Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

How must washbasins be sanitized?

A

30 minutes in boiling water, autoclave, or gas sterilization (not to be cleaned with chemicals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How much food should be kept on hand?

A

Non perishable food 1 weeks worth, Staples 2 days worth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

At what temperature should readily perishable foods be stored?

A

Below 45 degrees or over 140 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

At what specifications should an autoclave function?

A

15 pounds pressure, 250F, 20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How long should utensils be disinfected (after washing with soap) by immersion in clean water?

A

2 Minutes at 170F; 30 seconds at 180F; or in water containing bactericidal chemical (at least 110F)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the minimum dishwashing water temperature?

A

110F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When must the initial assessment be completed?

A

Within 7 days of admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Drugs that are to be stored at room temperature should be stored at what temperature?

A

59F to 86F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When must drugs be destroyed?

A

90 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The food service supervisor must complete a what type of course?

A

90 Hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How often must care plans be completed?

A

Quarterly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How often must the dentist provide in-service for the staff?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How often must humidifier bottles be changed or sterilized?

A

Q24 Hours (Every 24 hours)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

With what may a humidifier be filled?

A

Water that is sterile distilled, deionized or demineralized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When should resident call lights be answered?

A

Promptly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

All patients are to be assisted and encouraged to maintain?

A

The highest level of self-care and independence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

All of the following are considered restraints (unless used for postural support)?

A

Soft Ties, Seat Belts, Spring Release Trays, and Cloth Vests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How long may treatment restraints be used?

A

ONLY for the time required to complete the treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The planned menu may repeat less than what time frame?

A

Every 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How often must the menu be revised?

A

Q90 Days (every 3 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A doctor must be notified for what weight gain in a 30 period?

A

5lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The Dietary Manual must be review how often?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The Dietary Manual must be revised how often?

A

Every 5 Years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Drugs ordered Stat in 1 hours must be given how soon?

A

2 Hours Maximum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How must Glass Thermometers be cleaned?

A

With 70% alcohol for minimum of 10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How long must Drug Order records be kept?

A

1 Year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How long must Drug Destruction records be kept?

A

3 Years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How long is 1 hour of learning experience?

A

50 Minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How many hours of orientation must a C.N.A. have prior to providing care?

A

8 Hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many hours of orientation must a C.N.A. have during their first 40 hours worked?

A

16 Hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the annual renewal fee for the C.N.A.’s certificate?

A

$20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How long must Employee health records be kept?

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How long must patient records be kept?

A

7 years (title 22); 5 years OBRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How often must the Patient Care Policy committee meet?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How long must the unusual occurrence reports (24 hour reports) be kept?

A

One Year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When must a patients money be returned if they expire?

A

30 days after death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When must prepaid room and board be returned upon discharge?

A

Within 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Are nurses progress notes necessary?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How long must a bed be held should a patient go to an acute care facility?

A

7 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the minimum amount of light required for reading in a patient room?

A

30 ft candles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the minimum amount of light required in nonreading areas of patient room?

A

20 ft. candles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How often must drinking water be tested?

A

Every 3 Months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How often must Ice be tested?

A

Every Month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the minimum width of handicap parking spaces?

A

13 Feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the acceptable height range for hand rails?

A

34 Inches to 38 inches high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the maximum height of the bottom of the window in a patient room?

A

36 Inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Curtains must be how many inches below fire sprinklers?

A

18 Inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How often must the autoclave be tested?

A

Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How often must the autoclave thermometer be tested?

A

Weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When must DHS (Department of Health Services) be notified of construction?

A

Within 5 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hot water for resident use must be how hot?

A

Between 105F and 120F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A warning sign must be posted if water from a faucet is over what temperature?

A

125F (Sign must be at least 2 inch high letters)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When must a C.N.A.’s training be completed?

A

Within 4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How many wires per square inch must a bug screen have?

A

16 Wires per square inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How often must residents be weighed?

A

Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When must an admission evaluation be performed?

A

From 5 days prior to 48 hours after admission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What documentation is required for the HVAC system?

A

Written Manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Drugs brought into the building must be checked by?

A

Physician and Pharmacist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the minimum RN hours in a day?

A

8 Hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What Medicare info must be posted on the facility info board?

A

Medicare fraud unit contact info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

During survey what three items do surveyors review?

