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CCNA Routing and Switching - 200-301 > Test Questions > Flashcards

Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which Staetment correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
A. Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane
B. Only traditional networks natively support centralized management
C. Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations
D. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane.

A

D. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane.

Most raditional devices use a distributed architecture, in which each control plane is resided in a networking device. Therefore they need to communicate with each other via messages to work correctly.
In contrast to distributed architecture, centralized (or controller-based) architectures centralizes the control of networking devices into one device, called SDN controller.

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2
Q

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
A. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination in the IP routing table.
B. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.
C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links in the data path.
D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.

A

D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.

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3
Q

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)
A. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.
B. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.
C. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.
D. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link.
E. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.

A

B and C.
B. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.
C. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.

The reported distance (or advertised distance) is the cost from the neighbor to the destination. It is calculated from the router advertising the route to the network.

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4
Q

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two)
A. Adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software.
B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment.
C. Customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises.
D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center.
E. Modular design that is upgradable as needed.

A

B and D.
B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment.
D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center.

Cisco DNA Center offers extensibility through four capabilities:

1) Intent-based APIs
2) Process adapters built on integration APIs
3) Domain adapters (more integration APIs)
4) SDKs.

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5
Q

Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

show ip interface brief
Interface / IP-Address / Method / Status / Protocol
Fa0/0 / unassigned / NVRAM / admin down / down
Gi1/0 / 192.168.10.1 / NVRAM / up / up
Gi2/0 / 10.10.1.10 / manual / up / up
Gi3/0 / 10.10.10.20 / manual / up / up
Gi4/0 / unassigned / NVRAM / admin down / down
Loopback0 / 172.16.15.10 / manual

A. 10.10.1.10
B. 10.10.10.20
C. 172.16.15.10
D. 192.168.0.1

A

C. 172.16.15.10

OSPF uses the following criteria to select the router ID:

  1. Manual configuration of the router ID (via the “router-id x.x.x.x command under OSPF router configuration mode)
  2. Highest IP address on a loopback interface.
  3. Highest IP address on a non-loopback and active (no shutdown) interface.
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6
Q 
Which 802.11 frame type is association response?
A. management
B. protected frame
C. control
D. action
A

A. management.

There are three main types of 802.11 frames: the Data Frame, the Managemnt Frame, and the Control Frame. Association Response belongs to the Managemnt Frame. Association response is sent in response to an association request.

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7
Q 
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
A. overlay
B. northbound
C. underlay
D. southbound
A

D. southbound

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8
Q

Which staetment identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
A. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.
B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.
C. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and asingle software switch.
D. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources.

A

B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.

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9
Q 
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
A. outside global
B. outside local
C. inside global
D. inside local
E. outside public
F. inside public
A

C. inside global.

NAT uses four types of addresses:
Inside Local - The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network, and likely a private address.
Inside Global - A public IP address that represents one-or-more inside local IP addresses to the outside world.
Outside Local - The IP address of an outside hostas it is known to the hosts on the inside network.
Outside Global - IP address assigned to the host on the outside network. The owner of the host assigns this address.

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10
Q

Which option about JSON is true?
A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets to delimit markup text
B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays
C. used for storing information
D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML.

A

B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays.

JSON data is written as name/value pairs.  A name/value pair consists of a field name (in double quotes), followed by a colon, followed by a value - "name":"Mark" and set up an array of type string, number, object, array, boolean, or null.
{
 "name":John",
 "age":30,
"cars":["Ford", "BMW", F"Fiat"]
}
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11
Q 
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?
A. dual algorithm
B. metric
C. administrative distance
D. hop count
A

C. administrative distance

Administrative distance is the feature used by routers to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from different routing protocols. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol.

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12
Q

Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)
A. management interface settings
B. QoS settings
C. IP address of one or more access points.
D. SSID
E. Profile Name

A

D and E.
D. SSID
E. Profile name

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13
Q

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
A. reduced operational costs
B. reduced hardware footprint
C. Faster changes with more reliable results
D. Fewer network failures
E. Increased network security

A

A and C.
A. reduced operational costs
B. faster changes with more reliable results

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14
Q 
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch?
A. enable secret
B. service password-encryption
C. username Cisco password encrypt
D. enable password
A

B. Service password-encryption

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15
Q

Categorize the following into Ansible, Chef, or Puppet:

  • uses Ruby for fundamental configuration elements
  • uses TCP port 10002 for configuration push jobs
  • uses SSH for remote device communication
  • fundamental configuration elements are stored in a manifest
  • uses TCP 8140 for communication
  • uses YAML for fundamental congratulation elements
A

Ansible

  • uses SSH for remote device communication
  • uses YAML for fundamental congratulation elements

Chef

  • uses Ruby for fundamental configuration elements
  • uses TCP port 10002 for configuration push jobs

Puppet

  • fundamental configuration elements are stored in a manifest
  • uses TCP 8140 for communication

The focus of Ansible is to be streamlined and fast, and to require no node agent installation. Thus, Ansible performs all functions over ssh. Ansible is built on Python, in contrast to the Ruby foundation of Puppet and Chef.

TCP port 10002 is the command port. It may be configured in the Chef Push Jobs configuration file. This port allows Chef Push Jobs clients to communicate with the Chef Push Jobs server.

Puppet is an open-source configuration managemnet solution, which is built with Ruby and offers custom Domain Specific Language (DSL) and Embedded Ruby (ERB) templates to create custom Puppet language files, offering a declerative-paradigm programming approach.

A Puppet piece of code is called a manifest, and is a file with a .pp extension.

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16
Q

Categorize the descriptions of file-transfer protocols between FTP and TFTP:

  • does not require user authentication
  • uses UDP
  • uses TCP
  • uses ports 20 and 21
  • provides reliability when loading an IOS image upon boot up
  • uses port 69
A

FTP
-uses TCP
uses ports 20 and 21
-provides reliability when loading and IOS image upon boot up

TFTP

  • does not require user authentication
  • uses UDP
  • uses port 69
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17
Q

Drag and drop WLAN components:
1 - dynamic interface
2 - access port
3 - service port
4 - virtual interface
5 - wireless LAN controller
A - device that provides Wi-Fi devices with a connection to a wired network
B - device that manages access points
C - used to support mobility management of the WLC
D - applied to the WLAN for wireless client communication
E - used for out of band managemnt of a WLC

A

1D - dynamic interface / applied to the WLAN for wireless client communication

2A - access port / device that provides Wi-Fi devices with a connection to a wired network

3E - service port / used for out of band management of a WLC

4C - virtual interface / used to support mobility management of the WLC.

5B - wireless LAN controller / device that can manage access points

The service port can be used for managemnet purposes, primarily for out-of-band managemen. However, AP managemnt traffic is not possible across the service port. In most cases, the service port is used as a last resort means of accessing the controller GUI for management purposes.

