Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The word aseptic comes from Latin and means

A

“without pathogens”

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2
Q

Which of the following statements about regulations regarding the training and testing of sterile compounding technicians is true?

A

The regulations are not as well-defined as those for regular pharmacy technicians.

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3
Q

What is the term for the date which a CSP is no longer sterile, stable, or effective and must not be used?

A

beyond use date

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4
Q

Most sterile products are prepared under the USP’s _______ risk-level conditions.

A

low or medium

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5
Q

Medication administered via this route of administration will generally not require preparation by sterile compounding personnel.

A

intranasally

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6
Q

Any incidence of failure to follow aseptic technique procedures and protocols is referred to as a(n)

A

break in technique

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7
Q

Which of the abbreviations below is used to indicate a pharmacy tool that has become commonplace in the preparation of CSPs?

A

LAFW

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8
Q

A negative-growth fingertip test is used to confirm a student’s ability to

A

aseptically don sterile garb and gloves

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9
Q

The pharmacy practice of ________ involves the dilution, mixing, and injection of various medication products using aseptic technique.

A

sterile compounding

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10
Q

USP 797 identifies ______ specific risk levels for CSPs.

A

4

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11
Q

Prior to compounding, the anteroom and clean room countertops must be cleaned with:

A

70% IPA

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12
Q

The area behind an item within the hood is a zone of turbulence and is considered to be__________.

A

contaminated

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13
Q

You are sterile compounding 10 IV bags each containing Vancomycin 1 gram, which involves reconstituting 2 vials of Vancomycin 5 gram powder with 100 ml of sterile water each. Which risk level does this fall under?

A

medium risk

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14
Q

Touching the tip of the syringe with your sterile glove is considered:

A

touch contamination

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15
Q

A manual or automated TPN preparation falls under which risk level?

A

medium risk

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16
Q

Equipment in clean rooms must be:

A

of nonpourous materials

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17
Q

How many particulates are in an ISO Class 7?

A

352,000

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18
Q

The area behind an item within the hood and is considered contaminated is called:

A

zone of turbulence

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19
Q

An ISO Class 5 environment has a maximum particle count of ___________ per cubic meter of air.

A

3,520

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20
Q

Drawing up a dose from an ampule and sending to patient in a syringe, is considered what type of risk level of sterile compounding?

A

low risk

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21
Q

Which type of Risk level requires a sterilization method when working with a product that is considered nonsterile?

A

high risk

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22
Q

What is the literal translation of the term anteroom?

A

before room

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23
Q

You are compounding a small volume parenteral which involves a D5W 50 ml IVPB and a vial of Reglan 5mg/ml, which risk level of compounded sterile products does this fall under?

A

low risk

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24
Q

Which requires that the compounded product be administered to patient within 1 hour of compounding?

A

immediate use

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25
Q

When working in a hood, an IV technician must open the outer package of a supply item _______ to maintain aseptic technique.

A

at least six inches inside the hood

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26
Q

Which component of a needle is closest to the needle tip?

A

bevel

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27
Q

The hollow space of the needle through which fluid moves into or out of a syringe is referred to as the _______.

A

lumen

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28
Q

Most IV base solutions are made with varying concentrations of ______ mixed with sterile water.

A

sodium or dextrose

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29
Q

What is another name for the direct compounding area?

A

clean air zone

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30
Q

Drawing fluid into a syringe is referred to as a _______.

A

straight draw

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31
Q

The part of a supply item that includes any fluid-pathway surface or fluid-pathway opening that is at risk for contamination by touch or airflow interruption is referred to as the

A

critical site

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32
Q

What is the usual volume range for an IVPB solution?

A

25-250ml

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33
Q

What is an advantage of using a vial and bag system?

A

all of the above? :/

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34
Q

This supply item is used as a precaution to allow the safe transport of a syringe to the nursing unit.

A

syringe cap

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35
Q

The best syringe choice is the

A

smallest syringe within which the total volume of desired fluid will safely fit.

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36
Q

_______ are sealed, sterile containers made of plastic or glass, with a rubber top through which the IV technician draws fluid.

