of a wave
b. it determines the energy and penetrating power of electromagnetic radiation
c. the longer the wavelength, the higher the energy and the greater the penetrating power
d. none of the above (all of the above are true concerning wavelengths

A

c. the longer the wavelength, the higher the energy and the greater the penetrating power

102
Q
  1. Primary radiation is the x-ray beam produced at the tungsten target that exits the tubehead. 2. Secondary radiation is produced when the primary beam interacts with matter and scatter radiation occurs.
    a. both statements are true
    b. both statements are false
    c. statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
    d. statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
A

a. both statements are true

103
Q

Which of the following is (are) true about the transformers in the dental x-ray tube?

a. there are 3 different kinds of transformers
b. the step-down transformer lowers the incoming voltage to the 3-5 volts used by the filament circuit
c. the step-up transformer raises the incoming voltage to the 65,000-100,000 volts used by the high-voltage circuit
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

104
Q

The particular electromagnetic radiation wave concept is:

a. it’s wavelength
b. it’s frequency
c. it’s velocity
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

105
Q

Weightless bundles of energy, with no electrical charge, that are implicated in x-radiation are called:

a. protons
b. neutrons
c. photons
d. beta particles

A

c. photons

106
Q

What is the main function of changing the mA on a dental x-ray machine?

a. wavelengths
b. speed of electron travel
c. penetrating ability of the x-ray beam
d. quantity of x-rays
e. all of the above

A

d. quantity of x-rays

107
Q

The tungsten target in the anode of the dental x-ray tube is radioactive. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

108
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the anode?

a. negatively charged component
b. composed of the focusing cup and filament
c. contains the tungsten target
d. is the source of electrons

A

c. contains the tungsten target

109
Q

What percentage of kinetic energy inside the x-ray tube is actually converted to X-radiation?

a. 1%
b. 10%
c. 50%
d. 99%
e. 100%

A

a. 1%

110
Q

What is the purpose of the copper stem in the dental x-ray tube?

a. focus electrons into a narrow beam
b. dissipate heat from the tungsten target
c. provide the electron source for x-ray production
d. none of the above

A

b. dissipate heat from the tungsten target

111
Q

Which interaction of x-radiation with matter results in the x-ray giving up ALL of its energy upon collision with a tightly bound inner shell electron?

a. coherent scatter
b. Compton scatter
c. photoelectric effect
d. all of the above

A

c. photoelectric effect

112
Q

X-rays are generated when fast-moving electrons collide with matter. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

113
Q

Which of the following is a tiny hole located on the internal surface of the mandible near the apices of the incisors?

a. mental foramen
b. lingual foramen
c. mandibular foramen
d. genial tubercles

A

b. lingual foramen

114
Q

The anterior nasal spine produces which shape radiographically?

a. “J”
b. “U”
c. “V”
d. inverted “Y”

A

c. “V”

115
Q

Which structure of the mandible may actually be apparent on a maxillary PA?

a. condyle
b. coronoid process
c. internal oblique ridge
d. hamulus

A

b. coronoid process

116
Q

Which structure is NOT found on the internal surface of the mandible?

a. lingula
b. mylohyoid ridge
c. genial tubercles
d. mental ridge

A

d. mental ridge

117
Q

The “J”” or “U” shaped radiopaque structure that appears superior to the maxillary first molar region (and usually only seen when using the bisecting angle technique) is the:

a. maxillary tuberosity
b. coronoid process of the mandible
c. zygomatic process of the maxilla
d. maxillary sinus

A

c. zygomatic process of the maxilla

118
Q

The space between the lamina dura and the root that appears as a thin dark radiolucent line (in health) represents which structure?

a. septum
b. periodontal ligament
c. dento-enamel junction
d. alveolar crest

A

b. periodontal ligament

119
Q

A small ovoid/round, radiolucent area in the anterior of the hard palate, directly posterior to the central incisors is most likely the:

a. nasal cavity
b. incisive foramen
c. giant cell tumor
d. greater palatine foramen

