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My CCNP Switching 300-115 > Test Questions > Flashcards

Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?

a. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
b. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
c. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
d. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
e. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.

A

e. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.

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2
Q

Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally: monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 - 8, 39, 52 What is the result of the implemented command?

a. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
b. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
c. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
d. The trunk’s native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
e. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.

A

e. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.

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3
Q

A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?

a. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
b. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
c. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
d. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.

A

a. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.

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4
Q

After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco Discovery Protocol are not visible. Which vendor-neutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?

a. Local Area Mobility
b. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
c. NetFlow
d. Directed Response Protocol

A

b. Link Layer Discovery Protocol

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5
Q

Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients. What must be done to fix this?

a. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with “null” and then replace it with the new domain name.
b. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
c. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network.
d. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.

A

d. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.

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6
Q

After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches. What should be configured for extended VLANs?

a. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
b. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
c. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause network instability.
d. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.

A

b. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.

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7
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch C receives VLAN information from the VTP server Switch A, but Switch B does not receive any VLAN information. What is the most probable cause of this behavior?

a. Switch B is configured in transparent mode.
b. Switch B is configured with an access port to Switch A, while Switch C is configured with a trunk port to Switch B.
c. The VTP revision number of the Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
d. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.

A

a. Switch B is configured in transparent mode.

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8
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch B has all VLANs, but Switch C is not receiving traffic from certain VLANs. What would cause this issue?

a. A VTP authentication mismatch occurred between Switch A and Switch B.
b. The VTP revision number of Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
c. VTP pruning is configured globally on all switches and it removed VLANs from the trunk interface that is connected to Switch C.
d. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.

A

c. VTP pruning is configured globally on all switches and it removed VLANs from the trunk interface that is connected to Switch C.

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9
Q

After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate” and “backup.” What is the reason for this change?

a. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
b. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
c. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
d. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.

A

a. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.

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10
Q

An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they should. What is the reason for this?

a. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
b. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
c. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
d. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.

A

c. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.

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11
Q

Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?

a. access lists
b. DTP in nonegotiate
c. VTP pruning
d. PBR

A

c. VTP pruning

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12
Q

What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address-table?

a. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
b. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
c. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
d. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
e. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.

A

a. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.

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13
Q

While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber. As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?

a. macros
b. errdisable autorecovery
c. IP Event Dampening
d. command aliases
e. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

A

b. errdisable autorecovery

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14
Q

A network engineer deployed a switch that operates the LAN base feature set and decides to use the SDM VLAN template. The SDM template is causing the CPU of the switch to spike during peak working hours. What is the root cause of this issue?

a. The VLAN receives additional frames from neighboring switches.
b. The SDM VLAN template causes the MAC address-table to overflow.
c. The VLAN template disables routing in hardware.
d. The switch needs to be rebooted before the SDM template takes effect.

A

c. The VLAN template disables routing in hardware.

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15
Q

An access switch has been configured with an EtherChannel port. After configuring SPAN to monitor this port, the network administrator notices that not all traffic is being replicated to the management server. What is a cause for this issue?

a. VLAN filters are required to ensure traffic mirrors effectively.
b. SPAN encapsulation replication must be enabled to capture EtherChannel destination traffic.
c. The port channel can be used as a SPAN source, but not a destination.
d. RSPAN must be used to capture EtherChannel bidirectional traffic.

A

c. The port channel can be used as a SPAN source, but not a destination.

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16
Q

A DHCP configured router is connected directly to a switch that has been provisioned with DHCP snooping. IP Source Guard with the ip verify source port-security command is configured under the interfaces that connect to all DHCP clients on the switch. However, clients are not receiving an IP address via the DHCP server. Which option is the cause of this issue?

a. The DHCP server does not support information option 82.
b. The DHCP client interfaces have storm control configured.
c. Static DHCP bindings are not configured on the switch.
d. DHCP snooping must be enabled on all VLANs, even if they are not utilized for dynamic address allocation.

A

a. The DHCP server does not support information option 82.

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17
Q

A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces. Which option is the cause of the problem?

a. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
b. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
c. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
d. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
e. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.

A

b. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.