A

vials

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37
Q

The pre-filled syringes supplied by manufacturers and discussed in Chapter 3 are used in the hospital for:

A

IV-push

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38
Q

Membrane filters are used to sterilize solutions that have been prepared:

A

from nonsterile ingredients

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39
Q

This type of contamination involves anything that interrupts the airflow from the HEPA filter to a critical site supply item.

A

shadowing

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40
Q

This type of needle is used to remove particulate matter from a solution.

A

filter needle

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41
Q

This item is inserted into a vial or glass bottle and the attached to a syringe, thus allowing easy withdrawal of a large volume of fluid while equalizing the pressure within the container.

A

vented dispensing pin

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42
Q

Technicians use vented needles primarily to

A

dilute parenteral medications in powder form

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43
Q

According to USP 797, appropriate alcohol swabs for the use in the IV room must be individually packaged and presaturated with sterile ________ IPA.

A

70%

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44
Q

Medication orders are similar to prescriptions but are exclusive to:

A

institutional or hospital setting

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45
Q

The Greek delta symbol is used to indicate _______.

A

desired change

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46
Q

In medical terminology, where is a combining vowel likely to be found?

A

between the root word and the suffix

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47
Q

What causes a warning flag to appear in a pharmacy’s software system when medications orders are entered?

A

all of the above :/

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48
Q

Root words, prefixes, and suffixes are collectively referred to as __________.

A

morphemes

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49
Q

Which of the following is a common prefix used in terminology?

A

hypo

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50
Q

Which of the following is a computerized pharmacy reference source?

A

Micromedex

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51
Q

A ______ often indicates time, direction, or number.

A

prefix

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52
Q

The Official “Do Not Use” List of Abbreviations was created in response to an increased incidence of medication errors. What group created it?

A

Joint Commission

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53
Q

What does it mean when PF precedes a medication name?

A

preservative-free

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54
Q

CAT is an abbreviation for:

A

computer-aided tomography

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55
Q

What does PHI stand for?

A

patient health information

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56
Q

Physicians often write orders for CSPs using abbreviations such as NTG (for ______) and PCN (for ______).

A

nitroglycerine; penicillin

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57
Q

Some physicians whose specialties involve commonly prescribed medical treatments take advantage of preprinted order forms called _________ orders.

A

standing

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58
Q

Instead of an administration time, (an) ________ is specified for large-volume parenteral products.

A

infusion rate

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59
Q

The home medications discussed in Chapter 4 refer to:

A

The medications the patient was taking at home prior to admission to the hospital.

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60
Q

In order to calculate the IV flow rate for an LVP, a technician must know the total volume of the LVP and either:

A

the infusion rate in ml/hr or the number of hours over which the LVP is to be infused.

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61
Q

One cubic centimeter (1 cc) is equal to _____ ml.

A

1

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62
Q

All the following are components of the formula used in the ratio and proportion method except:

A

infusion rate

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63
Q

Versed is available as 5 mg/mL. How many milliliters are needed for 21 mg?

A

4.2ml

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64
Q

In which scenario would the IV technician need to use the volume of the base solution in their calculations?

A

determining how long an IV bag will last

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65
Q

You have a solution that is 1 gr/tbsp. How many grams are in 2 pt?

A

4.2g

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66
Q

If 750 ml is infused at a rate of 25 gtt/min using a 20 drop set, what is the flow rate in milliliters per hour?

A

75ml/hr

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67
Q

How many milligrams of drug are in 45 mL of a 1.5% solution?

A

675mg

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68
Q

How many milligrams are in 9.3 mL of a 1:400 solution?

A

23.25mg

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69
Q

To prepare 25 mL of a 10 mg/mL Dexamethasone solution from a stock solution of Dexamethasone 25 mg/mL and sterile water, how much concentrate and how much diluent are needed?

A

10 ml stock; 15 ml diluent

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70
Q

The basic formula method for solving pharmacy dosage calculations is best used in sterile compounding scenarios in which:

A

any of the above :/

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71
Q

In the basic formula method, the technician:

A

divides the desired dose by the concentration on hand.

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72
Q

To prepare 750 mL of a 15% dextrose solution using D5W and D20W, how much of each is required?