A

Facility Characteristics, QI profile, Resident Level Summary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the penalty if not in compliance with surveyors in 3 months?

A

No payment on new admits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the penalty if not in compliance with surveyors in 6 months?

A

23 Day fast track to termination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How must no contest citations be handled?

A

Pay 25% in 4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How are the temperatures of pipes regulated?

A

Title 24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What type of equipment requires a 3 prong hospital grade plug?

A

Oxygen Equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which type of survey follows a standard survey?

A

Extended Survey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What entity must approve the conversion a utility room to an office?

A

DHS (Department of Health Services)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What items must be present if storing non-legend (not ordered by prescriber) drugs at bedside?

A

Original Container, Recorded in Chart, Record of Amount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Who acts as the liaison between the administrator and the physicians?

A

Medical Director

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the isolation bed ratio?

A

1:35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Who dictates the administrative policy and procedures for a facility?

A

The Governing Body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Who makes up the PCP committee?

A

DON, Activities Director, Administrator, Pharmacist and at least one Physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Should power from the grid fail the generator must come on in how many second?

A

10 Seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How long must a generator be able to provide power to the building?

A

6 Hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How many beds must a facility have to require an RN at all times who is not the DON?

A

100+ beds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Who has the final responsibility of care in a SNF (skilled nursing facility)?

A

Administrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Who has the final responsibility of care in a ICF (intermediate care facility)?

A

Physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When there is a change of physician what must the new physician do?

A

Review orders for care and treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Who is responsible for screening patients for admission?

A

The administrator or their designee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the three required committees?

A

PCP, Infection Control, and Pharmacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

When may patient health records leave a building?

A

May be put in storage after discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

May funds be mingled between buildings?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What information is required on an ID band?

A

Resident Name and Facility Name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

When are phones not required in patient rooms?

A

When the facility has less than 6 beds and all residents are ambulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

When may Audiology service be provided?

A

As an optional service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What treatment may trained competent non licensed staff provide?

A

Medicinal Baths and Shampoo, Non Legend Cream or Ointment (to intact skin), and Laxative Suppositories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How many buildings may an administrator manage?

A

3 Buildings up to 200 beds IF same company

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

When must the DHS (department of health services) be notified of a change in administrator?

A

10 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

When must the Bowel and Bladder management be completed?

A

Within 2 weeks of admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What entity governs the self administration of drugs?

A

IDT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

When can survey come?

A

At ANY Time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Who must check the emergency supply of drugs?

A

Pharmacist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

When must piped gases be inspected?

A

Time of Installation, if Changes to the system are made, or the systems Integrity is Breached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Where must soiled linen be sorted?

A

In different room than the clean linen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What must outpatient therapy have?

A

A Separate hand washing facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Who is responsible for the for the informed consent?

A

The Physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The mentaly disordered receive how many hours of special rehab in a week?

A

27 Hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How often must reports be made on patients financials?

A

Quarterly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Who is required to CPR training?

A

All nurses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the unit dose medication amount requirements?

A

Minimum of 24 hours supply and maximum of 48 hours supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Who must approve the Therapeutic Dietary Manual?

A

Dietician and PCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

When must signed orders be sent to the pharmacy?

A

Within 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How long is a provisional license valid?

A

6 Months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

The medication error rate must be?

A

5% or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Who must approve optional services?

A

PCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

When must the facility release drugs upon patient discharge?

A

If the doctors orders do not include provision for drug disposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

How often must the external disaster plan be reviewed?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

When can rights be denied or taken away?

A

Never

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How long must the hours and dates worked by employees be kept?

A

12 Months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How long must the log of registry workers be kept?

A

3 Years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

When may a SNF have more patients than licensed beds?

A

With the approval of the director of DHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the bed requirements?

A

Clean, comfortable, must have a blanket, sheets, pillow (with pillowcase), and a Mattress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the requirements for non movable solid waste containers?

A

Must be leak proof, rodent proof, tight fitting lids, and external handles (labels are not required)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is required if equipment is maintained by an outside company?

A

Must have documentation of the required standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Who is responsible for standards, surveillance, coordination and improvement of medical care?

A

Medical Director

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Who acts as consultant to DON, liaison be Administrator and Doctors, and is responsible for employee physicals?