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18
Q
  1. QUESTION 18 - The command storm-control broadcast level 75 65 is configured under the switch port connected to the corporate mail server. In which three ways does this command impact the traffic? (Choose three.)
    a. SNMP traps are sent by default when broadcast traffic reaches 65% of the lower-level threshold.
    b. The switchport is disabled when unicast traffic reaches 75% of the total interface bandwidth.
    c. The switch resumes forwarding broadcasts when they are below 65% of bandwidth.
    d. Only broadcast traffic is limited by this particular storm control configuration.
    e. Multicast traffic is dropped at 65% and broadcast traffic is dropped at 75% of the total interface bandwidth.
    f. The switch drops broadcasts when they reach 75% of bandwidth.
A

c. The switch resumes forwarding broadcasts when they are below 65% of bandwidth.
d. Only broadcast traffic is limited by this particular storm control configuration.
f. The switch drops broadcasts when they reach 75% of bandwidth.

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19
Q

After UDLD is implemented, a Network Administrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state. Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?

a. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
b. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
c. C. UDLD is enabled globally.
d. UDLD timers are inconsistent.

A

b. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.

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20
Q

After reviewing UDLD status on switch ports, an engineer notices that the current bidirectional state for an access port is “Unknown.” Which statement describes what this indicates about the status of the port?

a. The port is fully operational and no known issues are detected.
b. The bidirectional status of “unknown” indicates that the port will go into the disabled state because it stopped receiving UDLD packets from its neighbor.
c. UDLD moved into aggressive mode after inconsistent acknowledgements were detected.
d. The UDLD port is placed in the “unknown” state for 5 seconds until the next UDLD packet is received on the interface.

A

a. The port is fully operational and no known issues are detected.

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21
Q
  1. QUESTION 21 - Pilot testing of the new switching infrastructure finds that when the root port is lost, STP immediately replaces the root port with an alternative root port. Which spanning-tree technology is used to accomplish backup root port selection?
    a. PVST+
    b. PortFast
    c. BackboneFast
    d. UplinkFast
    e. Loop Guard
    f. UDLD
A

d. UplinkFast

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22
Q
  1. QUESTION 22 - A network engineer must adjust the STP interface attributes to influence root port selection. Which two elements are used to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
    a. port-priority
    b. cost
    c. forward-timers
    d. link type
    e. root guard
A

a. port-priority

b. cost

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23
Q
  1. QUESTION 23 - A network engineer must set the load balance method on an existing port channel. Which action must be done to apply a new load balancing method?
    a. Configure the new load balancing method using port-channel load-balance.

b. Adjust the switch SDM back to “default”.
c. Ensure that IP CEF is enabled globally to support all load balancing methods.
d. Upgrade the PFC to support the latest load balancing methods.

A

a. Configure the new load balancing method using port-channel load-balance.

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24
Q
  1. QUESTION 24 - Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer investigates a recent network failure and notices that one of the interfaces on the switch is still down. What is causing the line protocol on this interface to be shown as down?
    a. There is a layer 1 physical issue.

b. There is a speed mismatch on the interface.
c. The interface is configured as the target of the SPAN session.
d. The interface is configured as the source of the SPAN session.
e. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface.

A

c. The interface is configured as the target of the SPAN session.

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25
Q

While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking is not currently enabled. Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol?

a. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2
b. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager
c. logging buffered
d. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface
e. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options

A

a. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2

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26
Q

After port security is deployed throughout an enterprise campus, the network team has been overwhelmed with port reset requests. They decide to configure the network to automate the process of re-enabling user ports. Which command accomplishes this task?

a. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 180
b. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation
c. switch(config)# switchport port-security protect
d. switch(config)# switchport port-security aging type inactivity
e. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause security-violation

A

b. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation

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27
Q

The network monitoring application alerts a network engineer of a client PC that is acting as a rogue DHCP server. Which two commands help trace this PC when the MAC address is known? (Choose two.)

a. switch# show mac address-table
b. switch# show port-security
c. switch# show ip verify source
d. switch# show ip arp inspection
e. switch# show mac address-table address

A

a. switch# show mac address-table

e. switch# show mac address-table address

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28
Q

A network engineer has just deployed a non-Cisco device in the network and wants to get information about it from a connected device. Cisco Discovery Protocol is not supported, so the open standard protocol must be configured. Which protocol does the network engineer configure on both devices to accomplish this?