A dynamic interface with the Dynamic AP Management option enabled is used as the tunnel source for packets from the controller to the access point and as the destination for CAPWAP packets from the access point to the controller
The virtual interface is used to support mobility management, DHCP relay, and Layer 3 security such as guest web authentication. It also maintains the DNS gateway host name used by Layer 3 security and mobility managers to verify the source of certificates when enabled.

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18
Q 
Match the threat mitigation with the threat:
1 - Configure VACL
2 - Configure dynamic ARP Inspection
3 - Configure BPDU guard
4 - Configure root guard
A - 802.1q double tagging
B - ARP spoofing
C - unwanted superior BPDUs
D - unwanted BPDUs on PortFast-enabled interfaces
A

1A - VACL / 802.1q double tagging
2B - dynamic ARP inspection . ARP spoofing
3D - BPDU guard / unwanted BPDUs on PortFast-enabled interfaces
4C - root guard / unwanted superior BPDUs

VACL’s are VLAN ACLs.

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19
Q

Match the function with either DHCP Server or DNS Server:
1 - holds the TCP/IP settings to be distributed to the clients
2 - resolves web URLs to IP addresses
3 - stores a list of IP addresses mapped to names
4 - Assigns IP addresses to enabled clients

A

DHCP

  • holds the TCP/IP settings to be distributed to the clients
  • assigns a default gateway to a client
  • assigns IP addresses to enabled clients

DNS

  • resolves web URLs to IP addresses
  • stores a list of IP addresses mapped to names
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20
Q

Match the AAA functions with the AAA services Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting:

  • records user activities
  • restricts the services that are available to a user
  • identifies the user
  • controls the actions that a user can perform
  • provides analytical information for the network administratot
  • verifies the password associated with a user
A

Authentication

  • identifies the user
  • verifies the password associated with auser

Authorization

  • restrics the services that are available to a user
  • controls the actions that a user can perform

Accounting

  • records user activities
  • provides analytical information for the network administrator
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21
Q 
Match the network subnets to the correct usable host ranges:
1 - 172.28.228.144/18
2 - 172.28.228.144/21
3 - 172.28.228.144/23
4 - 172.28.228.144/25
5 - 172.28.228.144/29
A - .228.1 - .229.254
B - .224.1 - .231.254
C - .228.129 - .228.254
D - .192.1 - .255.254
A 
.228.1 - .229.254 /23
.224.1 - .231.254 /21
.228.129 - .228.254 /25
.228.145 - .228.150 /29
.192.1 - .255.254 /18
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22
Q

Categorize the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings as Layer 2 or Layer 3:

  • web policy
  • passthrough
  • WPA+WPA2
  • 802.1X
A

Layer 2

  • WPA+WPA2
  • 802.1X

Layer 3

  • web policy
  • passthrough

Layer 2 includes WPA+WPA2, 802.1X, Staic WEP, CKIP.
Layer 3 includes IPSec, VPN Passthrough, and web passthrough.

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23
Q

What is the benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A - Central AP management requires more complex configurations
B - Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method
C - It supports autonomous and lightweight APs
D - It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

A

D - It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.

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24
Q 
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
A - 1729.0.0/16
B - 172.28.0.0/16
C - 192.0.0.0/8
D - 209.165.201.0/24
A

B - 172.28.0.0/16

Class B private IP ranges from 172.16 - 172.31

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25
Q

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A - Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
B - VTP is allowing to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.
C - Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down.
D - After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

A

A - Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.

Enabling PortFast causes a switch or trunk port to enter the STP forwarding-state immediately, thus bypassing the listening and learning states. The command on a port is spanning-tree portfast trunk.

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26
Q 
When configuringg a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (choose two)
A - ASCII
B - Base64
C - Binary
D - Decimal
E - Hexadecimal
A

A and E
A - ASCII
E - Hexadecimal

The Preshared Key encryption key can be either ASCII or HEX.

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27
Q

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
A - The link is in a downstaet
B - The link is in an error disabled state
C - The link becomes an access port
D - The link becomes a trunk port

A

D - The link becomes a trunk port.

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28
Q 
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (choose two)
A - 2000: /3
B - 2002: 5
C - FC00::/7
D - FF02::1
E - FF02::2
A

D and E
D - FF02::1
E - FF02::2

When an interface is configured with IPv6 address, it automatically joins the all nodes (FF02::1) and solicited-node (FF02::1:FFxx:xxxx) multicast groups.

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29
Q 
Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?
A - 0000.5E00.010A
B - 0005.3711.0975
C - 0000.0C07.AC99
D - 0007.C070/AB01
A

A - 0000.5E00.010A

VRRP MAC’s start with 0000.5E00.01xx

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30
Q

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
A - A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them
B - A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks
C - A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch
D - A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.

A

D - A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.

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31
Q 
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode?
A - TKIP with RC4
B - RC4
C - AES-128
D - AES-256
A

D - AES-256

64-characters (or 256 bits are required)

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32
Q

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
A - It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a green field deployment.
B - Its modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization.
C - It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration
D - It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode.

A

C - It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration.

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33
Q

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism (choose two)?
A - It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets.
B - It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity
C - It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets
D - It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up
E - It supports protocol discovery

A

A and D
A - It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets.
D - It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.

WRED is a congestion avoidance mechanism, dropping packets based on precedence. The lower the precedence, the increased likelihood of being dropped.

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34
Q 
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment.  Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
A - CDP
B - SNMP
C - SMTP
D - ARP
A

B - SNMP

SNMP leverages MIBs

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35
Q

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on Gi0/1 on Router 1. The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
A - Traffic is load balnced out of multiple interfaces
B - Route is updates in the routing table as being learned from Gi0/1
C - Traffic is symettrical
D - Route is learned via Gi0/0 and remains in the routing table.

A

B - Route to 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.

The Administrative Distance of eBGP (20) is smaller than that of OSPF (110) so the route will be updated as being learned from the new BGP path.

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36
Q

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
A - When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated.
B - As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused.
C - If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assums the device has failed and disconnects.
D - If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled.

A

D - If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled.

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37
Q

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
show ip route
10.10.13.0/25 via 10.10.10.1 Fa0/1

A - floatic static route
B - host route
C - default route
D - network route

A

D - network route

The entry uses a /25 which is a network route.

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38
Q 
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
A - on
B - auto
C - active
D - desirable
A

A - on

Static Persistance (or “on” mode) requires no negotiation.

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39
Q 
An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router.  Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?
A - Exchange
B - 2-way
C - Full
D - Init
A

C - Full

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40
Q 
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
A - Configure the version of SSH
B - Configure VTY access
C - Create a user with a password
D - Assign a DNS domain name
A

D - Assign a DNS domain name.