A

Medical Director

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Who must approve storing infectious waste and other waste together?

A

DHS (Department of Health Services)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

How long must patient bacteriological tests be kept?

A

12 Months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Fridges storing drugs must have?

A

Accurate Thermometers

121
Q

When can the DON act as the charge nurse?

A

If facility ADC (average daily census) is less than 60

122
Q

How much notice must a resident be given if they are being involuntarily Dc’d (discharged)?

A

30 Days (written notice)

123
Q

Which committee is not required by Title 22?

A

QA Committee

124
Q

What bond amount is required for a patient trust with $750 or less?

A

$1,000 bond

125
Q

Who must be notified if a resident is injured?

A

Physician, Family Member, or Legal Representative

126
Q

How often must the administrator be present at a facility?

A

Sufficient Hours to run the facility

127
Q

Patients may only be admitted with what?

A

Physicians Orders

128
Q

When may “approved by DHS” be used in advertising?

A

Never

129
Q

What must a transfer record include?

A

Date, Time, Condition of patient, and Reason for transfer (Name is Not Included)

130
Q

When may a patient smoke in bed?

A

Only if supervised.

131
Q

If Administrator is absent for how many days he/she must appoint an acting administrator?

A

30 Days

132
Q

When must employee health exams be completed?

A

90 prior to or 7 days after employment; Annually Thereafter

133
Q

When must the DHS (department of health service) be notified if patient records are damaged or defaced?

A

Within 3 Days

134
Q

When must the patients chart be closed upon discharge?

A

30 Days

135
Q

How long must X Ray film be kept?

A

7 Years

136
Q

When must fire drills be performed?

A

Quarterly, for all shifts

137
Q

What items must be in a patients room (other than the bed)?

A

Bedside Table, Chair, Reading Light, and Over bed Table

138
Q

How long must the thermometer check log be kept?

A

12 Months

139
Q

How often must mop heads be changed?

A

The must be removed and changed daily

140
Q

The head of housekeeping is qualified through?

A

Training and Experience

141
Q

How much linen should be at the facility?

A

Sufficient for 3 complete changes at capacity

142
Q

What type of containers should be used to transport soiled linens?

A

Closed Containers

143
Q

How often must generators be tested? For what interval?

A

Every 14 Days, for 30 minutes load conditions

144
Q

A hand washing facility may not have?

A

Aerators

145
Q

Who may not transfer gasses between containers?

A

Staff

146
Q

What must the inspection and cleaning records of air filters include?

A

Information on static pressure drop

147
Q

Where must bedpans be emptied?

A

In Utility Rooms or in Toilets with flushing attachments

148
Q

Piped oxygen tests are to what agencies standards?

A

NFPA (National Fire Protection Agency)

149
Q

No additional liscensed personal are need at an ICF if fewer than how many beds?

A

50 Beds

150
Q

What organization establishes dishwasher standards?

A

National Sanitation Foundation

151
Q

How must drugs for internal and external use be stored?

A

Separately

152
Q

How must emergency drugs be stored?

A

In a portable sealed container

153
Q

How often must activities in-service occur?

A

Annually

154
Q

Your activities leader may be?

A

Occupational Therapy Assistant

155
Q

What size of room is stipulated in the regulations?

A

The size of the room is not stipulated

156
Q

What is demonstration and return demonstration?

A

Clinical Training

157
Q

What is the standard for measuring student learning?

A

Student Performance Standard

158
Q

What are mandatory reports?

A

Brucellosis, TB (tuberculoses), Pertussis

159
Q

What type of lighting is required for the emergency supply?

A

Working Flashlights

160
Q

Where must the dentists contract be located?

A

The Administrative Office

161
Q

What must be included in the disaster program?

A

P&P for recalling off duty staff, unified medical command, P&P for patient relocation

162
Q

Each facility must maintain what types of storage space?

A

General and Specialized

163
Q

Where must telephones be installed?

A

Each floor with residents

164
Q

Which types of housekeeping schedules should be maintained?

A

Daily, Weekly, and Monthly

165
Q

What sign must be posted outside of ambulatory rooms?

A

“Reserved for Ambulatory Patients”(in 1/2 inch letters)

166
Q

Grab bars must be maintained where in residents rooms?

A

In the bathroom

167
Q

What must utility rooms contain?