A

b. incisive foramen

120
Q

A small ovoid/round, radiolucent area by the apices of the mandibular premolars that can be confused with periapical pathology is probably:

a. mandibular foramen
b. lingual foramen
c. nutrient canal
d. mental foramen

A

d. mental foramen

121
Q

The inverted “Y” is formed by the intersection of the lateral wall of the nasal cavity and what other structure?

a. maxillary sinus
b. nasal septum
c. zygoma
d. zygomatic process of the maxilla

A

a. maxillary sinus

122
Q

If both the internal and external oblique ridges are visible on a radiograph (not superimposed) the superior line will be the:

a. internal oblique ridge
b. external oblique ridge
c. a localization technique (SLOB or Right-angle) must be used to tell
d. both B and C

A

b. external oblique ridge

123
Q

Which of the following structures can be seen on a panoramic film, but can NOT normally be seen on an intraoral radiograph?

a. mental foramen
b. maxillary tuberosity
c. lamina dura
d. lingula

A

d. lingula

124
Q

If a patient has a mandibular tori, the bitewing should be placed:

a. on the tori
b. between the tori and the tooth
c. between the tori and the tongue
d. wherever it will fit in the patient’s mouth, it doesn’t matter

A

c. between the tori and the tongue

125
Q

Which of the following structure is NOT radiolucent?

a. external auditory meatus
b. pterygomaxillary fissure
c. tongue
d. palatoglossal air space

A

c. tongue

126
Q

On a panoramic radiograph where do the soft palate and uvula usually appear?

a. superimposed over the median palatine suture
b. slightly inferior to the radiopaque hard palate in the middle of the film
c. on both sides of the film over the maxillary tuberosity region
d. none of the above

A

c. on both sides of the film over the maxillary tuberosity region

127
Q

What can an interaction of an x-ray have with matter (the patient)?

a. coherent scatter
b. Compton scatter
c. no interaction
d. absorption or photoelectric effect
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

128
Q

What is the correct sequence of x-ray production in the dental x-ray tube?

a. exposure button is activated, electrons strike tungsten target, filament circuit is activated.
b. filament circuit is activated, exposure button is activated, electrons strike tungsten target.
c. electrons strike tungsten target, filament circuit is activated, exposure button is activated.
d. filament circuit is activated, electrons strike tungsten target, exposure button is activated.

A

b. filament circuit is activated, exposure button is activated, electrons strike tungsten target.

129
Q

The central ray of the beam should be directed perpendicular to the curve of the arch and through the contacts to help avoid:

a. cone cuts
b. elongation
c. overlap
d. foreshortening

A

c. overlap

130
Q

The primary reason(s) for taking bite-wing radiographs is (are) to:

a. examine the interproximal surfaces for caries
b. examine the crestal bone
c. examine for periapical lesions
d. all of the above
e. A and B only

A

e. A and B only

131
Q

The coin test is a quality assurance test used for monitoring which of the following?

a. the processing equipment
b. the freshness of the film
c. the light-tightness of the darkroom
d. the proper safelighting
e. both C and D

A

e. both C and D

132
Q

In which quality assurance test do you expose 20 of the same films, process just one and set the other 19 aside to be processed on subsequent days?

a. normalizing test
b. stepwedge test
c. reference test
d. none of the above

A

b. stepwedge test

133
Q

On the average, processing solutions should be changed _____?

a. once each day
b. once each week
c. every 3 to 4 weeks
d. every 8 to 10 weeks
c. every 3 to 4 months

A

c. every 3 to 4 weeks

134
Q

If the processor is functioning properly the unexposed film should be ______ and the exposed film should be ______ and both should be _____.

a. black, clear, wet
b. clear, black, wet
c. black, clear, dry
d. clear, black, dry

A

d. clear, black, dry

135
Q

Skills that promote good relationships between individuals are termed facilitation skills. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

136
Q

How many cases of cancer have dental x-rays caused?

a. 1 case in 20 years
b. 1 case in 50 years
c. possibility of a cancer case may be debated
d. not a single recorded case

A

d. not a single recorded case

137
Q

Concerning patient records, the owner of the records is the:

a. patient
b. dentist
c. insurance agency
d. federal government

A

b. dentist

138
Q

The process of informing the patient about the particulars of exposing dental radiographs is termed:

a. a treatment alternative
b. disclosure
c. self-determination
d. behavior modification