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41
Q 
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services.  Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own OS on a virtual machine?
A - platform-as-a-service
B - software-as-a-service
C - network-as-a-service
D - infrastructure-as-a-service
A

D - Infrastructure as a service

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42
Q 
Which action do the switches take on the trunk link.
SW1:
int fa0/1
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
dwitchport runk native vlan 999
switchport mode trunk
SW2:
int fa0/1
switchport runk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk native vlan 99
switchport mode trunk

A - The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status
B - The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain
C - The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link
D - The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state

A

B - The trunk forms but he mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

The trunk still forms with mismatched native VLANs and the traffic can actually flow between mismatched switches. The two VLANs are effectively merged.

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43
Q

Which design element is a best practice when depoying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
A - disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.
B - setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C - allocating non-overlapping channels to access-points that are in close physical proximity to one another
D - configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

A

C - Allocating non-overlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another.

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44
Q

Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A.
O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/11] via 10.10.109 and 10.10.10.13, 00:00:03, Fa0/2 and 0/1
A - It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only
B - It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only
C - It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25
D - It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2

A

C - Router2 does not have an entry for 10.10.13.128/25.

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45
Q 
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence.  Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)
A - runts
B - giants
C - frame
D - CRC
E - input errors
A

D and E
D - CRC
E - Input Errors

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46
Q

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (choose two)
A - The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image
B - The IP domain-name command must be configured on the switch
C - IP routin must be enabled on the switch
D - A console password must be configured on the switch
E - Telnet must be disabled on the switch

A

A and B
A - The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image
B - The IP domain-name command must be configured on the switch.

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47
Q

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond?
A - It ignores the new staic route until the existing OSPF default route is removed.
B - It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route.
C - It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes.
D - It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to Gigabit Ethernet 0/1

A

A - It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed.

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48
Q 
A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP.  All other computers must be able to access the web server.  Which configuration applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
A - ip access-list extended wwwblock
permit ip any any
deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80
int vlan 20
ip access-group wwwblock in
B - ip access-list extended wwwblock
permit ip any any
deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80
int vlan 30
ip access-group wwwblock in
C - ip access-list extended wwwblock
deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80
int vlan 10
ip access-group wwwblock in
D - ip access-list extended wwwblock
deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80
permit ip any any
int vlan 20
ip access-group wwwblock in
A 
D - ip access-list extended wwwblock
deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80
permit ip any any
int vlan 20
ip access-group wwwblock in

Look for DENY first and VLAN 20 next.

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49
Q 
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths.  Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
A - cost
B - administrative distance
C - metric
D - as-path
A

C - metric

If a router learns two different paths for the same network from the same routing protocol, it has to decide which route is better and will be placed in the routing table. Metric is the measure used to decide with route is better (lower the better).

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50
Q

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration failed to work as intended. Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two).
A - Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
B - Add a “permit any any” statement to the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
C - The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101.
D - The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1.
E - The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface on R2.

A

B and C.
B - Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic
C - The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

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51
Q

What is the primary diffrence between AAA authentication and authorization?
A - Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.
B - Authentication identifies auser who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password.
C - Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perfrom.
D - Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates.

A

C - Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

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52
Q

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?
A - The floating staic route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup
B - The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that he backup route becomes secondary
C - The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup.
D - The default-information asdfasdfda

A

A - The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup.

FLOATING STATIC = HIGHER

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53
Q

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)
A - The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN
B - The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router
C - Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN and traffic is load balanced btween them
E - The two routed share the same IP address and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them.

A

A and B.
A - The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.
B - The routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router.

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54
Q 
Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
username ciscoadmin password adminadmin123
username ciscoadmin privilege 15
enable password cisco123
enable secret testing1234
A - adminadmin123
B - default
C - testing1234
D - cisco123
A

C - testing1234

enable secret will be used before enable password

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55
Q

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
A - TCP uses synchronization packets and UDP uses acknowledgement packets.
B - UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits
C - UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol
D - TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

A

D - TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

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56
Q 
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
A - IKEv2
B - IKEv1
C - IPsec
D - MD5
A

C. IPsec

IPsec DOES site-to-site VPN

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57
Q

What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree port fast command?
A - It enable BPDU messages
B - It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time
C - It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded
D - It immediately enables the port in the listening state

A

C - It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded

Should only be used on edge. Decreases convergence time.

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58
Q

Which staetment about Link Aggregation when implemented on aCisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
A - To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.
B - The EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active”
C - When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps
D - One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

A

D - One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

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59
Q

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2?
i Li 192.168.16.0/27 via [115/30] 192.168.1.4
A - 192.168.16.0/21
B - 192.168.16.0/24
C - 192.168.26.0/26
D - 192.168.16.0/27

A

D - 192.168.16.0/27

The longest prefix match rule.

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60
Q

Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)
A - Enable NTP authentication
B - Verify the time zone
C - Disable NTP broadcasts
D - Specify the IP address of the NTP server
E - Set the NTP server private key

A

A and D.
A - Enable NTP authentication
D - Specify the IP address of the NTP server

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61
Q 
Refer to the exhibit.  Which command provides this output?
Router#
Capability Codes: R-Router...
Device ID / Local Interface / Holdtime / Capability / Platform
A - show ip route
B - show ip interface
C - show interface
D - show cdp neighbor
A

D - show cdp neighbor

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62
Q

Which set of action satisfies the requirement for multi-factor authentication?
A - The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link
B - The user enters a user name and password, adn then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device
C - The user enters a PIN into an RSA token and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen
D - The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

A

B - The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.

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63
Q 
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
A - autonomous
B - lightweight
C - bridge
D - mobility express
A

B - lightweight

A Lightweight Access Point (LAP) is an AP that is designed to be connected to a wireless (WLAN) controller (WLC).

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64
Q

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor.
What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
A - 20
B - 90
C - 110
D - 115

A

B - 90

The Administrative Distance of EIGRP is 90 (OSPF is 110)

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65
Q

What is the effect of this configuration?
ip arp inspection vlan 2
interface fa0/1
switchport mode access
switchport access vlan 2
A - The switchport interface trust state becomes untrusted
B - The switchport remains admin down until the interface is connected to another switch
C - Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing
D - The switchport remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

A

A - The switchport interface trust state becomes untrusted

Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network. It intercepts, logs, and discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings, preventing man-in-the-middle attacks. All ports become untrusted ports.

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66
Q 
Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A (10.10.13.214)?
A - 10.10.10.0/28
B - 10.10.13.0/25
C - 10.10.13.144/28
D - 10.10.13.208/29
A

D - 10.10.13.208/29

Longest prefix.