A

Rim Flush Sink, Work Counters, and Storage Cabinets (call system not required)

168
Q

What gases are utilized for medical use?

A

CO2, NO, O2, Ethylene, Cyclopropane, Helium (not nitrogen or CO)

169
Q

What must autoclaves have?

A

Time Record, Mercury Thermometer

170
Q

How often does the PCP meet?

A

Annually

171
Q

When calculating floor space what does the OT floor space equal?

A

The PT floor space

172
Q

What organization certifies occupational therapy assistants?

A

AOTA

173
Q

Is a hospital licence correction required for ownership change?

A

No

174
Q

Dieticians are certified by which organization?

A

American Dietetic Association

175
Q

How are violations with direct relationship to health and safety of patients classified?

A

Class B Violations

176
Q

Where must he supervisor be located as defined by “direct supervision”?

A

In the Same building as the employees being supervised

177
Q

Admitting a patient without an attending MD is what type of violation?

A

Class B Violation

178
Q

Water that is too hot in fixtures is what type of violation?

A

Class A Violation

179
Q

What may be shared by facilities?

A

Centralized Services

180
Q

At a citation review conference the licencee may not?

A

Subpeona Witnesses, Record Testimony, or Cross Examine

181
Q

Unauthorized administration of medication is what type of violation?

A

Either a Class A or B Violation

182
Q

When must physicians visit?

A

As needed, or every 30 days

183
Q

What factors are taken into consideration when deciding the time for elimination of a condition of a vilation?

A

Department considers the number of patients, seriousness, and availability of resources

184
Q

What factors are considered during a physical therapy evaluation?

A

Functionality, Muscles, and Joints

185
Q

What factor is no considered during a physical therapy evaluation?

A

Pain

186
Q

What items must a physical therapy gym contain?

A

Training Stairs, Full Veiw Mirror, Overhead Pulley and Weights, and Treatment Table with Curtain

187
Q

How are violations relating to care plans classified?

A

Class B Violations

188
Q

What should be included on a dietary card?

A

Likes, Dislikes, Alergies, and Diet Order

189
Q

What nurse staffing requirment is mandated for facilities with 59 or fewer beds?

A

At least on RN or LVN on duty and awake at all times

190
Q

How are vilations relating to employee personnel records classified?

A

Class C Violations

191
Q

Physical Therapists are registered through?

A

California Board of Medical Quality Assurance

192
Q

How are violations related to nursing staff classified?

A

Class B Violations

193
Q

Interpersonal relationship programs include?

A

Outings, Educational and Recreational Therapy, and Social Counselling

194
Q

Interpersonal relationship programs do not include?

A

Mental Health Counselling

195
Q

How are violations related to fire safety procedures classified?

A

Class A or Class B Violations

196
Q

Refridgerated drugs must be stored at what temperature?

A

Between 36F and 46F

197
Q

What is the maximum distance from the nurses station to room door?

A

90 Feet

198
Q

What is the minimum square footage for a Utility Room?

A

100 sq.ft.

199
Q

What is the minimum square footage for the dining room?

A

12 sq.ft. per bed plus 100 sq.ft.

200
Q

What is the minimum square footage for clean linen storage?

A

8 sq.ft. per unit

201
Q

What is the minimum square footage for soiled linen storage?

A

10 sq.ft. per unit

202
Q

What is the minimum square footage for supply storage?

A

15 sq.ft. per unit

203
Q

Who must reseal the 72 hour kit when drugs are replaced after having been used?

A

Pharmacist

204
Q

What is the maximum allowable time between the dinner and breakfast?

A

14 hours

205
Q

How long must itemized food records be kept?

A

1 Year

206
Q

When must menus be posted in the kitchen?

A

One week before the meals will be prepared

207
Q

How long must the menu “as served” be kept?

A

1 Month

208
Q

What is the minimum Physical therapy space?

A

300 sq.ft. (no dimension less than 12 feet)

209
Q

What is the minimum square footage for wheelchair storage?

A

15 sq.ft. per unit

210
Q

What is the minimum ceiling height?

A

8 Feet

211
Q

What is the minimum shower ration?

A

1 (shower):12(Beds)

212
Q

What is the minimum toilet ratio?

A

1 (toilet):6 (Beds)

213
Q

How wide must corridors be in patient areas?

