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CompTIA Tests questions not covered in guide or I got wrong > Test Questions Chapters 2/3 > Flashcards

Test Questions Chapters 2/3 Flashcards

1
Q

What should MDF and IDF documentation take into account? What shouldn’t it?

A
  • -Power sources avaible
  • -environmental equipment needed to control temp and humidty
  • -distances the cable runs must span
  • -shouldn’t take into account costs
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2
Q

At what point in the installation process should patch panel ports and wall plates be labelled?

A

When the cables are attached to the connectors (not after they’re installed

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3
Q

The business is deploying new software under a change request. Apart from the including the installation procedure, would the change request include a list of software and hardware upgrades required to run the new software?

A

Apparently, Yes. although i’ve never seen this in change management experience. You only include the items that are actually changing, not what is required to run it!

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4
Q
  1. Authorizing downtime
  2. designating a maintenance window

Are 2 of the responsibilities of the change management team during the change process? True or FALSE

A

TRUE

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5
Q

Which Microsoft tool built into the OS is used for baselining?

A

Performance Monitor

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6
Q

on a Windows server enabling audit policies, it records information about both successful and failed access attempts in which of the below?
A. System B. Application C. Security D. Setup

A

Security log

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7
Q

In datacentres, which diagram contains the precise location of devices?

A

Rack Diagram

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8
Q

Network Maps aren’t draw to scale and don’t indicate the exact location of each device - TRUE or FALSE?

A

TRUE

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9
Q

Which RAIDS provide fault tolerance?

A

RAID1 and RAID5 (RAID10 too if exam asks for it)

*RAID5 needs 3 discs or more!

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10
Q

Power supplies in combined mode mean both supply the power at the same time. If one goes down the other can still provide power - TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE. The first part is right, but if one goes down the other will not be able to fully provide the power needs.
Supplies can run in only 1 of two modes, Redundant or Combined

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11
Q

Which types of back up doesn’t clear the archive bit after archiving?

A

Differential

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12
Q

grandfather, father and son refers to what type of back up is done - TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE. It refers to the backup jobs for daily, weekly and monthly

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13
Q

Windows server can provide full, differential and incremental backups, TRUE or FALSE?

A

FALSE. Only Full and Incremental

*It also can’t backup to magnetic media

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14
Q

Multilayer/content switches can provide load balancing, - TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

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15
Q

Multilayer switch typically works up to what layer?

A

Layer 4

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16
Q

UPS in online mode runs devices using battery power all the time - TRUE or FALSE?

A

TRUE. The mains power is directly wired to the batteries first. It means there’s no sag in power when the power fails.

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17
Q

Which UPS mode switches to battery power during a power failure?

A

Standby

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18
Q 
Bonding
Link Aggregation
Port Aggregation
NIC teaming
are all equivalent terms for what?
A

Combining the bandwidth of two or more network adapters

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19
Q

Disc duplexing involves using multiple discs, each with it’s own disc controller to provide fault tolerance. TRUE or FALSE?

A

TRUE

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20
Q

What are computers known as in a network load-balancing cluster?
What are they known as in a fail-over cluster?

A

Hosts for load-balancing cluster

Nodes for failover cluster

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21
Q

Which type of backup uses the archive bit but doesn’t reset it after backing up and provides a short RTO?

A

Differential

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22
Q

Clustering, Load-Balancing, NIC teaming and NAT are concepts that frequently use virtual IP’s to provide high availability - TRUE or FALSE?

A

FALSE. Only Clustering and Load-balancing. NIC teaming doesn’t use virtual IP addresses. NAT isn’t a HA technology.

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23
Q

RTO is what? What does it depend on?

A

Recovery Time Objective - the amount of time it takes to restore data from the most recent backup. IT depends on the amount of data and the speed of the backup medium

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24
Q

What backup backs up all the data since the last backup of any kind?

A

Incremental

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25
Q

The types of applications subscribers use while accessing their provider’s services are covered by the SLA, true or false?

A

False

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26
Q

What mechanism allows a backup job spanning multiple removable media types to execute more quickly by automatically inserting and removing media.

A

An autochanger

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27
Q

What issue does RAID6 address? What’s the minimum number of drives required?

A

It addresses the issue with RAID5 where if 2 drives fail at the same time there is a high likelihood of permanent data loss. It uses two blocks of parity requiring min of 4 drives.

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28
Q

Which RAID levels provide fault tolerance with the down side of having the smallest amount of useable disc space?

A

RAID1 (50% between 2 discs) and RAID10 (I don’t understand how this is 50%.)

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29
Q

What is version skew and what can prevent it?

A

Version skew happens when a file is written/changed during a backup. The file is written to a directory that has already been backed up and thus won’t appear on the backup location.
Taking a snapshots prevents this.

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30
Q

which unix utility displays performance info about the currently running processes?

A

the TOP command.

31
Q

Which SNMP versions don’t include any security?

A

SNMPv1

SNMPv2c

32
Q

A driver update is typically applied to hardware or software?

33
Q

When does Microsoft release the latest OS patches for automatic download?

A

Second Tuesday of every month.

34
Q

Research
Testing
Backup
Are part of what process?

A

Patch Evaluation.

*Rolling back is not part of it.

35
Q

Device driver updates are least likely to be updated of the kinds of updates usually undertaken. Unless it addresses a specific bug or issue - TRUE or FALSE?