a. IRDP
b. LLDP
c. NDP
d. LLTD

A

b. LLDP

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29
Q

A manager tells the network engineer to permit only certain VLANs across a specific trunk interface. Which option can be configured to accomplish this?

a. allowed VLAN list
b. VTP pruning
c. VACL
d. L2P tunneling

A

a. allowed VLAN list

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30
Q
  1. QUESTION 30 - For client server failover purposes, the application server team has indicated that they must not have the standard 30 second delay before their switchport enters a forwarding state. For their disaster recovery feature to operate successfully, they require the switchport to enter a forwarding state immediately. Which spanning-tree feature satisfies this requirement?
    a. Rapid Spanning-Tree
    b. Spanning-Tree Timers
    c. Spanning-Tree FastPort
    d. Spanning-Tree PortFast
    e. Spanning-Tree Fast Forward
A

d. Spanning-Tree PortFast

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31
Q

Which command does a network engineer use to verify the spanning-tree status for VLAN 10?

a. switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10
b. switch# show spanning-tree bridge
c. switch# show spanning-tree brief
d. switch# show spanning-tree summary
e. switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10 brief

A

a. switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10

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32
Q

A new network that consists of several switches has been connected together via trunking interfaces. If all switches currently have the default VTP domain name “null”, which statement describes what happens when a domain name is configured on one of the switches?

a. The switch with the non-default domain name restores back to “null” upon reboot.
b. Switches with higher revision numbers does not accept the new domain name.
c. VTP summary advertisements are sent out of all ports with the new domain name.
d. All other switches with the default domain name become VTP clients.

A

c. VTP summary advertisements are sent out of all ports with the new domain name.

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33
Q

While troubleshooting a network outage, a network engineer discovered an unusually high level of broadcast traffic coming from one of the switch interfaces. Which option decreases consumption of bandwidth used by broadcast traffic?

a. storm control
b. SDM routing
c. Cisco IOS parser
d. integrated routing and bridging
e. Dynamic ARP Inspection

A

a. storm control

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34
Q

A network engineer is setting up a new switched network. The network is expected to grow and add many new VLANs in the future. Which Spanning Tree Protocol should be used to reduce switch resources and managerial burdens that are associated with multiple spanning-tree instances?

a. RSTP
b. PVST
c. MST
d. PVST+
e. RPVST+

A

c. MST

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35
Q

Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?

a. SDM templates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
b. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hosts in one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
c. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
d. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users to manage the flow of traffic handled by the route processor.
e. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.

A

a. SDM templates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.

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36
Q

Which SDM template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses?

a. VLAN
b. access
c. default
d. routing

A

a. VLAN

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37
Q

Which SDM template is the most appropriate for a Layer 2 switch that provides connectivity to a large number of clients?

a. VLAN
b. default
c. access
d. routing

A

a. VLAN

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38
Q

In a Cisco switch, what is the default period of time after which a MAC address ages out and is discarded?

a. 100 seconds
b. 180 seconds
c. 300 seconds
d. 600 seconds

A

c. 300 seconds

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39
Q

If a network engineer applies the command mac-address-table notification mac-move on a Cisco switch port, when is a syslog message generated??

a. A MAC address or host moves between different switch ports.
b. A new MAC address is added to the content-addressable memory.
c. A new MAC address is removed from the content-addressable memory.
d. More than 64 MAC addresses are added to the content-addressable memory.

A

a. A. A MAC address or host moves between different switch ports.

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40
Q

Which option is a possible cause for an errdisabled interface?

a. routing loop
b. cable unplugged
c. STP loop guard
d. security violation

A

d. security violation

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41
Q

What is the default value for the errdisable recovery interval in a Cisco switch?

a. 30 seconds
b. 100 seconds
c. 300 seconds
d. 600 seconds

A

c. 300 seconds

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42
Q

Which statement about LLDP-MED is true?

a. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between endpoint devices and network devices.
b. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between network devices.
c. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between endpoint devices.
d. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between routers that run BGP.

A

a. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between endpoint devices and network devices.