A

500 ml D20% and 250 ml D5%

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73
Q

The drop factor is measured in:

A

gtts/ml

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74
Q

Suppose that an IV tech has both dextrose 70% in water (D70W) and dextrose 5% in water (D5W) available in the pharmacy but receives an order for dextrose 10% (D10W) in water. How many parts of the higher concentration solution and the lower concentration solution will be needed?

A

5 parts of D70W and 60 parts of D5W

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75
Q

A patient is dehydrated and needs 1 L of lactated Ringer’s solution infused over 6 hours. A 20 drop set is used. What is the flow rate in drops per minute?

A

55gtt/min

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76
Q

What is 9:00 PM in military time?

A

2100 hours

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77
Q

Which method is also known as “calculation by cancellation”?

A

dimensional analysis

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78
Q

A patient is receiving 25 mEq of KCL in 1000 mL of NS over 18 hours using a 30 drop set. What is the flow rate in milliequivalent per minute?

A

0.023 mEq/min

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79
Q

The IV technician begins the calculation process by determining the ______ of the medication.

A

concentration

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80
Q

In the 1850’s, this person conducted an extensive study of health of the British Army and provided documented statistics that reinforced the connection between poor hygiene and death.

A

Florence Nightingale

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81
Q

Which of the following situations warrants hand cleansing with sterile, foamed 70% IPA?

A

all :/

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82
Q

What would you do if you accidentally drop the sterile scrub sponge/brush in the sink while hand washing?

A

Discard the dropped scrub sponge/brush, open a new scrub sponge/brush packet, and begin the hand washing procedure again.

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83
Q

Which is the correct method for cleansing the forearms during an aseptic hand washing?

A

Scrub in a circular motion, gradually working around the arm and towards the elbow.

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84
Q

In 1905, the Ansell Company developed the first _______________ which practitioners sterilized with _____________ or by steaming them in an autoclave.

A

latex glove; carbolic acid

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85
Q

Which statement is accurate regarding the use of a sterile scrub sponge/brush?

A

The brush side of the sterile scrub sponge/brush should be used to clean the finger nails; the sponge side of the sterile scrub sponge/brush should be used to cleanse the skin.

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86
Q

Which type of glove is most appropriate for the use in compounding sterile products?

A

sterile, powder-free, latex-free gloves

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87
Q

Which of the following items may be reused if it is not visibly soiled and it remains in the sterile compounding area or anteroom?

A

gown

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88
Q

What is the correct order of preparation for sterile compounding?

A

shoe covers, hair cover, face mask, hand washing, gown, gloves

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89
Q

What is the order of cleaning the fingers and hands during aseptic hand washing?

A

nail scrub, fingers, palm and back of the left hand - followed by the right hand

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90
Q

All of the following are required hood-cleaning supplies except:

A

paper towels

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91
Q

According to USP Chapter 797 guidelines, how often should the prefilter of a horizontal laminar airflow hood be replaced?

A

every 30 days

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92
Q

After air is pulled through the prefilter of a horizontal laminar airflow hood, it is pushed

A

through the HEPA filter

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93
Q

Cleaning strokes in the hood-cleaning process should

A

sweep from one edge to the other in a single motion.

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94
Q

Any unused portion of the sterile water used in the hood-cleaning process must be disposed of:

A

after 24 hours

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95
Q

Which of these devices would NOT be found with others in the clean room?

A

vertical hood

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96
Q

The prefilter of a horizontal laminar airflow hood is located in the _______ or ________ of the hood.

A

front; top

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97
Q

How often does the HEPA filter for a horizontal airflow hood need to be recertified?

A

every 6 months

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98
Q

According to USP Chapter 797 guidelines, a compounding hood should be cleaned at the beginning of every shift and every ________ during continuous sterile compounding.

A

30 minutes

99
Q

Preparation for the hood-cleaning process begins in the

A

anteroom

100
Q

The IV technician must have a thorough knowledge of each of these hood-related tasks except:

A

changing the HEPA filter

101
Q

The hood’s work surface should be cleaned with _____ strokes, moving from the _____ to the ______.