36
Q

to effectively monitor a network using SNMP, you must be sure that all of the equipment you purchase when designing and building your network supports the protocol - TRUE or FALSE?

37
Q

SNMPv2 does not use a community string for security, TRUE or FALSE?

38
Q

Port Scanners examine a system at what layer of the OSI?

A

Layer 4 - Transport (it looks for port numbers).

Ports can be described as ‘system endpoints’

39
Q

web server logs need a traffic analysis application to interpret and the logs are stored as text files - TRUE or FALSE
Is a protocol analyizer a traffic analyzer?

A

TRUE.
No according to the test questions. Protocol analysers can’t interpret web server logs, they interpret packets on the network

40
Q

Packet/protocol analyzers can look at data insight packets which can contain passwords in clear text - TRUE or FALSE?

A

TRUE

*packet sniffers can’t look at the data inside packets

41
Q

packets that are dropped because they are destined for another interface are known as what?

42
Q

Security and Cycling are tasks assocaited with what?

What is meant by them?

A

Log Management.
Security is need to keep the logs secure
Cycling sets the period to keep the log for before being deleted.

43
Q

Nessus, Nmap and MBSA can all perform what?

A

Vulnerability scanning

44
Q

Which free tool is an inventory, assessment, and reporting tool that helps you assess your current IT infrastructure and determine the right Microsoft technologies for your IT needs?

A

MAP Toolkit.

*it does not perform vulnerability scanning

45
Q

Network mapping, Remediation and Penetration testing are NOT functions classified as vulnerability scanning. TRUE or FALSE?

46
Q

Data Aggregation, Correlation, Retention and Forensic Analysis are processes in what?

47
Q

In SIEM which process involves searching logs on multiple computers for specific information based on set criteria and time periods?

A

Forensic Analysis

48
Q

Which VPN protocol doesn’t provide encryption within the tunnel?

A

L2TP - it uses IPSec
*Technically, PPTP is the same as it relies on the underlying PPP to do that but the test questions didn’t use this as an answer.

49
Q

SSH is not used to secure connections between web servers and web browsers, TRUE or FALSE?

50
Q

the Authentication Header is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that provides integrity services in the form of a digital signature - TRUE or FALSE

51
Q

Phase 1 of IPsec connection establishment authenticates the endpoints using digitally signed certifcates or a PSK - TRUE or FALSE?

52
Q

PHase 2 of IPSec connection is encrypted using the secure keys established in phase one and is responsible for negotiating another set of keys called the Secure Association - TRUE or FALSE

53
Q

TFTP doesn’t encrypt text sent to authenticate login - TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE - it doesn’t authenticate full stop.

54
Q

Which variant of FTP is suitable for systems booting with PXE by downloading boot image from the network?

A

TFTP.

It’s because it doesn’t need to authenticate.

55
Q

Out of band devices don’t require an IP address to manage - TRUE or FALSE?

56
Q

What 4 components are required for a computer to establish a remote TCP/IP connection.

A

1) Common protocols
2) Physical Layer connection
3) TCP/IP configuration
4) Host and remote software

57
Q

Browsing using a VPN is slower because you are using the remote network LAN which has to then pass all the requests down the VPN tunnel - TRUE or FALSE?

58
Q

What are the two most common types of SSL VPNs?

A

SSL Portals - provides users with access to selected remote network resources
SSL tunnels - client browser uses java or flash to connect

59
Q
  • -plugging into the console port
  • -establishing a modem connection
  • -connecting dedicated ports on each device to a separate switch

Are all forms of what?

A

Out-of-band management

60
Q

Which of the below is untrue about VNC

  1. it’s free
  2. runs on many OSs
  3. runs faster than competition
  4. can run through a web browser
A
  1. runs faster
61
Q

What policy specifies how and when users are permitted to access the company network?

A

Remote access policy

62
Q

Humidity levels lower than what can cause a build-up of static electricity?

63
Q

Account lock thresholds specifies what?

A

the number of incorrect logon attempts that are allowed before the account is locked

64
Q

Reset account lockout threshold counter specifies what?

A

The amount of time that an account remains locked out

65
Q

What data-loss prevention term describes when data is being transmitted across the network?

A

Data-in-motion

66
Q

data-in-use describes end-point actions - TRUE or FALSE?

67
Q

On-boarding and off-boarding are typically associated with Identity Management or Data-loss prevention?

A

Identity Management - users are added or removed from the IAM (Identity and Access Management system)

68
Q

–The Department of State

–Department of Commerce
and
–Department of the Treasury

are all capable of imposing international export controls on software products? TRUE or FALSE?

69
Q

What is a fibre channel arbitrated loop (known as FC-AL) used for?

A

For direct connection to storage that isn’t shared to other hosts (so when it’s only used by one host)

70
Q

What is an organization’s security incident response policy’s primary goal? Identifying the cause of an incident or preventing an incident from occurring again?

A

Preventing an incident from occurring again

71
Q

Electrical fires are not something typically addressed by an IT departments incident response POLICIES. TRUE or FALSE?

72
Q

Password history policy is not something design to prevent brute force attacks. TRUE or FALSE

73
Q

Data preservation is not likely to be a procedural element of an IT asset disposal policy - TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE (only according to the practice test book, this is contradicted in the review guide)

CompTIA Tests questions not covered in guide or I got wrong (3 decks)

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