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43
Q

Which statement about Cisco devices learning about each other through Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?

a. Each device sends periodic advertisements to multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC.
b. Each device broadcasts periodic advertisements to all of its neighbors.
c. Each device sends periodic advertisements to a central device that builds the network topology.
d. Each device sends periodic advertisements to all IP addresses in its ARP table.

A

a. Each device sends periodic advertisements to multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC.

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44
Q

Which option lists the information that is contained in a Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisement?

a. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, hardware platform
b. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, memory errors
c. native VLAN IDs, memory errors, hardware platform
d. port-duplex, hardware platform, memory errors

A

a. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, hardware platform

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45
Q

Which option describes a limitation of LLDP?

a. LLDP cannot provide information about VTP.
b. LLDP does not support TLVs.
c. LLDP can discover only Windows servers.
d. LLDP can discover up to two devices per port.

A

a. A. LLDP cannot provide information about VTP.

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46
Q
  1. QUESTION 46 - Which statement about the UDLD protocol is true?
    a. UDLD is a Cisco-proprietary Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to monitor the physical status of links and detect unidirectional failures.
    b. UDLD is a Cisco-proprietary Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to advertise their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on a local area network.
    c. UDLD is a standardized Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to monitor the physical status of links and detect unidirectional failures.
    d. UDLD is a standardized Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to advertise their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on a local area network.
A

a. UDLD is a Cisco-proprietary Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to monitor the physical status of links and detect unidirectional failures.

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47
Q

Which option lists the modes that are available for configuring UDLD on a Cisco switch?

a. normal and aggressive
b. active and aggressive
c. normal and active
d. normal and passive
e. normal and standby

A

a. normal and aggressive

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48
Q
  1. QUESTION 48 - What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
    a. 30 seconds
    b. 60 seconds
    c. 120 seconds
    d. 300 seconds
A

b. 60 seconds

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49
Q

Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol configuration on a Cisco switch is true?

a. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp run.
b. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp enable.
c. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp enable.
d. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp run.

A

a. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp run.

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50
Q

Which VTP mode is needed to configure an extended VLAN, when a switch is configured to use VTP versions 1 or 2?

a. transparent
b. client
c. server
d. Extended VLANs are only supported in version 3 and not in versions 1 or 2.

A

a. transparent

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51
Q

What is the size of the VLAN field inside an 802.1q frame?

a. 8-bit
b. 12-bit
c. 16-bit
d. 32-bit

A

b. 12-bit

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52
Q

What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be assigned to an access switchport without a voice VLAN?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 1024

A

b. 1

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53
Q
  1. QUESTION 53 - Refer to the exhibit. Which option shows the expected result if a show vlan command is issued?
    a. ??????
A

a

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54
Q

Which feature is automatically enabled when a voice VLAN is configured, but not automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is removed?

a. portfast
b. port-security
c. spanning tree
d. storm control

A

a. portfast

55
Q

In which portion of the frame is the 802.1q header found?

a. within the Ethernet header
b. within the Ethernet payload
c. within the Ethernet FCS
d. within the Ethernet source MAC address

A

a. within the Ethernet header

56
Q

Which VLAN range is eligible to be pruned when a network engineer enables VTP pruning on a switch?

a. VLANs 1-1001
b. VLANs 1-4094
c. VLANs 2-1001
d. VLANs 2-4094

A

c. VLANs 2-1001

57
Q

Which action allows a network engineer to limit a default VLAN from being propagated across all trunks?

a. Upgrade to VTP version 3 for advanced feature set support.
b. Enable VTP pruning on the VTP server.
c. Manually prune default VLAN with switchport trunk allowed vlans remove.
d. Use trunk pruning vlan 1.

A

c. Manually prune default VLAN with switchport trunk allowed vlans remove.

58
Q

What is required for a LAN switch to support 802.1q Q-in-Q encapsulation?

a. Support less than 1500 MTU
b. Support 1504 MTU or higher
c. Support 1522 layer 3 IP and IPX packet
d. Support 1547 MTU only

A

b. Support 1504 MTU or higher

59
Q

Refer to the exhibit. How many bytes are added to each frame as a result of the configuration? (What exhibit???)

a. 4-bytes except the native VLAN
b. 8-bytes except the native VLAN
c. 4-bytes including native VLAN
d. 8-bytes including native VLAN

A

a. 4-bytes except the native VLAN

60
Q

A network engineer configured a fault-tolerance link on Gigabit Ethernet links G0/1, G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 between two switches using Ethernet port-channel. Which action allows interface G0/1 to always actively forward traffic in the port-channel?

a. Configure G0/1 as half duplex and G0/2 as full duplex.
b. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 1.
c. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 65535.
d. LACP traffic goes through G0/4 because it is the highest interface ID.