A

side-to-side; inside of the hood; outer edge of hood

102
Q

As discussed in Chapter 7, which of the following is NOT part of the hood-cleaning protocol established by USP Chapter 797?

A

the minimum number of staff required for the hood-cleaning procedure

103
Q

The laminar airflow hood maintains the Class ______ ISO environment necessary for the preparation of CPS’s.

A

5

104
Q

In a horizontal airflow hood, what does the blower do?

A

draws room air through a prefilter and then pushes it through the HEPA filter

105
Q

Room air first enters the horizontal laminar airflow hood through the ________.

A

prefilter

106
Q

In the anteroom preparation for hood cleaning, which of the following steps happens last?

A

sterile gown is donned

107
Q

Which area of the hood should be cleaned first?

A

hang bar and hooks

108
Q

Which of the following hood-cleaning steps takes place first?

A

??????

109
Q

In a horizontal laminar airflow hood, the HEPA filter prevents _____% of all airborne particles of ______ micron or larger from entering the DCA of the hood.

A

99.97; 0.5

110
Q

A ______ line involves a sheath inserted through a peripheral vein and threaded through the vein to the superior vena cava or the right atrium.

A

PICC

111
Q

Continuous infusions are administered at an IV rate between ______ ml/hr and _______ml/hr.

A

40; 250

112
Q

Sterile water and ______ are the most common diluents used to dissolve sterile medications.

A

NS

113
Q

Human blood plasma is:

A

slightly alkaline

114
Q

The degree of acidity or alkalinity of a solution is referred to as its:

A

pH value

115
Q

If cells are subjected to a ________ solution, water will be drawn into the cells, causing them to swell.

A

hypotonic

116
Q

Parenteral solutions are medications administered by any route other than

A

through the alimentary canal

117
Q

The most common additive to continuous infusions are:

A

electrolytes

118
Q

What does it mean when a physician orders an IV drip to be “titrated to effect”?

A

The drip rate is adjusted to run faster or slower depending on the patient’s response.

119
Q

_______ is a measure of the number of milliosmoles of solute per liter of solution.

A

osmolarity

120
Q

All patients receiving parenteral fluids should be monitored for:

A

all of above :/

121
Q

Parenteral solutions are commonly used to correct or maintain the _______ status of patients.

A

fluid

122
Q

Which of the following is NOT one the critical areas of a needle and syringe?

A

syringe measurement point

123
Q

An acidic CSP can be injected with _______ to neutralize the pH.

A

buffer solution

124
Q

How does coring contaminate the solution inside the vial?

A

A piece of the rubber stopper tears off and falls into the solution.

125
Q

All the following are other names for a continuous infusion EXCEPT:

A

buffer infusion

126
Q

Why are parenteral medications considered more dangerous than enteral products?

A

because a pathogen in a parenteral product can only be fought by the patient’s immune system, which is likely already compromised.

127
Q

Water in the body is primarily found in _______ spaces.

A

intracellular

128
Q

Which condition reflects proper, balanced level of fluid and electrolytes in the body?

A

homeostasis

129
Q

_______ refers to the way cells or tissues respond to surrounding fluid.

A

tonicity

130
Q

What are the two categories of bacterial microorganisms discussed in Chapter 9?

A

gram-positive and gram-negative

131
Q

Which of the following antibiotic classes is used to treat gram-positive but not gram-negative bacterial infections?

A

penicillins

132
Q

IVPB’s that are not administered through a primary IV line usually use a ________ as their injection port.

A

heparin or saline lock

133
Q

The term incompatibility, as used in Chapter 9, refers to a situation in which _______ are incompatible.

A

two ingredients or solutions

134
Q

Small-volume parenterals administered through an IVPB are used solely for

A

intermittent infusion of medication

135
Q

Which of the following includes all of the critical sites that must NOT be touched or shadowed during SVP preparation?

A

the needle, syringe tip, vial top, and IVPB injection port

136
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the preparatory steps for compounding a SVP?

A

verifying the CSP label

137
Q

Which of the following is typically NOT included in a prescriber’s IVPB order?