A

b. disclosure

139
Q

What is the time period that a patient can bring a malpractice action against a dentist/auxiliary called?

a. grace period
b. latent period
c. statute of limitations
d. retention period

A

c. statute of limitations

140
Q

The notion that the patient has the legal right to make choices about the care they receive is called:

a. informed consent
b. disclosure
c. standard of care
d. self-determination

A

d. self-determination

141
Q

Consent given by a patient following complete disclosure is called:

a. informed consent
b. self-determination
c. liability
d. risk management

A

a. informed consent

142
Q

Touching a cold virus contaminated door handle constitutes parenteral exposure. TRUE OR FALSE

A

False

143
Q

Which of the following are considered to be semi-critical instruments?

a. the exposure button
b. the x-ray control panel
c. the lead apron
d. x-ray film holding devices

A

d. x-ray film holding devices

144
Q

An instrument that does not contact mucous membranes is considered:

a. critical instrument
b. semi-critical instrument
c. occupational instrument
d. noncritical instrument

A

d. noncritical instrument

145
Q

Parenteral exposure is when:

a. exposure to infection material resulting from procedures performed by the dental professional
b. exposure to infectious materials that results from piercing or puncturing the skin

A

b. exposure to infectious materials that results from piercing or puncturing the skin

146
Q

The use of a physical or chemical procedure to destroy all pathogens, including the highly resistant bacterial and mycotic spores is:

a. asepsis
b. disinfect
c. sterilize
d. antiseptic

A

c. sterilize

147
Q

Comparing traditional intraoral radiography to digital intraoral radiography, which of the following pairs DOES NOT belong?

a. film : sensor
b. silver halide crystal : pixel
c. processor : computer
d. radiation : light

A

d. radiation : light

148
Q

If an existing x-ray film is digitized (using a CCD camera) in order to be viewed on and stored in the computer, which type of digital imaging has occured?

a. indirect digital imaging
b. storage phosphor imaging
c. direct digital imaging
d. all of the above

A

a. indirect digital imaging

149
Q

Digital radiography reduces exposure of the patient to radiation by as much as 50-80%, if not more. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

150
Q

In digital radiography, the term digital subtraction refers to:
a. reversing the gray-scale
b converting x-ray energy into an electronic signal
c. converting a traditional image (on film) into digital form
d. changing the color of the image on the computer screen

A

a. reversing the gray-scale

151
Q

The universal format for handling, storing, transferring three-dimensional images is termed:

a. MPR
b. DICOM
c. FOV
d. CBCT

A

b. DICOM

152
Q

The smallest element of a 3D image is called a:

a. FOV
b. micro speck
c. voxel
d. sensor

A

c. voxel

153
Q

Which of the following about film placement is correct?

a. anterior film is placed horizontally; posterior film is placed vertically
b. anterior film is placed vertically; posterior film is placed vertically
c. posterior film is placed horizontally; anterior film is placed vertically
d. none of the above

A

c. posterior film is placed horizontally; anterior film is placed vertically

154
Q

Which of the following are advantages of the parallel technique?

a. increased accuracy
b. decreased magnification
c. ease of duplication
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

155
Q

Which of the following describes the relationship between the receptor and the long axis of the tooth in the parallel technique?

a. the receptor and the tooth are parallel to each other
b. the receptor and the tooth are at right angles to each other
c. the receptor and the tooth are perpendicular to each other
d. the receptor and the tooth are intersecting each other

A

a. the receptor and the tooth are parallel to each other

156
Q

Why is an increased target to receptor (film) distance required in the paralleling technique?

a. to avoid image magnification
b. to avoid distortion
c. to reduce scatter radiation
d. to improve receptor comfort

A

a. to avoid image magnification

157
Q

What does the “dot in the slot” rule mean?

a. to make sure you can identify right and left
b. to avoid an artifact by the roots of the teeth
c. to make sure the film is facing the tube head correctly
d. none of the above

A

b. to avoid an artifact by the roots of the teeth

158
Q

Identify XCP part: (blue, metal, postlike with pegs, step shaped with pegs on side of top “step”)

a. posterior indicator arm
b. anterior indicator arm
c. aiming ring
d. bite block