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67
Q

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)
A - The admin can make config updates from the CLI
B - It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers
C - It moves the control plane to a central pint
D - It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions
E - It uses Telnet to report system issues

A

B and C
B - It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers
C - It moves the control plane to a central point

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68
Q

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
interface gi1/0/1
ip address 192.168.16.143 255.255.255.240
Bad mask /28
A - It is a broadcast IP address
B - The router does not support /28 mask
C - It belongs to a private IP address range
D - It is a network IP address

A

A - It is a broadcast IP address

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69
Q

Categorize the transport protocols as TCP or UDP:

  • DHCP
  • FTP
  • SMTP
  • SSH
  • SNMP
  • TFTP
A

TCP

  • FTP
  • SMTP
  • SSH

UDP

  • DHCP
  • SNMP
  • TFTP
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70
Q 
Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?
A - standby 10 preempt
B - standby 10 version 1
C - standby 10 priority 150
D - standby 10 version 2
A

A - standby 10 preempt

PREEMPT command enables the HSRP router with the highest priority to immediately become the active router.

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71
Q 
Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group?
A - show hsrp
B - show sessions
C - show interfaces
D - show standby
A

D - show standby

NOT SHOW HSRP
Show Standby

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72
Q 
Which command should you enter to configure a device as an NTP server?
A - ntp server
B - ntp peer
C - ntp authenticate
D - ntp master
A

D - ntp master

To configure a Cisco device as an Authoritative NTP server, use the ntp master command.

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73
Q

Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two)
A - whether the NTP peer is statically configured
B - the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized
C - the configured NTP servers
D - whether the clock is synchronized
E - the NTP version numberof the peer

A

B and D.
B - the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized.
D - whether the clock is synchronized.

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74
Q

Which effect does the aaa new-model configuration command have?
A - It enables AAA services on the device
B - It configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA
C - It associates a RADIUS server to a group
D - It configures a local user on the device

A

A - It enables AAA services on the device.

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75
Q

Which command would you use to configure a staic route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?
A - ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1
B - ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5

A

B - ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5

The default AD of static routes are 1

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76
Q 
What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?
A - 00:00:adsfasdf
B - ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
C - asdfasdfsad
D - adsfasdfdsa
A

B - ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff

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77
Q 
Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on Cisco IOS ISR?
A - lldp run
B - lldp enable
C - lldp transmit
D - cdp run
E - cdp enable
A

A - lldp run

NOT ENABLE
lldp run

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78
Q 
Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols?
A - IS-IS
B - EIGRP
C - OSPF
D - BGP
E - RIP
A

B and E
B - EIGRP
E - RIP

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79
Q 
You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface.  Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way?
A - Reload the OSPF process
B - Specify a loopback address
C - Reboot the router
D - Save the router configuration
A

A - Reload the OSPF process

Clear OSPF process

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80
Q

Match the following benefits of acisco wireless LAN controller to the example:
A - Dynamic RF Feature
B - Easy Deployment Process
C - Optimized user performance
D - Easy upgrade process
1 - Controller provides centralized management of users and VLANs
2 - Access points auto adjust signal strength
3 - Controller image auto deployed to access points
4 - Controller uses loadbalancing to maximize throughput

A

1B - Dynamic RF Feature / Access points auto-adjust signal strength
2A - Easy deployment process / Controller provides centralized management of users and VLANs
3D - Optimized user performance / Controller uses loadbalancing to maximize throughput
4C - Easy upgrade process / Controller image auto-deployed to access points

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81
Q 
Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds?
A - lldp timer 5000
B - lldp holdtime 5
C - lldp reinit 5000
D - lldp reinit 5
A

D - lldp reinit 5

NOT TIMER OR HOLDTIME
reinit

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82
Q 
Which keywords in a NAT configuration enables the use of one outside IP address for multiple inside hosts?
A - source
B - static
C - pool
D - overload
A

D - overload
Addid the keyword “overload” at the end of a NAT statement, NAT becomes PAT which maps multiple private IP addresses to a single public IP address.

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83
Q 
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A - sniffer
B - mesh
C - flex connect
D - local
A

C - flex connect

FlexConnect access points can act as a standalone when disconnected from the access point.

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84
Q 
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
A - Bronze
B - Platinum
C - Silver
D - Gold
A 
B - Platinum
Platinum - Voice
Gold - Video
Silver - Best Effort
Bronze - Background
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85
Q 
With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
O 172.15.0.128/25 110/38443 xxxxxx
A - 0
B - 110
C - 38443
D - 3184439
A

C - 38443

Longest-prefix match

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86
Q

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network ow does it select a route?
A - It multiplies the active K value by 256
B - For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router
C - It divides the reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.
D - It counts the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric.

A

C - It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.

DIVIDES REFERENCE BANDWIDTH

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87
Q

After the switch configuration, the ping test fails between PC A and PC B. Which error must be corrected?
Switch 1: Native Vlan 1
Switch 2: Native VLAN 99
A - There is a native VLAN mismatch

A

A - There is a native VLAN mismatch

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88
Q 
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
A - ip address dhcp
B - ip helper address
C - ip dhcp pool
D - ip dhcp client
A

A - ip address dhcp

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89
Q 
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
A - YAML
B - JSON
C - EBCDIC
D - SGML
E - XML
A

B and E.
B - JSON
E - XML

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90
Q

What is the effect of this configuration?
ip arp inspection vlan 5-10
int fa-/1
switchport mode access
switchport access vlan 5
A- All ARP prackets are dropped by the switch
B - Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server
C - All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted
D - The switch discards all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bridge

A

D - The switch discards all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address vindings.

ARP inspection is an ingress security feature.

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91
Q

In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address?
A - CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor
B - CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor
C - CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor
D - CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide any information for that neighbor

A

C - CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor

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92
Q

When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, which source and destinations IPs are when it it arrives at int Gi0/0 on router R2.
C - source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10

A

C - source 192.168.10.10 destination 192.168.20.10

The source and destination IP addresses of the packets are unchanged all the way.

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93
Q 
Which feature or protocol determines whether the QOS on the network is sufficient to support IP services?
A - LLDP
B - CDP
C - IP SLA
D - EEM
A

C - IP SLA

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94
Q 
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization.  The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but he link could have contained malicious code.  Which type of security program is in place?
A - Physical access control
B - Social engineering attack
C - Brute force attack
D - User Awareness
A

D - User Awareness

This is a training program which simulates an attack.

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95
Q

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
A - The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame
B - The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all pors except the receiving port in the given VLAN
C - The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning
D - The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table

A

B - The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

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96
Q

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that he configuration is correct:
sh ip nat translations
What IP address is the source IP?
A. 10.4.4.4

A

A - 10.4.4.4

The source IP address is the IP address of the sending packets so it is the “inside local” address.

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97
Q

New York Atlanta Washington. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interface on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another? (Choose two)
D - Configure the ipv6 route 2023::126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router
E - Configure the ipv6 route 2012 :/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router

A

D and E.
Both ::2 answers.

ipv6 route next-hop-IPv6-address | exit-interface

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98
Q 
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet Interface in OSPF by default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?
A - point-to-multipoint
B - point-to-point
C - Broadcast
D - nonbroadast
A

C - Broadcast

Broadcast is the default

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99
Q

An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)
A - Configure the ports in an EtherChannel
B - Administratively shut down the ports
C - Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99
D - Configure the ports as trunk ports
E - Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol

A

B and C
B - Admin shut down
C - Blackout VLAN 99

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100
Q

Which output represents a JSON data representations?