A

IVPB base solution

138
Q

The only use for a vented needle is to

A

reconstitute a powdered medication within a vial.

139
Q

What dangerous outcome can occur when two incompatible medications are administered through the same IV tubing?

A

formation of a precipitate

140
Q

When determining which base solution to use in an IVPB, the pharmacist takes into account the _______ function of the patient.

A

kidney

141
Q

Patients receiving antibiotic SVP’s face an increased likelihood of:

A

allergic reaction

142
Q

When using a vented needle in SVP preparation, what should sterile compounding personnel do after the diluent has been drawn up and before the vented needle is attached?

A

draw a small volume (approximately 0.5 ml) of air into the syringe

143
Q

In order to reconstitute a powder for parenteral use, an IV technician must determine the amount of diluent needed to provide which of the following?

A

the desired concentration

144
Q

Small Volume parenteral preparations typically have a volume of ______ ml or less.

A

250

145
Q

When arranging your SVP supplies in the hood, small items such as the needle and syringe should be placed _________, and large items such as the IVPB bag should be placed _______.

A

within the outer six-inch zone; in the DCA

146
Q

Most IVPB are administered over a period of

A

15-60mins

147
Q

This class of medication is used to treat infections caused by fungi or protozoa.

A

anitbiotics

148
Q

When compounding an SVP in the hood, an IV technician should attach the needle hub to the syringe tip and then temporarily place the needle-and-syringe unit onto the hood surface

A

within the DCA

149
Q

The milking technique involves ________ air or liquid to/from a vial to create a relatively ______ pressure.

A

adding; positive

150
Q

The scored portion on the neck of an ampule is called the:

A

break ring

151
Q

During the compounding of an ampule-based preparation, what type of needle must be used prior to injection of medication into a CPS?

A

5 micron filter needle

152
Q

Ampule-based preparations are most often administered via the ______ route of administration.

A

IV

153
Q

Generally, once an ampule medication is injected into an IVPB base solution, the CSP is _________.

A

all of the above :/

154
Q

What part of the ampule do you break in order to access the contents within?

A

neck

155
Q

Even ampule medications that are neutral when diluted in an IVPB based solution are sometimes _________ to avoid phlebitis and other administration risks.

A

administered over a long period of time

156
Q

Which preparation risk is unique to ampule-based medications?

A

broken glass

157
Q

As described in Chapter 10, filter needles are used to filter out:

A

glass shards from the contents of ampules

158
Q

As listed in Chapter 10, patients receiving parenteral therapy should be monitored for all of the following except:

A

coring

159
Q

The base of an ampule is called the ampule _______.

A

body

160
Q

Anaphylaxis is a type of:

A

allergic reaction

161
Q

Which ampule-opening method is described in Chapter 10 as being safe, efficient, and cost effective?

A

opening the ampule using gloved hands

162
Q

Chapter 10 states that after an ampule neck has been broken and the ampule head removed, the ampule is to be treated as a:

A

SDV

163
Q

Which of the following statement regarding filter needles is incorrect?

A

A single filter needle can be used to both withdraw and inject fluid.

164
Q

The uppermost part of the ampule body, just before it starts to narrow, is sometimes referred to as the ampule ________.

A

shoulder

165
Q

A filter needle is always used in conjunction with a ________ when compounding ampule-based preparations.

A

regular needle

166
Q

In which situation would an IV technician most likely use a filter straw?

A

when withdrawing a large amount of fluid from an ampule

167
Q

The choice of whether to first use the regular needle to withdraw the fluid from the ampule and then use the filter needle to inject the fluid from the syringe into the IVPB- or vice-versa- is dependent upon:

A

the viscosity of the fluid within an ampule

168
Q

The _______ of an ampule is its critical site.

A

neck

169
Q

The first step in preparing an IVPB is:

A

verifying the CSP label

170
Q

Which of the following preparatory procedures takes place in the clean room?

A

donning sterile gloves

171
Q

Why should you tap or swirl an ampule prior to swabbing the neck?

A

clear the head and neck

172
Q

Which hand should the IV technician use to snap the neck of an ampule?