A

b. anterior indicator arm

159
Q

Identify XCP part: (blue, plastic, hollow circle-shaped, attachment is centered instead of off-centered)

a. posterior aiming ring
b. posterior indicator
c. anterior indicator
d. anterior aiming ring

A

d. anterior aiming ring

160
Q

Identify correct XCP setup (yellow, posterior set, arm steps toward ring and XCP holder is seated upward when on the right side)

a. upper right and lower left setup
b. upper left and lower right setup
c. upper left and lower left setup
d. upper right and lower right setup

A

b. upper left and lower right setup

161
Q

It is legal for the dental hygienist to make the final interpretation but not the final diagnosis. TRUE OR FALSE

A

False

162
Q

Which of the following is (are) true concerning the alveolar crest?

a. it is pointed and thin in the anterior region
b. it appears more dense in the posterior region
c. it is located 4-5 mm below the CEJ in health
d. all of the above

A

a. it is pointed and thin in the anterior region

163
Q

Which of the following is NOT used to hold the film in the mouth with the BISECTING-ANGLE technique?

a. XCP bite block
b. Stabe bite block
c. EEZZEE grip/Snap-A-Ray
d. Rinn XCP film holder and aligning ring

A

d. Rinn SCP film holder and aligning ring

164
Q

The plane that divides in half the angle formed by the film and the long-axis of the tooth is called the:

a. hypotenuse
b. imaginary bisector
c. isometric bisector
d. all of the above

A

b. imaginary bisector

165
Q

In the bisecting technique, if the PID (and resulting x-ray beam) is lined up with the tooth, which of the following is likely to result?

a. elongation
b. foreshortening
c. nothing, this is correct

A

a. elongation

166
Q

Which of the three primary periapical radiolucencies require(s) root canal therapy or extraction as part of the treatment?

a. periapical granuloma
b. periapical cyst
c. periapical abscess
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

167
Q

Which stage of interproximal caries extends to or through the DEJ and into dentin, but no more than 1/2 way through the dentin?

a. incipient interproximal caries
b. moderate interproximal caries
c. advanced interproximal caries
d. severe interproximal caries

A

c. advanced interproximal caries

168
Q

The complete displacement of a tooth from the alveolar socket is called:

a. avulsion
b. luxation
c. propulsion
d. expulsion

A

a. avulsion

169
Q

Which of the following is (are) true concerning pulp stones?

a. they are generally asymptomatic
b. root canal therapy and/or extraction are the treatment options of choice
c. caused by trauma to the pulp
d. all of the above

A

a. they are generally asymptomatic

170
Q

Which of the following periapical radiopacities is found at the apex of a NONVITAL tooth?

a. sclerotic bone
b. condensing osteitis
c. hypercementosis
d. idiopathic periapical osteosclerosis
e. B and D

A

b. condensing osteitis

171
Q

Which of the following is (are) true about root fractures?

a. less common than crown fractures
b. if the x-ray beam is parallel with the plane of the fracture, then the fracture appears as a sharp radiolucent line on the film
c. the space between the 2 fractured segments becomes more evident with time
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

172
Q

The following are true about external resorption EXCEPT:

a. most often affects the apical area of the tooth
b. roots will appear blunted and shorter
c. can be caused from trauma or idiopathic reasons
d. the lamina dura and surrounding bone will also be affected
e. none of the above (all of the above are true)

A

d. the lamina dura and surrounding bone will also be affected

173
Q

The type of interproximal caries that extend more than halfway through the enamel but do not involve the DEJ are:

a. incipient
b. moderate
c. advanced
d. severe

A

b. moderate

174
Q

The type of caries that occur adjacent to existing restorations and appear on a film as a radiolucent area just below (or adjacent to) the restoration are:

a. refractory caries
b. restoration caries
c. recurrent caries
d. none of the above

A

c. recurrent caries

175
Q

Resorption that occurs due to shedding of primary teeth is referred to as

a. primary resorption
b. pathologic resorption
c. physiologic resorption
d. characteristic resorption