A

8 Feet wide

214
Q

How wide must corridors be in service areas?

A

6 Feet wide

215
Q

What is the minimum square foot requirement for trash storage?

A

25 sq.ft.

216
Q

How must supervisory experience must DON have?

A

One year of experience in the last 5 years

217
Q

When may standing orders be used?

A

Standing orders may not be used.

218
Q

When may powdered milk be used?

A

For cooking but NOT for drinking.

219
Q

If the department intiates a disciplinary action a nurse has how many days to request a hearing?

A

15 Days (hearing must be within 5 days of request)

220
Q

How is immediate supervision defined?

A

Instructor is in the building and present when clinical procedure is performed

221
Q

What is the maximum instructor to student ratio?

A

1:15

222
Q

What are the requirements for the DSD?

A

One year of patient care and one year planning and implementing educational programs

223
Q

What are the DSD weekly hours worked requirments for facilities (with certification program) with 100 beds, 60-99 beds, and 59 or fewer beds?

A

40 hours (100 or more beds); 30 hours (60-99 beds); 20 hours (59 or fewer beds)

224
Q

When must C.N.A. training be completed?

A

Within 4 months of being hired.

225
Q

3 hours of clinical training equals how many CEU’s?

A

1 CEU

226
Q

How long must certifcation programs records be kept?

A

4 years

227
Q

Medications must be given how soon after preparation?

A

Within 2 Hours of being prepared and given by preparer.

228
Q

When is drug preparation for more than one administration time permitted?

A

Never

229
Q

How many hours of training should a C.N.A. have each year?

A

24 hours

230
Q

How long must C.N.A. training records be kept?

A

4 Years

231
Q

Who is responsible for the unit dose system?

A

Pharmacist

232
Q

Physical restraints may not have which type of order?

A

PRN

233
Q

Physcial restraint order must include?

A

Written physicians order specifying duration and circumstances of use

234
Q

What type of restraint may not be used?

A

Seclusion

235
Q

What is the maximum number and doses allowed in the Ekit?

A

6 emergency drugs, 4 doses each

236
Q

How much time must a pharmacist spend in a facility?

A

As much as needed, must attend required quarterly review

237
Q

When may the administrator act as patients authorized representative for money and valuables?

A

IF the administrator is a close blood relative

238
Q

How may a facility dispute survey findings?

A

With an Informal Dispute Resolution

239
Q

How high above the floor must dryfoods be stored?

A

12 Inches

240
Q

How often must restraints be checked?

A

Every 30 minutes

241
Q

Infectious disease rooms must have the following?

A

Vented to the outside; Separate Towel, Handwashing Facility, Soap Dispenser, and Toilet

242
Q

How many facilities may a DON work in?

A

One

243
Q

What are the required working hours for a DON?

A

A minimum of 8 hours per day, and 5 days per week (on the day shift)

244
Q

The DON must be an?

A

RN

245
Q

Orientation must include?

A

Facility Tour, Emergency P&P’s, and Intro to Patient Care (Must be 8 hours)

246
Q

Legend drugs must have what warning on the label?

A

Federal Law Prohibits dispensing withou a prescription

247
Q

Legend drugs include?

A

Dangerous drugs un the business professions code

248
Q

Who licences clinical social workers?

A

California Board of Behavioral Science Examiners

249
Q

Substantial Compliance is defined as?

A

Conformity to regulations to an extent that patient safety, welfare and quality of care are assured

250
Q

The Freezer temperature must be below?

A

0F (-18C)

251
Q

What must the temperature be on water during the rinse cycle of automatic dishwashers?

A

180F

252
Q

Drug labels must be?

A

Legible

253
Q

Legend drugs stored as bedside must be (6 items)?

A

Locked, Recorded in Chart, Be ordered by Prescriber, Stored in Original Containers, Sublingual or Inhalation, and Not kept in Stock after Expiration

254
Q

Drug orders must be signed within how many days?

A

5 Days

255
Q

Drug orders must be transmitted in?

A

48 Hours

256
Q

How often must a pharmacist review a patients drug regimin?

A

Monthly

257
Q

ICF - when must the special programs evaluation be completed?

A

30 Days prior to or within 15 days after admission

258
Q

ICF - How many hours of oreintation must be comleted?