A

dominant hand

173
Q

If an IV technician draws fluid from an ampule into a syringe and then determines that there is excess fluid in the syringe, he or she must inject the excess fluid:

A

back into the ampule

174
Q

If a transport cart is used to bring supplies into the clean room, it should be wheeled into position so that it is

A

away form hood pre-filter

175
Q

Most narcotic CSPs prepared by IV technicians are compromised of a _______ narcotic mixed with a base solution.

A

C-II

176
Q

Which of the following are examples of Schedule I controlled substances?

A

heroin and LSD

177
Q

Institutional pharmacies generally track all scheduled substances using a ________ inventory system.

A

perpetual

178
Q

Most narcotics have chemical properties that are generally:

A

isotonic, isoosmotic, and pH neutral

179
Q

Which of the following complications is associated with narcotic CSPs rather than CSPs in general?

A

CNS depression

180
Q

Which type of administration is used when a patient has built up a very high narcotic tolerance?

A

IV

181
Q

____________ is a synthetic narcotic derived from the opium poppy plant and is sometimes used in LVP preparations.

A

hydromorphone

182
Q

What is controlled substance diversion?

A

the unaccountability of a controlled substance found on examination of a perpetual inventory record

183
Q

Who in the pharmacy should know how to use a perpetual inventory record?

A

all RX personnel

184
Q

Where should the perpetual inventory log book be kept?

A

narcotic room or vault

185
Q

When does the process known as narcotic sign-out occur?

A

whenever the narcotic leaves the narcotic room or vault

186
Q

How many perpetual inventory log books are used in the pharmacy?

A

two: one for C-II and one for C-III, C-IV, and C-V controlled substances

187
Q

As used in Chapter 11, what does PCA stand for?

A

patient controlled analgesia

188
Q

PCAs are most often used on a ________ basis to control ________.

A

short-term; postoperative pain

189
Q

After completing the PCA compounding procedure, what must an IV technician attach to the tip of the PCA syringe?

A

syringe cap

190
Q

What is the function of an IVA syringe seal?

A

tamper evidence

191
Q

When inserting a PCA needle-and-syringe unit into the injection port of an IVPB base solution bag, the needle should be inserted

A

without regard to the position of the needle bevel and without any bend of the needle.

192
Q

Which of the following anteroom procedures occurs last?

A

donning PPE

193
Q

When arranging supplies in the hood, small items should be placed ______, whereas the IVPB bag should be placed _________.

A

in the outer six-inch zone; into the DCA of the hood

194
Q

Withdrawing fluid from an IVPB bag is different from withdrawing fluid from a vial in that the IV technician

A

does not need to create positive pressure when withdrawing from an IVPB bag.

195
Q

Manufacturers sometimes make pediatric-strength formulations when the _______ of the adult-strength medication would make the pediatric dose too _______.

A

high concentration; small to accurately draw up in a syringe

196
Q

Pediatric medicine is concerned with the treatment of infants and children up to the approximately age:

A

18

197
Q

Pediatric CSPs typically have a volume of:

A

500ml or less

198
Q

Which of the following medications is not a commonly prepared pediatric CSP?

A

narcotic IVPB solution for pain relief

199
Q

The changes in biochemical and physiological processes that occur during a child’s growth are especially pronounced during the first _______ years of life.

A

3

200
Q

Besides body weight, what other factors are considered when determining pediatric dosing?

A

BSA

201
Q

Pediatric dosing has long been based on ______ the ________ formulation of a medication.

A

reducing; adult strength

202
Q

Pediatric CSPs are primarily given as continous IV infusions or as intermittent doses using the ______ route of administration.

A

IV push

203
Q

For pediatric patients with fragile peripheral veins, a continous IV infusion may instead be established through any of the following except a(n) ______ line.

A

intrathecal

204
Q

Which of the following best describes the state in which a compounded syringe would be sent from the pharmacy to the pediatric unit where it will be administered?

A

without an attached needle, but with a syringe cap and IVA syringe seal in place

205
Q

A buretrol is a special type of

A

tubing

206
Q

All pharmacy facilities follow a directive that __________ must receive medications that are preservative-free.

A

neonates

207
Q

Which of the following preservatives can cause problems in pediatric patients?