A

c. physiologic resorption

176
Q

When a tooth is displaced INTO the bone, we have:

a. intrusion
b. extrusion
c. avulsion
d. all of the above

A

a. intrusion

177
Q

Which of the following pathologies is associated with a nonvital tooth?

a. pulp stones
b. pulpal obliteration
c. sclerotic bone
d. hypercementosis

A

b. pulpal obliteration

178
Q

Which of the following is the correct order from most radiopaque to least?

a. gold, stainless steel, gutta purcha, acrylic
b. gutta purcha, acrylic, gold, stainless steel
c. gold stainless steel, acrylic, gutta purcha
d. gutta purcha, gold, stainless steel, acrylic

A

a. gold, stainless steel, gutta purcha, acrylic

179
Q

A kVp at the lower end of the scale (65 kVp) is optimal for:

a. detecting periodontal disease
b. detecting caries
c. obtaining low contrast
d. none of the above

A

b. detecting caries

180
Q

Which of the following terms is a type of radiolucent lesion?

a. target lesion
b. multifocal confluent
c. ground glass
d. moth-eaten pattern

A

d. moth-eaten pattern

181
Q

Unilocular lesions tend to be:

a. small and expansile
b. small and nonexpansile
c. large and expansile
d. large and nonespansile

A

b. small and nonexpansile

182
Q

A large, well-adapted radiopaque restoration with smooth borders is probably:

a. silver amalgam
b. gold
c. porcelain
d. composite

A

b. gold

183
Q

Post and core restorations are often seen in ________ treated teeth.

a. periodontally
b. orthodontically
c. endodontically
d. nonendodontically

A

c. endodontically

184
Q

A thin RADIOPAQUE line outlining the prepared tooth may be evident on a dental radiograph of an all porcelain crown. This thin line represents:

a. decay
b. cement
c. an air pocket
d. a metal substructure

A

b. cement

185
Q

Diatorics are found in:

a. silver point endodontic fillings
b. gutta percha endodontic fillings
c. restorations as an anchoring device
d. anterior porcelain denture teeth

A

d. anterior porcelain denture teeth

186
Q

Which radiographic technique is recommended for taking PAs on a child?

a. paralleling technique
b. bisecting technique
c. occlusal technique
d. children are too young to obtain intraoral PAs, instead a pano should be taken

A

b. bisecting technique

187
Q

Which of the following describes the proper direction of the central ray in the bisecting technique?

a. 90 degrees to the long axis of the tooth
b. 90 degrees to the receptor and long axis of the tooth
c. 90 degrees to the receptor
d. 90 degrees to the imaginary bisector

A

d. 90 degrees to the imaginary bisector

188
Q

Which of the following describes the distance between the receptor and the tooth in the bisecting technique?

a. the receptor is placed as close as possible to the tooth
b. the receptor is placed away from the tooth and toward the middle of the oral cavity
c. the receptor is placed parallel to the tooh
d. none of the above

A

a. the receptor is placed as close as possible to the tooth

189
Q

Horizontal angulation refers to the placement of the position-indicating device (PID) in a(n) ______ plane. Vertical angulation refers to the positioning the PID in a(n) _____ plane.

a. side-to-side; side-to-side
b. side-to-side; up-and-down
c. up-and-down; side-to-side
d. up-and-down; up-and-down

A

b. side-to-side; up-and-down

190
Q

Foreshortened images refer to images of the teeth that appear ______. Foreshortening of images results from _______ vertical angulation.

a. shortened; insufficient
b. shortened; excessive
c. too long; insufficient
d. too long; excessive

A

b. shortened; excessive

191
Q

Which of the following techniques use the same principles of horizontal angulation? 1. paralleling 2. bisecting 3. bite-wing

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2
c. 2, 3
d. 1, 3

A

a. 1, 2, 3

192
Q

Identify primary beam, long-axis of tooth, imaginary bisector and receptor on an image.