D - The one with all “:” delimeters

A

D - The one with all the “:” delimeters

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101
Q 
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK.  Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
A - WEP
B - RC4
C - AES
D - TKIP
A

C - AES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q 
When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected?
A - Passive
B - Desirable
C - On
D - Auto
E - Active
A

A - Passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN in the given environment.
A - VLAN 1

A

A - 1

The default VLAN is 1 unless stated otherwise.

104
Q 
Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN (Choose two)
A - 0
B - 1
C - 1005
D - 1006
E - 4096
A

B and C.
B - 1
C - 1005

105
Q

Which statemnt about the interface that generated the output is true?
B - One secure MAC address is manually configured on the device.

A

B - ONE secure MAC address is MANUALLY configured on the device.

106
Q 
Which command should you enter to view the erro rlog in an EIGRP for IPv6 environment?
show ipv6 eigrp
A - neighbors
B - topology
C - traffic
D - events
A

D - show ipv6 eigrp events

107
Q 
If a notice-level message is sent to a syslog server which event has occured?
A - A network device has restarted
B - An ARP inspection has failed
C - A routing instance has flapped
D - A debug operation is running
A

C - A routing instance has flapped.

Usualy no action is required when a route flaps so it generates the notification syslog level message (5).

108
Q 
What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two)
A - OpenFlow
B - NETCONF
C - Thrift
D - CORBA
E - DSC
A

A and B
A - OpenFlow
B - NETCONF

109
Q 
Which feature on the CiscocWireless LAN controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
A - CPU ACL
B - TACACS
C - Flex ACL
D - RADIUS
A

A - CPU ACL

110
Q

Which command automatically genrates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
ipv6 address
A - dhcp
C - autoconfig

A

C - ipv6 address autoconfig

111
Q 
A network administrator enters the following command on a router:
logging trap 3
What message types will be sent to the syslog server (choose three)?
A - informational
B - emergency
C - warning
D - critical
E - debug
F - error
A

B, D, and F.
B - emergency
D - critical
F - error

112
Q

Which two statements about he network environment of router R1 must be true? (Choose two)
B - There are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network
C - Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100

A

B and C
B - There are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
C - Ten routes are equally load-balned between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100

113
Q

Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (Choose two)
A - They determine the optimal path within an AS
B - They determine the optimal path between AS’s.
C - BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol.

A

B and C.
B - They detremine the optimal path between AS’s.
C - BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol.

114
Q 
Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can Cisco Discovery Protocol communicate? (Choose two)
A - the native VLAN
B - the trunking protocol
C - the VTP domain
D - the spanning-tree priority
E - the spanning-tree protocol
A

A and C
A - the native VLAN
C - the VPN domain

115
Q

Which two statements about NTP operations are true? (Choose two)
A - NTP uses UDP over IP
B - Cisco routers can act as both NTP authoritative serves and NTP clients.

A

A and B.

UDP.

116
Q 
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initalize on any interface?
A - lldp timer
B - lldp holdtime
C - lldp reinit
D - lldp tlv-select
A

C - LLDP reinit

117
Q

A Cisco IP phone receives untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which acition is taken by the phone?
A - It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.
B - It drops the traffic
C - It tages the traffic with the default VLAN
D - It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

A

A - It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.

118
Q 
Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port-channel configured?
A - passive
B - mode on
C - auto
D - active
A

D - Active

The neighbor has the “P” tag for passive.

119
Q

How is OSPF configured?

C - The default Hello and Dead timers are in use.

A

C - The default Hello, and Dead timers are in use.

120
Q 
R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS, OSPF, RIP, and EIGRP under normal conditions.  Which routing protocol is installed in the routing table.
A - IS-IS
B - RIP
C - EIGRP
D - OSPF
A

C - EIGRP

EIGRP has the lowest administrative distance.

121
Q

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
D - FF00::/8

A

D - FF00::/8

The one with FF in it.

122
Q 
Which feature or protocol is required for an IP SLA to measure UDP jitter?
A - LLDP
B - EEM
C - CDP
D - NTP
A

D - NTP

123
Q

Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two)
A - whether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface
B - the EIGRP or BGP autonomous system
C - whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured
D - which neighbor adjacencies were used
E - the length of time that a route has been known

A

C and E
C - whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured
E - the length of time that a route has been known

124
Q

Which two events occur on the interface if packets from an unknown source address arrive after the interface learns the maximum number of secure MAC address? (Choose two)
A - The security violation counter does not increment.
B - The port led turns off.
C - The interface is error-disabled
D - A syslog message is generated
E - The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC address

A

A and E
A - the security violation counter does not incremnt
E - The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC addresses

125
Q

Which feature in enabled by this configuration?
ip nat pool cisco 10.1.1.0 10.1.1.50 255.255.255.0
A - static NAT translation
B - a DHCP pool
C - a dynamic NAT address pool
D - PAT

A

C - A dynamic NAT address pool

126
Q

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?
A - to uniquely identify devices at layer 2
B - to allow communication with devies on a different network
C - to differentiate a layer 2 fram from alayer 3 packet
D - to establish a priority stestem to detremine which device gets to transmit time
E - to allow communication between different devices on the same network.
F - to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address in unknown.

A

A - to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2

E - to allow communication between different devices on the same network

127
Q

An engineer is configuring the New York Router to reach teh Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using S0/0/0 as the primary.
ipv6 router 2000::1
A - 128 2012::1
E - 1282023:3 5

A

A - 128 2012::1

E - 1282023:3 5

128
Q

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
vtp domain cisco
vtp mode transparent
C - It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

A

C - It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

129
Q

Match the networking parameters to connection oriented or connectionless:

  • SMTP
  • SNMP
  • TFTP
  • VoIP
  • SSH
  • FTP
A

Connection Oriented

  • SMTP
  • SSH
  • FTP

Connectionless

  • SNMP
  • TFTP
  • VoIP
130
Q

Determine if OSPFv2 parameters must be unique or match its neighbor:

  • netmask
  • OSPF process ID
  • router ID
  • IP address
  • area ID
  • timers
A

Unique

  • OSPF process ID
  • Router ID
  • IP address

Match

  • netmask
  • area ID
  • timers
131
Q

Which NAT term is defined as a group of addresses available for NAT use?
A - NAT pool

A

A - NAT pool

132
Q

After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional task should you consider? (Choose two)
A - deploy load balncers
B - configure additional vlans
C - configure multiple VRRP groups
D - deploy POE switches
E - configure additional security policies