A

20 hours in the first 60 days of employment

259
Q

ICF - Who must be provided if attending physician is unavailable?

A

Facility must provide a physician for emergency care

260
Q

ICF - How long must the drugs returned log records be kept?

A

3 Years

261
Q

ICF - What must be obtained prior to aquiring more than 10% ownership in a facility?

A

Written Department Approval

262
Q

ICF - What services must the facility provide?

A

MD, Intermittent nursing, Dietary, Pharmacy and Activities

263
Q

ICF - What must be provided if there are only LVN on the day shift?

A

RN consultant (at least 4 hours a week)

264
Q

ICF - What are the menu requirments?

A

Posted 3 days in advance, Written 1 week in advance

265
Q

ICF - How often must a resident by seen by a physician after the first 90 days after admission?

A

Every 60 Days

266
Q

ICF - Specialty Treatment programs must initially have how many points?

A

30 Points

267
Q

ICF - Specialty Treatment programs may not drop below how many points?

A

27 Points

268
Q

ICF - What three types of Special Disability services are provided?

A

Mentally Disordered, Substance Abusers, and Developmentally Disabled

269
Q

ICF - Specialty treatment programs for the mentally disordered include?

A

Money Management, Use of Community Resources, Use of Public Transportation

270
Q

ICF - Specialty treatment progrmas for the mentally disordered do not include?

A

Homemaking

271
Q

ICF - basic patient rights include?

A

Privacy for Visits, Reimbursement for lost property, and visiting hours daily for clergy

272
Q

ICF - What are the weekly minimum number of hours in activities for each patient?

A

10 hours for each patient

273
Q

ICF - What are the actvities staffing requirments for 50+ beds, 25-49 beds, 24 and under beds?

A

50+ beds (full time staff); 25-49 beds (20hrs per week); 24 and under beds (10 hrs per week)

274
Q

ICF - How often must the E-Kit be checked?

A

Monthly

275
Q

ICF - What position many the DON and Administrator no have?

A

Special Program Director

276
Q

ICF - What are the minimum patient room square foot requirement for each bed?

A

110 sq.ft. for a single bed room; 80 sq.ft. per bed in mulitbed rooms

277
Q

ICF - What is the minimum storage requirement per bed?

A

12 sq.ft. per bed

278
Q

ICF - When may bedside nursing be provided?

A

IF doctors says temporary and minor

279
Q

ICF - What is the minimum nursing hours ppd?

A

1.1 ppd

280
Q

ICF - When is skilled care allowed?

A

When it is non continous

281
Q

ICF - When must the drug order be signed?

A

Within 48 hours

282
Q

ICF - Who must review the drug orders monthly?

A

Pharmacist or RN

283
Q

ICF - When must the meal menu be written and posted?

A

Written 1 week in advance; Posted 3 days in advance

284
Q

ICF - What is the maximu number of drug doses in the Ekit?

A

3 Doses Maximum

285
Q

ICF - How many hours of psychiatric special treatment per week?

A

30 hours per week

286
Q

What must be received to show the resident was fully informed of their rights?

A

Signed Acknowledgement

287
Q

Residents must be fully informed of?

A

Services and Charges

288
Q

Residents must be informed by the doctor of?

A

Their health status and be involved in their plan of care

289
Q

Patients have the right to refuse or consent to?

A

Treatments, Procedures, or involvement in Research

290
Q

Patients are intitled to what material to their decision to consent or refuse treatment?

A

All Information Material to the Decision

291
Q

Patients may only be transferred or discharged for the following reasons?

A

Medical Reasons, Patients or other patients welfare, or nonpayment of stay

292
Q

Patient have a right to be?

A

Encouraged and Assisted

293
Q

Patients have what rights regarding policies and services?

A

The right to voice grievances and recommend changes

294
Q

Patients have what right regarding their finances?

A

To manage their fiancial affairs and to be given quarterly accounting of transactions on their behalf

295
Q

Patients have what rights regarding abuse?

A

To be free from physical and mental abuse

296
Q

Patients have a right to confidentiality of what information?

A

Health and Financial Information

297
Q

Patients have a right what type of treatment?

A

To be treated with respect, full recognition of dignity and individuality, including privacy and care or personal needs

298
Q

Patients are not required to perform which services?

A

Those that are not for therapeutic purposes