Test Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are smaller than normal RBCs and have no central pallor?

A

Spherocytes

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2
Q

Spherocytes have an increased what?

A

Mean cell hemoglobin concentration

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3
Q

Intellectual disability, marfanoid habitus, and lens subluxation

A

Homocystinuria

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4
Q

Subscapularis

A

medially (internally rotates) and adducts arm

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5
Q

supraspinatus

A

abduction for first 15 degrees then deltoid takes over

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6
Q

infraspiantus

A

adducts and lateral (external rotates)

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7
Q

teres minor works like what other rotator cuff muscle

A

infraspinatus

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8
Q

Duchenne Muscular dystrophy due to

A

frameshift or nonsense mutation; which leads to truncated dystrophin protein and inhibits muscle regeneration

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9
Q

Becker is due to:

A

nonframe shift insertion in dystrophin gene; so there is a partially functional instead of truncated dystrophin protein

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10
Q

LSD overdose:

A

hallucinations, delusions, and dilated pupils, marked anxiety, or depression, nausea, weakness and paresthesias

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11
Q

Normally umbilical cord contains how many umbilical arteries and veins?

A

2 arteries and 1 vein

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12
Q

umbilical arteries do what?

A

return deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the mother

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13
Q

umbilical veins do what?

A

take oxygenated blood from placenta to fetus

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14
Q

Benzodiazepine intoxication:

A

unsteady gait, slurred speech, and respiratory depression

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15
Q

Treatment for Benzodiazepine overdose MOA

A

flumazenil: competitive antagonist so it works by displacing the drug from its binding site

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16
Q

What occurs when the sinusoidal stellate cells are activated by cytokines, inflammatory cells, and other stimuli?

A

liver fibrosis

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17
Q

What is characterized pathologically by regenerative nodules with thick collagenous septae?

A

cirrhosis of the liver

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18
Q

decreased cortisol and aldosterone levels, typically psxn: fatigue, weight loss, skin hyper pigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypotension.

A

Addison’s disease

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19
Q

Addison’s disease due to:

A

autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands

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20
Q

What test differentiates primary adrenal insufficiency from secondary and tertiary adrenal insufficiency?

A

ACTH stimulation test

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21
Q

MSUD

A

deficiency of alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase which is used to degrade branched chain amino acids like valine, leucine and isoleucine

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22
Q

ace inhibitors cause _____ damage in fetus?

A

renal

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23
Q

valproic acid causes ______ damage in fetus?

A

neural tube defects; skeletal damage

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24
Q

VHL disease: What chromosome? Increased risk of?

A

Ch. 3; hemangioblasmtomas (highly vascularized with hyper chromatic nuclei in the retina, brain stem, cerebellum, spine,

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25
Q

Primary brain tumor associated with ataxia and polycythemia; suggest?

A

VHL

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26
Q

Best treatment for cocaine intoxication?

A

benzodiazepine with a nondhydropyridine calcium channel blockers like verapamil or diltiazem used to control tachycardia

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27
Q

pancreatic adenocarcinoma associated wtih?

A

cigarrete smoke

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28
Q

migratory thrombophlebitis occurs after liberation of clotting factors such as?

A

tissue factor by some pancreatic tumors

29
Q

What layer of skin is only present on palmoplantar skin such as palms of the hands and soles of the feet

A

stratum lucidum

30
Q

Treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Adriamycin (doxorubicin), bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarabazine

31
Q

Aminoglycosides have what adverse effect?

A

nephrotoxicity (increased by cephalosporins), ototoxic (esp. with loop diuretic), neuromuscular blockage, and teratogen

32
Q

paclitaxel and vincristine/vinblastine stop the cell cycle in what phase?

A

M phase (mitosis)

33
Q

Meningiomas arise from what cell type?

A

arachnoid cells

34
Q

What histologic finding is associated with several neoplasms (papillary (thyroid), serous (ovary) meningioma, mesothelioma?

A

psammoma bodies

35
Q

V1 exits through

A

Superior orbital fissures

36
Q

V2 exits through

A

foramen rotundum

37
Q

V3 exits through

A

foramen ovale

38
Q

What is effective in augmenting hemoglobin levels in a patient with anemia of chronic disease?

A

erythropoietin

39
Q

Alpha synuclein aggregates

A

parkinson disease

40
Q

What drug is also a H2 blocker and used to treat peptic ulcer disease but does not have the same antiandrogenic effects as cimetidine?

A

ranitidine

41
Q

plasmodium ovale causes what kind of fever?

A

48 hour cyclical fever

42
Q

plasmodium falciparum causes what kind of involvement? and what kind of fever?

A

cerebral involvement, irregular not cyclical fevers

43
Q

plasmodium malariae causes what kind of fever?

A

72 hour cyclical fever

44
Q

Plasmodium vivid causes what kind of fever?

A

48 hour cyclical fever

45
Q

Division between day 4 and 8 after fertilization=

A

monozygotic twins, one chorion and two amnions

46
Q

Division with 3 days after fertilization =

A

monozygotic with diamniotic, dichorionic

47
Q

Division between 8- 12 days after fertilization=

A

monochorionic monudiamniotic; monozygotic twins

48
Q

Rare adverse effect of fluoquinolones=; also these drugs work on what?

A

tendon damage; inhibit DNA gyrate (topoisomerase 2)

49
Q

Subthalamic nuclei normally does what?

A

excitation of the internal segment of the globus pallidus

50
Q

B lymphocyte deficiency is apparent histologically by lack of what found in the lymph node?

A

germinal centers

51
Q

Treat B lymphocyte deficiency with?

A

immunoglobulin injections

52
Q

Seminomas are the MC testicular neoplasm and have what kind of presentation? what kind of histology?

A

painless that are radiosensitive; appear like large cells in lobules, with watery cytoplasm and fried egg appearance

53
Q

Embryonal carcinoma appears like?

A

alveolar or papillary pattern ; poor prognosis; not radiosensitive

54
Q

Yolk sac tumor appears like?

A

glomeruloid structures resembling endodermal sinus ( Schiller Duval bodies)

55
Q

Leydig cell tumors appear like?

A

reinke crystals ; non germ cell tumor

56
Q

Treat sarcoidosis with what drug? possible adverse effect of drug is?

A

corticosteroids; can cause Cushing syndrome (buffalo hump, moon facies)

57
Q

What is one of the rate determine enzymes in renal gluconeogenesis?

A

fructose 1-6 bisphosphatase

58
Q

Pancoast tumors are most often what kind of cancer?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

59
Q

ptosis, mitosis, anhidrosis of the ipsilateral side of the face

A

Horner syndrome

60
Q

lung carcinomas located in the apes of the lung that can compress the stellate ganglion, leading to horner syndrome

A

pan coast tumors

61
Q

lesion is cerebellar hemisphere would result in:

A

ataxia, instability and dysmetria on the same side of the body as the lesion

62
Q

MCC of Mitral stenosis is

A

rhemautic heart disease

63
Q

What type of RNA is the most resistant to RNAse?

A

rRNA

64
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2 are what kind of mutations

A

loss of function mutations of the tumor suppressor genes BRCA 1 and BRCA2 are a/w increased risk of breast and ovarian cancer

65
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta

A

type 1 collagen

66
Q

ehler danlos

A

type 3 (vascular) and type 5 (classic)

67
Q

in the setting of atrial fibrillation you would give what anticoagulants?

A

direct factor xa inhibitors or dabigatran (direct thrombin inhibitor)

68
Q

dull pelvic pain, unilateral edema, decreased urine (ureter is compressed), constipation (colon is compressed) and palpable mass **will hear a bruit

A

common iliac artery aneurysm