A

A and E
A - deploy load balancers
E - configure additional security policies

133
Q

After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional task should you consider? (Choose two)
A - deploy load balncers
B - configure additional vlans
C - configure multiple VRRP groups
D - deploy POE switches
E - configure additional security policies

A

A and E
A - deploy load balancers
E - configure additional security policies

134
Q

Which component of an Ethernet fram is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?
C - Preamble

A

C - Preamble

135
Q

How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1

A

It sends the traffic to VLAN 100

136
Q

You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface Fa0/0 to accomplish this.
D - ip address dhcp

A

D - ip address dhcp

137
Q

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an ethernet interface? (choose two)
B - when the cable length limits are exceeded
C - when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

A

B and C
B - when the cable length limits are exceeded
C - when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

138
Q 
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the internet
A - global unicast
B - unique local
C - link local
D - multicast
A

B - unique local

139
Q

A user configured OSPF in a single are between two routers. A serial interface connective R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
C - Point-to-Point

A

C - Point to Point

140
Q

You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network - one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What o you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes?
B - Change the configuration so that they both have the same feasible distance.
C - Change the variance for the path that has a feasible distance of 3072

A

B or C. Both are correct.

141
Q

Order the route source by lowest administrative distance:

  • connected
  • EBGP
  • EIGRP
  • OSPF
  • RIP
  • Static
A 
Connected
Staic
EBGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP
142
Q 
Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate EtherChannel? (Choose two)
channel-group 10 mode
A - on
B - auto
C - passive
D - desirable
E - active
A

D and E
D - desirable
E - active

143
Q

Which two statements about the interface that generated the output is true (choose two):
A - learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity
B - the interface is error-disabled if packets arrive from an unknown source address
C - It has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses.

A

A and C.

TWO secure MACs

144
Q

Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (choose two)
A - mismatched AS numbers
B - an ACL blocking traffic from multicast 224.0.0.10
C - Mismatched process IDs
D - mismatched hello and dead timers
E - use of the same router ID on both devices

A

D and E

145
Q

Which option best describes an API?

A - a contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange dat with each other

A

A - a contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other

146
Q

Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (choose two)
A - Defines network functions that occur at each layer
B - Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network

A

A and B

147
Q

Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?
A - {“key” : “value”}

A

A - curly bracket and colon delimeter.

148
Q

What will happen if you configure the logging trap debug command on a router?
C - It causes the router to send ALL messages to the Syslog server.

A

C - It causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server.

149
Q

An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers. What meets this criteria.
D - 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252

A

D - 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252

Mask /30 - .252
.2 is a usable address

150
Q

How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI layer 2?

D - Port Blocking

A

D - Port Blocking

151
Q

Which three staetments about MAC addresses are correct? (choose three)
A - To communicate with other devices on anetwork, a network device must have a unique MAC address.
D - A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network.
E - An exampe of a MAC is 0A:xx:Xx:xx:xx

A

A, D, and E

152
Q 
Which Cisco IOS command will indicate that interface gi0/0 is configured via DHCP
A - show ip int gi0/0 dhcp
B - sho int gi0/0
C - sho ip int dhcp
D - sho ip in gi0/0
E - sho ip int gi0/0 br
A

D - show ip interface gi0/0

153
Q

Which command can you enter to allow telnet to be supported in addition to SSH
A - transport input telnet ssh

A

A - transport input telnet ssh

154
Q

Default-information originate. What corrects the issue

C - configure default route to .18 on the R1

A

C - Configure .18 as the default route on R1

155
Q 
What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 local address
A - 00000000
B - 11111100
C - 11111111
D - 11111101
A

B - 11111100

or FC00::/7

156
Q

Which three describe the reason large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design (choose three)?
A - Speed up convergence
B - Reduce routing overhead
E - Confine network instability to single areas of the network

A

A, B, and E

157
Q

Which two statements about VTP are true?
A - All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name
E - All switches must use the same VTP version

A

A and E

158
Q

Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPv4 private IP space (choose two)
A - to enable intra-enterprise communication
D - to conserve global address space

A

A and D

159
Q 
Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
A - designated port
B - backup port
C - alternate port
D - root port
A

D - The Root Port

160
Q 
Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
A - interface number
B - port priority
C - VLAN priority
D - hello time
A

B - port priority

161
Q

Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?

A - The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN.

A

A - The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN.

162
Q

Which command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP peers?
A - Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224

A

A - Network address, word “mask”, dotted decimal mask

163
Q

Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
B - Router IP Address

A

B - Router IP Address

164
Q 
If RTR1 is configured as shows, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running EIGRP on the network? (Choose three)
router eigrp 103
network 10.4.3.0
network 172.16.4.0
network 192.168.2.0
A. 192.168.2.0
C 10.0.0.0
D 172.16.0.0
A

A, C, and D

It will use the default classful subnets unless specified otherwise.

165
Q

Which configuration command can you apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
A - no additional config is required

A

A - no additional config is required.

HSRP will automatically elect the last remaining router in the group as a primary.

166
Q

After you apply the configuration to a router, the DHCP clients behind the device cannot communicate with hosts outside of their subnet. Which action is most likely to correct the problem?
A - Configure the DNS server on the same subnet as the clients
B - Activate the DHCP pool
C - Correct the subnet mask
D - Configure the default gateway

A

D - Configure the default gateway

167
Q

Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two)
A - The two devices must reside in different AS’s.
B - Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device.
C - They can be created dynamically after the network statement is configured.
D - The two devices must reside in the same AS.
E - The two devices must have matching timer settings.

A

A and B
A - The two devices must reside in different AS’s.
B - Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device.

168
Q

Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
A - It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol.
B - It runs on the network layer.
C - It can discover information from routers, firewalls, and switches.
D - It runs on the physical layer and the data link layer

A

A - It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol

169
Q

How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
sh ip route
Gateway is 192.168.4.1
Directly connected Serial 2
C - The router will forward the packet via Serial2

A

The router will forward the packet out the default gateway to Serial2

170
Q 
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure
A - NAT
B - 6to4 tunneling
C - L2TPv3
D - dual-stack
A

B - 6to4 tunneling

171
Q

Which statement describes the routing protocol OSPS? (Choose three)
A - It supports VLSM
B - It is used to route between AS’s
C - It confines network instability to one area of the network
D - It increases routing overhead on the network
E - It allows extensive control of routing updates
F - It is simpler to configure than RIPv2

A

A, C, and E

172
Q

After you apply the configuration to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start.
R1 - ipv6 ospf 1 area 0
R2 - ipv6 ospf 1 area 3
A - The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched.

A

A - The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched

173
Q 
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
show ip ospf
A - link-state
B - isa database
C - neighbors
D - database
A

D - show ip ospf database displays the link states.

174
Q 
network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
Which interfaces will participate in OSPF? (Choose three)
B - 192.168.12.65
C - 192.168.12.121
D - 192.167.12.125
A

B, C, and D.