A

benzyl alcohol

208
Q

Which of the following conditions can result from the accidental rapid administration of a CSP to a neonate?

A

hypervolemia

209
Q

The diluent most often used in the preparation of pediatric CSPs is:

A

NS

210
Q

In general, CSPs with PF ingredients are stable for a maximum of:

A

24 hours

211
Q

When compounding a pediatric CSP, which of the following anteroom preparatory procedures occurs first?

A

verifying CSP label

212
Q

Peripheral parenteral nutrition is also known as ________ parenteral nutrition.

A

partial

213
Q

A jejunum tube is surgically placed through the skin of the:

A

abdomen

214
Q

The long-term administration of PPN is rarely done due to the risk of:

A

extravasation

215
Q

TPNs are sometimes administered in the chest through the ________ vein.

A

subclavian

216
Q

Hickman, BROVIAC, triple lumen, and Quinton are types of:

A

CVCs

217
Q

Which ingredient is part of a 3-in-1TPN solution but not a component of a 2-in-1 TPN aolution?

A

fatty acids

218
Q

Which ingredient in a TPN solution is the primary source of carbohydrate?

A

dextrose

219
Q

When ordering sterile TPN components, prescribers consider several factors, including the functions of these two organs:

A

kidney and liver

220
Q

What is the average 24 hour requirement of dextrose (per kg of an adult patient’s body weight) as a TPN base component?

A

1.5gm/kg

221
Q

USP 797 requires that an ACD be cleaned and calibrated ________ prior to TPN preparation.

A

daily

222
Q

Premixed TPN solutions are used primarily in ______ situations.

A

home healthcare

223
Q

Compared with other parenteral solutions, the preparation of TPN solutions poses a(n) _______ risk of contamination and a(n) ________ risk of incompatibility.

A

increased; increased

224
Q

_________ incompatibility occurs when two or more combined drugs result in a change in the effectiveness of one or more of the drugs.

A

therapeutic

225
Q

In general, the ingredient mixing order for TPNs is as follows:

A

base solution then additives

226
Q

In general, the only type of incompatibility that is visible to the healthcare worker is __________ incompatibility.

A

physical

227
Q

In TPN preparation, the most commonly encountered physical incompatibility occurs between the additives

A

phosphate and calcium

228
Q

The primary risk associated with TPN administration is

A

nonsocomial infection

229
Q

Cancer chemotherapy has three classifications, including each of the following except:

A

preventative

230
Q

A chemotherapy medication is said to be _____ when it reduces or prevents the growth of cancer cells.

A

antineoplastic

231
Q

_______ chemotherapy is commonly prescribed after a surgical procedure to remove a tumor.

A

adjuvant

232
Q

This type of chemotherapy drug disrupts DNA repair functions within the cancer cell.

A

topoisomerase inhibitor

233
Q

__________ are drugs that bind to specific DNA cells and stop their replication.

A

alkylating agents

234
Q

What type of medication or solution would most likely be prescribed in a chemotherapy support order?

A

hydration preparation

235
Q

Which type of chemotherapy drugs blocks the use of nutrients essential to the growth of cancer cells?

A

antimetabolite medications

236
Q

Which types of cancer are often treated with hormone therapy?

A

breast and prostate

237
Q

Chemotherapy medications are often dosed based on a patient’s

A

BSA

238
Q

Hazardous drug chemotherapy should be prepared in

A

vertical LAFW

239
Q

This type of hood is commonly enclosed system accessed through the use of a fixed pair of gloves at the front of the hood.

A

CACI

240
Q

Which of the following organizations does not issue regulatory and safety guidelines for the safe handling of chemotherapy CSPs?

A

NSF

241
Q

This acronym stands for the form that provides detailed information about storage and handling of hazardous drugs.

A

MSDS

242
Q

Sterile compounding personnel who prepare chemotherapy CSPs must be especially trained. Upon completion of that training, how often must they be evaluated?

A

annually

243
Q

The administration time for one chemotherapy session typically requires a minimum of

A

several hours

244
Q

Chemotherapy CSPs are most often administered into the

A

subclavian vein