A

b. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 1.

61
Q

QUESTION 61
Which statement about the use of PAgP link aggregation on a Cisco switch that is running Cisco IOS Software is true?

A. PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable-desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.

B. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-desirable, desirable-desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.

C. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-active, desirable-desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.

D. PAgP modes are off, active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-auto, desirable-desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.

A

A. PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable-desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.

62
Q 
QUESTION 62 Refer to the exhibit. Which EtherChannel negotiation protocol is configured on the interface f0/13 ?f0/15?
A. Link Combination Control Protocol 
B. Port Aggregation Protocol 
C. Port Combination Protocol 
D. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
A

B. Port Aggregation Protocol

63
Q

QUESTION 63 - Refer to the exhibit. Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an EtherChannel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here:
Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance
EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac):
Non-IP: Source MAC address
IPv4: Source MAC address
IPv6: Source IP address
Server_Switch#
However, traffic is still slow. Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug on the switch.

A

C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.

64
Q

QUESTION 64 - A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?

A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but not the duplex for all ports in the bundle.

A

A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.

65
Q

QUESTION 65 - Which statement about using EtherChannel on Cisco IOS switches is true?

A. A switch can support up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 8 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.

B. A switch can support up to 10 compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 1000 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 8 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.

C. A switch can support up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 16 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.

D. A switch can support up to 10 compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 1000 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 10 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.

A

A. A switch can support up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 8 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.

66
Q

QUESTION 66 - Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about switch S1 is true?

A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.

B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.

C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.

D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel interface using an open standard protocol.

A

A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.

67
Q

QUESTION 67 - What happens on a Cisco switch that runs Cisco IOS when an RSTP-configured switch receives 802.1d BPDU?

A. 802.1d does not understand RSTP BPDUs because they are different versions, but when a RSTP switch receives an 802.1d BPDU, it responds with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.

B. 802.1d understands RSTP BPDUs because they are the same version, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it responds with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.

C. 802.1d does not understand RSTP BPDUs because they are different versions, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it does not respond with a 802.1d BPDU.

D. 802.1d understands RSTP BPDUs because they are the same version, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it does not respond with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switchesrun 802.1d to communicate.

A

A. 802.1d does not understand RSTP BPDUs because they are different versions, but when a RSTP switch receives an 802.1d BPDU, it responds with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.

68
Q 
QUESTION 68 - When two MST instances (MST 1 and MST 2) are created on a switch, what is the total number of spanning-tree instances running on the switch?
A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 3 
D. 4
A

C. 3

69
Q

QUESTION 69 - Refer to the exhibit. f1/0 and f1/1 have the same end-to-end path cost to the designated bridge. Which action is needed to modify the Layer 2 spanning-tree network so that traffic for PC1 VLAN from switch SW3 uses switchport f1/1 as a primary port?
A. Modify the spanning-tree port-priority on SW1 f1/1 to 0 and f1/0 to 16.
B. Modify the spanning-tree port-priority on SW1 f1/1 to 16 and f1/0 to 0.
C. Modify the spanning-tree port-priority on SW2 f1/1 to 0 and f1/0 to 16.
D. Modify the spanning-tree port-priority on SW2 f1/1 to 16 and f1/0 to 0.

A

C. Modify the spanning-tree port-priority on SW2 f1/1 to 0 and f1/0 to 16.

70
Q

QUESTION 70 - Refer to the exhibit. Why would the switch be considered as a root bridge?
A. The bridge priority is 1 and all ports are forwarding.
B. The switch priority for VLAN 1 and the macro specifies “This Bridge is the root”.
C. The bridge priority is 128.19 and all ports are forwarding.
D. The switch priority value is zero, it has the lowest priority value for VLAN 1.