A

primary beam - perpendicular to imaginary bisector
long-axis of tooth - line bisecting tooth, coronal-apically
imaginary bisector - line bisecting angle made by long-axis of tooth and plane of film
plane of film - line following long-axis of receptor film

193
Q

Which of the following positioning techniques is NOT correct for a panoramic exposure?

a. position the midsagittal plane perpendicular to the floor
b. position the Frankfort plane perpendicular to the floor
c. instruct the patient to bite end-to-end in the notched bite-block
d. none of the above (all of the above are correct)

A

b. position the Frankfort plane perpendicular to the floor

194
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the panoramic radiograph?

a. simplicity
b. minimal exposure compared to a FMS
c. patient cooperation
d. image quality

A

d. image quality

195
Q

In panoramic radiography, a ghost image refers to:

a. radiolucent artifact with idiopathic origin
b. a radiopaque image that results from using the thyroid collar
c. a radiolucent image that results from failure to have the patient swallow and place their tongue on the roof of the mouth
d. a radiopaque artifact that resembles its counterpart and is found on the opposite side of the film

A

d. a radiopaque artifact that resembles its counterpart and is found on the opposite side of the film

196
Q

Which of the following is (are) true concerning the alveolar crest?

a. it is pointed and thing in the anterior region
b. it appears more dense in the posterior region
c. it is located 4-5 mm below the CEJ in health
d. all of the above

A

a. it is pointed and thing in the anterior region

197
Q

Before bone loss is identifiable on film, how much loss of mineralization must occur?

a. 10-20%
b. 20-30%
c. 30-50%
d. 50-80%

A

c. 30-50%

198
Q

In which extraoral radiograph technique is the tope of the patient’s head placed against the cassette in order to view the condyles, the base of the skull and the zygomatic arch?

a. Waters projection
b. submentovertex projection
c. posteroanterior projection
d. transcranial projection

A

b. submentovertex projection

199
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a predisposing factor for bone loss?

a. calculus
b. overhanging margins of restoration
c. a tooth with a long root
d. teeth (or restorations) with open contacts

A

c. a tooth with a long root

200
Q

When bone loss does not occur in a plane parallel with the CEJ we have:

a. angular bone loss
b. vertical bone loss
c. infrabony pocket formation (pockets that go apical to the alveolar bone)
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

201
Q

Which of the following cannot be determined about a patient’s periodontal health from full-mouth series of radiographs?

a. identification of predisposing factors
b. location of bone loss
c. pocket depths
d. type of bone loss

A

c. pocket depths

202
Q

Triangulation is an early sign of periodontal destruction and is the widening of what structure?

a. alveolar crest or interdental septum
b. periodontal ligament
c. lamina dura
d. junctional epithelium

A

b. periodontal ligament

203
Q

The advanced periodontal disease is described as:

a. pattern of bone loss may be horizontal or vertical
b. pocket depth is 6 mm and greater
c. mobility and furcation involvement are more severe
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

204
Q

Which of the following is a (are) true difference(s) between an intraoral x-ray tubehead and an extraoral tubehead (used for a pano)?

a. the extraoral tubehead rotates around the patient while the intraoral tubehead remains stationary
b. the collimator in the extraoral tubehead is a lead plate with a narrow vertical slit
c. the x-ray beam in the extraoral unit is directed slightly upward
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

205
Q

Screen film is more sensitive to light than regular film. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

206
Q

Calcium tungstate screens:

a. emit green light
b. emit blue light
c. require less radiation than rare earth screens
d. both A and C

A

b. emit blue light

207
Q

In your dental office you only have a standard intraoral x-ray unit. Which of the following extraoral projections could you take in the office?

a. transcranial projection
b. lateral cephalometric projection
c. TMJ tomography
d. all of the above

A

a. transcranial projection

208
Q

Device used in extraoral radiography to reduce the amount of scatter radiation to the film is:

a. a grid
b. a cephalostat
c. a craniostat
d. a filter

A

a. a grid

209
Q

Which one of the extraoral techniques is used specifically to evaluate the maxillary sinuses?

a. lateral cephalometric
b. Waters
c. panoramic
d. lateral jaw

A

b. Waters

210
Q

Intensifying screens in panoramic cassettes are used to:

a. increase sharpness
b. decrease magnification
c. increase film detail
d. reduce patient exposure to radiation