All IPs between 192.168.12.65 and 192.168.12.126

175
Q

The exhibit C router is to be used as a “router on a stick” to route between the VLANs. What is true about this configuration?
D - No further routing configuration is required.

A

No further routing configuration is required.

All the routes are directly connected.

176
Q

Which addresses and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?
192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240

A

The summary route captures .16 - .30

177
Q

Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
A Highest loopback

A

C. 172.16.5.1

Highest loopback

178
Q

Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
A - The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
B - The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved
C - Only the IP detected by gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool
D - Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool
E - The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved

A

A - The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.

179
Q

When running EIGRP, what is required for Router A to exchange routing updates with Router C?
A - AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
B - Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
C - The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C
D - Router B nees to have two network statements, one for each connected network

A

A - AS numbers must match on all the routers.

180
Q

A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusion can be made about this design.
A - This design will function as intended
B - Spanning-tree will need to be used
C - The router will not accept the addressing scheme
D - The connection between switches should be a trunk
E - The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol

A

C - The router will not accept the addressing scheme.

Each interface on a router must be in a different network.

181
Q

A network admin is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.
D - The hello and dead timers are not configured properly

A

D - The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

182
Q

R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible resons for this problem? (Choose two)
A - All of the routers need to be config’d for backbone Area 1.
B - R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C - A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevets the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D - The hello and dead intervals are not the same on R1 and R3.
E - EIGRP is also configured on these routers with alower administrative distance.
F - R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

A

D and F
D - The hello and dead interval timers are not matching R1 and R3.
F - R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

183
Q

What statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on Router B (choose two)?
A - It ensures that data will be forwarded by Router B
B - It provides stablility for the OSPF process on Router B
C - It specifies that he router ID for Router B should be 10.0.0.1
D - It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from Router B
E - It indicates that Router B should be elected the DR for the LAN

A

B and C
B - It provides STABILITY for the OSPF process on Router B
C - It specifies that the ROUTER ID for Router B should be 10.0.0.1

184
Q

What are two reasons anetwork admin would use CDP? (choose two)
A - To verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
B - To determine the staus of network services on a remote device
C - to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
D - to verify layer 2 connectivity between two devices when layer 3 fails
E - to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
F - to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers

A

D - to verify layer 2 connectivity between two devices when layer 3 fails
E - to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device

185
Q

What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (choose two)
A - It allows switches to read frame tags
B - It allows ports to be assigned to VLANs automatically
C - It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network
D - It allows frames from multiple VLANs to use a single interface
E - It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment

A

C and E
C - it maintains VLAN CONSISTENCY across a switched network.
E - it allows VLAN information to be AUTOMATICALLY PROPOGATED throughout the switching environment.

186
Q

Which two staetments are true about he command:
ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4
A - it establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network
B - It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.4 network
C - It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown…
D - It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown…
E - It uses the default admin distance
F - It is a route of last resort

A

A and E
A - It establishes a staic route to the 172.16.3.0 network
E - It uses the default administrative distance

187
Q

Which three staetments are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangments? (choose three)
A - A new switch has no VLANs configured
B - Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device
C - VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains
D - Each VLAN uses a separate address space
E - A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN
F - VLANs cannot span multiple switches

A

B, D, E
B - Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device
D - Each VLAN uses a separate address space
E - A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN

188
Q

If all OSPF routers in asingle area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
A - The IP address of the first FA
B - The IP address of the console managment interface
C - The highest IP address among active interfaces
D - The lowes IP address among active interfaces
E - the priority value until a loopback address is configured

A

C - the highest IP address among its active interfaces

189
Q

The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two)
A - it provides dynamic neighbor discovery
B - it detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals
C - it maintains neighbor relationships
D - it negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces
E - it uses timers to elet the router with the fastest links as the designated router

A

A and C
A - it provides dynamic neighbor discovery
C - it maintains neighbor relationships

190
Q

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (choose two)
A - exactly one active router
B - one or more standby routers

A

A and B
A - exactly one active router
B - one or more standby routers

191
Q 
Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP server?
show ip DHCP
A - database
B - pool
C - binding
D - server staistics
A

C - show ip dhcp binding

192
Q

On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?
A - a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch.

A

A - A router with the subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch.

193
Q

Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
D - FF00::/12

A

D - FF00::/12

The one starting with FF is probably broadcast

194
Q

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
A - The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted.

A

A - The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted.

195
Q

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
C - TCP is reliable and connection-oriented. UDP is not reliable and connectionless.

A

C - TCP is reliable and connection-oriented. UDP is not reliable and connectionless.

196
Q

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which config completes this task?
B - ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

A

B - default route syntax

197
Q

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
A - allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts.

A

A - allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts

198
Q

Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
A - commucates between the controller and the physical network hardware
B - reports device errors to a controller
C - generates statistics for network hardware and traffic
D - facilitates communication between the controller and applications

A

D - Facilitaets communication between the controller and the applications.

199
Q

How do traditional campus device managemnt and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
C - Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device managemnt.

A

C - Cisco DNA Center device managemnt can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management.

200
Q

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two)
A - it allows multiple OS’s and apps to run independently on one physical server
D - It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network

A

A and D
A - it allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server
D - it allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network

201
Q

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
A - It supports numerous extensibility options, including cross-domain adapters and third party SDKs.

A

A - It supports numerous extensibility options, including cross-domain adapters, and third-party SDK’s.

202
Q

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
A - Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs
B - Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in the MAC table
C - Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port
D - Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN

A

C - Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port

203
Q

Which action must be taken to assign aglobal unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
A - explictly assign a link-local address
B - disable the EUI-64 bit process
C - Enable SLAAC on the interface
D - configure a staetful DHCPv6 server on the network

A

C - Enable SLAAC on the interface

204
Q

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the WiFi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two)
A - 5Ghz
B - 5Ghz
C - Cells that overlap one another are configured to use non-overlapping channels
D - repeater access point
E - For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.

A

C and E
C - Cells that overlap one another are configured to use non-overlapping channels
E - For maximum throughput, use WLC

205
Q

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
B - TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking.

A

TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking.

206
Q

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (choose two)
B - The glass core componet is encased in a cladding
D - Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

A

B - The glass core component is encased in a cladding

E - Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections

207
Q

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and WLC?
D - The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

A

D - The access point has the ABILITY to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC.

208
Q

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)
A - The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies.
B - The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail

A

A and B
A - The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies
B - The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail

209
Q 
Which type of ipv6 address is publicaly routable in the same way as ipv3 addresses?
A - multicast
B - unique local
C - link-local
D - global unicast
A

D - global unicast

210
Q

A corporate office uses four floors in a building
Floor 1 - 24 users
Floor 2 - 29 users
Floor 3 - 28 users
Floor 4 - 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration.
C - 192.168.0.0/25 summary (126 hosts), and /27 for each floor (30 hosts)

A

C - 192.168.0.0/25 summary /26 for hosts

211
Q

An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which network and mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses
D - 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

A

D - There is room for a /27 between routers 2 and 3.