A

d. reduce patient exposure to radiation

211
Q

In terms of panoramic radiography, the curved zone in which the dental arches should be positioned to see the clearest image is called the:

a. focal trough
b. end zone
c. tuve zone
d. clear layer

A

a. focal trough

212
Q

To correct the slender appearance of the anterior teeth on a panoramic radiograph, the dental radiographer should:

a. position the patient further forward
b. position the patient further back
c. raise the patient’s chin up
d. lower the patient’s chin down

A

b. position the patient further back

213
Q

On a panoramic x-ray machine, the kVp, mA and exposure time can all be adjusted. TRUE OR FALSE

A

False

214
Q

A panoramic image with a ‘jack-o-lantern’ or extreme smile results from:

a. chin too low
b. chin too high
c. patient placed too far anteriorly
d. patient placed too far posteriorly

A

a. chin too low

215
Q

Prior to a gag reflex which of the following will occur:

a. cessation of breathing
b. contraction of the muscles of the throat
c. contraction of the stomach muscles
d. all of the above
e. A and B only

A

d. all of the above

216
Q

In which occlusal projection is it necessary to lower the chair to a supine position?

a. maxillary topographic
b. maxillary lateral
c. mandibular topographic
d. cross-sectional (90 degrees)

A

d. cross-sectional (90 degrees)

217
Q

The gag reflex is a(n) ________ effort, preceded by _______ of respiration.

a. voluntary; an increased rate
b. involuntary; cessation
c. voluntary; cessation
d. involuntary; an increased rate

A

b. involuntary; cessation

218
Q

Which of the following choices would represent the suggested film placement sequence for a patient who is likely to gag? 1. anterior 2. premolar 3. molar

a. 2, 3, 1
b. 3, 1, 2
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 2, 1, 3

A

c. 1, 2, 3

219
Q

According to the SLOB rule, when two radiographs are compared, the object that lies to the lingual appears to have moved in the same direction as the position-indicating device (PID), and the object that lies to the buccal appears to have moved in the opposite direction as the PID.

A

ans

220
Q

Which of the following suggestions are intended to help reduce the gag reflex?

a. instructing the patient to breathe rapidly through the nose
b. asking the patient to suspend an arm or leg in the air
c. placing a small amount of baking soda on the tip of the tongue
d. asking the patient to perform jumping jacks for 5 minutes in the treatment room

A

b. asking the patient to suspend an arm or leg in the air

221
Q

A developmental disability is a substantial impairment of mental or physical functioning that occurs before age ___ years and is of indefinite duration.

a. 12
b. 18
c. 19
d. 22

A

d. 22

222
Q

CASE STUDY Today is the first dental appointment for Elena Simonov, who is 8 years old. The first adult molars have erupted in Elena’s mouth, and her primary first and second molars are present.
Which of the following image receptor sizes is/are recommended for a child such as Elena? 1. size 0; 2. size 1; 3. size 2; 4. size 3
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 2
d. 2, 3
e. 1

A

d. 2, 3

223
Q

CASE STUDY Today is the first dental appointment for Elena Simonov, who is 8 years old. The first adult molars have erupted in Elena’s mouth, and her primary first and second molars are present.
Which of the following techniques is preferred in children with a primary or transitional dentition?
a. paralleling
b. bisecting
c. occlusal
d. anteroposterior

A

b. bisecting

224
Q

CASE STUDY Today is the first dental appointment for Elena Simonov, who is 8 years old. The first adult molars have erupted in Elena’s mouth, and her primary first and second molars are present.
How many images should be obtained for a complete mouth radiographic series for Elena?
a. 12
b. 14
c. 16
d. 18

A

a. 12

225
Q

CASE STUDY Today is the first dental appointment for Elena Simonov, who is 8 years old. The first adult molars have erupted in Elena’s mouth, and her primary first and second molars are present.
How many maxillary molar periapical images (right and left sides) should be exposed as part of a complete mouth radiographic series for Elena?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

b. 2

226
Q

The dental radiographer can use a ____________ approach to prepare the pediatric patient for imaging procedures.

a. show and tell
b. do as I say
c. quizzing
d. minimal

A

a. show and tell

Finals Spring 2014 (3 decks)

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