212
Q

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
A - each link between eaf switches allows for higher bandwidth
B - it provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports
C - it provides variable latency
D - each device is separated by the same number of hops

A

D - Each device is separated by the same number of hops

213
Q

The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between switch 1 and switch 2, while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?
D. switchport trunk native vlan 67

A

D. switchport runk native vlan 67

214
Q 
Which two command sequences must be configured on a switch to establish a Layer 3 etherchannel with an open-standard protocol? (choose two)
A - interface gi0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode active
E - interface port-channel 10
switchport
switchport mode trunk
A 
A - interface gi0/0/1 
channel-group 10 mode active
E - int port-channel 10
switchport
switchport mode trunk
215
Q 
Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (choose two)
A - int range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode active
C int range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode passive
A

A and C
A - active
C - passive

216
Q

An admin is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when aCisco phone is connected to Gi3/1/4 configured for “switchport voice vlan 50”
B - The pone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstaion connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1.

A

B - The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstaion connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1.

217
Q

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the Gi0/1 interface?
switchport runk native vlan 5
C - The frame is processed in VLAN 5

A

C - The frame is processed in VLAN 5

218
Q

What wto conclusions should be made about this configuration? (choose two)
A - The root port is Fa2/1
E - The spanning tree mode is rapid pvst+

A

A - the root port is Fa2/1

E - the sapnning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+ (NOT PVST+)

219
Q

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
A - lldp run

A

A - lldp run

220
Q

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services, and access control?
B - Authentication identifies users, and accounting tracks user services.

A

B - Authentication identifies users, and accounting tracks user services.

221
Q

What is the difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

B - TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them.

A

B - TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization and RADIUS merges them.

222
Q

What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?

A

FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured.

223
Q

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor from being established between the two routers?
MTU mismatch

A

C - R1 has a larger MTU size

224
Q 
Router R1 is running three different routing protocols.  Which route charcteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that is receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
A - longest prefix
B - admin distance
C - cost
D - metric
A

A - longest prefix match

225
Q

Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 FA0/1. How to fix?

A

Configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach 20.20.20.0/24.

226
Q

By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?
A - it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

A

A - It uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

227
Q

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
B - ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

A

B - ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252

228
Q

How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16
EIGRP/24
RIP/27
OSPF/28

A

C - It chooses OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

229
Q

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route?

A

A - to enable fallback staic routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails.
C - to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

230
Q

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

Longest prefix

A

Longest prefix

231
Q 
Which two gets applied to the routing table:
UBGP 10/30
RIP 10/30
OSPF 10/16
OSPF 10/30
EIGRP 11/32
A

OSPF 10/30

EIGRP 11/32

232
Q

Which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 1010.13.165?

A

Router 3

233
Q

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

A

Route with the lowest administrative distance

234
Q

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate?

A

OSPF Process IP

OSPF area

235
Q

What commands are needed to add a subinterface to eth0/0 on R1 to allow for vlan 20 (10.20.20.1/24)

A

int eth0/0.20
encapsulation dot1q 20
ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

236
Q

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

A

It sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

237
Q

What are two roles of DHCP

A

The DCHP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from apool of IP addresses.

238
Q

Which command must be entered when adevice is configured as an NTP server?

A

NTP master

239
Q

What event has occured if arouter sends a notice level message to asyslog server?

A

An interface line has a changed status

240
Q

R1 obtains IP from DHCP what two configs need to happen

A

R2 int gi0/0
ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

R1 int fa0/0
ip address dhcp
no shut

241
Q

What config on RTR-1 denies SSH access from RC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22
access-list 100 permit ip any any
line vty 0 15
access-class 100 in

242
Q

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even through an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior?

A

B - The matching permit statement is too broadly defined.

E - A matching permit statement is too high in the access list

243
Q

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect?

A

A - restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

244
Q 
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the wifi network?
A - SAW
B - TKIP
C - Scrambled Key
D - AES
A

A - SAE encryption

WPA3 and SAE

245
Q 
Which type of device must be connected to Fa0/1
ip arp inspection vlan 2-10
int fa0/1
ip arp inspection trust
A - DHCP client
B - access point
C - router
D - PC
A

D - PC is trust

246
Q

An admin configures four switches for local authentication using hashed passwords. The four switches must also support SSH access for admins to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly?

A

the switch with username secret
line vty 0 15
login local

247
Q

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

A

Allows configuration and monitoring of the network from a centralized point.

248
Q

How does Cisco DNA Center father data from the network?

A

Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller.

249
Q

Match the attack-mitigation with the attack.
A - configure 802.1x authenticate
B - configure DHCP snooping
C - configure the native vlan with a nondefault VLAN ID
D - disable DTP
1 - 802.1q double-tagging VLAN-hopping attack
2 - MAC flooding attack
3 - Man-in-the-middle spoofing attack
4 - switch-spoofing VLAN-hopping attack

A
  • Configure 802.1x authenticate to prevent man-in-the-middle spoofing.
  • Configure DHCP snooping to prevent MAC flooding attack.
  • Configure the native VLAN with a nondefault VLAN ID to prevent 802.1q double-taggin VLAN-hopping attack.
  • Disable DTP to prevent switch-spoofing VLAN-hopping attack.
250
Q

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types:

  • focused on network
  • focused on devices
  • user input is a configuration
  • user input is a police
  • uses white list security model
  • uses black list security model
A

Controller-Based Networking

  • focused on network
  • user input is a policy
  • uses white list security model

Traditional Networking

  • focused on devices
  • user input is a configuration
  • uses black list security model
251
Q

Which statement about LLDP is true?

A

It is configured in global configuration mode.

252
Q

What are two benfits of private IPv4 IP addresses (choose two)

A

They are less costly than public IP addresses

They can be assigned to devices without internet connections

253
Q

What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?

A

A recursive DNS search

254
Q

What are two benfits that the UDP protocol provides for application traffic?

A

UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic

The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data

255
Q

Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network?

A

Conserve IPv4 addresses

Reduce the risk of a network security breach

256
Q

Which command is used to verify the DHCP relay agent address that has been set up on your Cisco IOS router?

A

show ip interface

257
Q

Match the cloud charcteristing with the example.

Multitenancy, On-Demand, resiliency, scalability, and workload movement

A

Multitenency - One or more clients can be hosted with the same physical or virtual infrastructure.
On-Demand - Resources are dedicated only when necessary instead of permanently.
Resiliency - Tasks and data residing on afailed server can be seamlessly migrated to other physical resources.
Scalability - Resources can be added and removed as needed to support current workload and tasks.
Workload Movement - Tasks can be migrated to different physical locations to increase efficiency or erduce cost.

CCNA Routing and Switching - 200-301 (1 decks)

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