A

D. The switch priority value is zero, it has the lowest priority value for VLAN 1.

71
Q

QUESTION 71 - A network engineer is trying to deploy a PC on a network. The engineer observes that when the PC is connected to the network, it takes 30 to 60 seconds for the PC to see any activity on the network interface card. Which Layer 2 enhancement can be used to eliminate this delay?
A. Configure port duplex and speed to auto negotiation.
B. Configure port to duplex full and speed 1000.
C. Configure spanning-tree portfast.
D. Configure no switchport.

A

C. Configure spanning-tree portfast.

72
Q 
QUESTION 72 - Refer to the exhibit. All ports are members of VLAN 10. Considering the default cost of upstream bridges to the root bridge is equal, which option will be the new root port for VLAN 10?
A. interface f0/13 
B. interface f0/14 
C. interface f0/15 
D. interface f0/21
A

D. interface f0/21

73
Q

QUESTION 73 - A network engineer configured an Ethernet switch using these commands.
Switchone(config) # Spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
Which statement about the spanning-tree portfast feature on the switch is true?

A. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port goes through the spanning-tree listening, learning, and forwarding states.

B. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port does not go through the spanning-tree listening, learning, and forwarding states.

C. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port is shut down immediately.

D. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port goes into the spanning- tree inconsistent state.

A

A. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port goes through the spanning-tree listening, learning, and forwarding states.

74
Q

QUESTION 74 - Which statement describes what happens when a port configured with root guard receives a superior BPDU?
A. The port goes into errdisabled state and stops forwarding traffic.
B. The port goes into BPDU-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic.
C. The port goes into loop-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic.
D. The port goes into root-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic.

A

D. The port goes into root-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic.

75
Q

QUESTION 75 - Which option is a benefit of using VSS?
A. reduces cost
B. simplifies configuration
C. provides two independent supervisors with two different control planes
D. removes the need for a First Hop Redundancy Protocol

A

D. removes the need for a First Hop Redundancy Protocol

76
Q

QUESTION 76 - Which statement about restrictions for multichassis LACP is true?
A. It is available only on a Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series chassis.
B. It does not support 1Gb links.
C. Converting a port channel to mLACP can cause a service disruption.
D. It is not available in VSS.

A

C. Converting a port channel to mLACP can cause a service disruption.

77
Q 
QUESTION 77 - What is the maximum number of 10 Gigabit Ethernet connections that can be utilized in an EtherChannel for the virtual switch link?
A. 4 
B. 6 
C. 8 
D. 12
A

C. 8

78
Q

QUESTION 78 - Which statement describes what happens if all VSL connections between the virtual switch members are lost?
A. Both virtual switch members cease to forward traffic.
B. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and both virtual switch members continue to forward traffic independently.
C. The virtual switch members reload.
D. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and only the new active virtual switch continues to forward traffic.

A

D. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and only the new active virtual switch continues to forward traffic.

79
Q

QUESTION 79 - Which statement describes what happens when a switch enters dual active recovery mode?
A. The switch shuts down and waits for the VSL link to be restored before sending traffic.
B. All interfaces are shut down in the formerly active virtual switch member, but the new active virtual switch forwards traffic on all links.
C. The switch continues to forward traffic out all links and enables spanning tree on VSL link and all other links to prevent loops.
D. The VSS detects which system was last in active state and shuts down the other switch.

A

B. All interfaces are shut down in the formerly active virtual switch member, but the new active virtual switch forwards traffic on all links.

80
Q 
QUESTION 80 - Which command globally enables AAA on a device?
A. aaa new-model 
B. aaa authentication 
C. aaa authorization 
D. aaa accounting
A

A. aaa new-model

81
Q 
QUESTION 81 - Which AAA Authorization type includes PPP, SLIP, and ARAP connections?
A. network 
B. IP mobile 
C. EXEC 
D. auth-proxy
A

A. network

82
Q 
QUESTION 82 - Which authentication service is needed to configure 802.1x?
A. RADIUS with EAP Extension 
B. TACACS+ 
C. RADIUS with CoA 
D. RADIUS using VSA
A

A. RADIUS with EAP Extension

83
Q 
QUESTION 83 - **Refer to the exhibit.** Which login credentials are required when connecting to the console port in this output?
A. none required 
B. username cisco with password cisco 
C. no username with password linepass 
D. login authentication default
A

A. none required

84
Q

QUESTION 84 - Refer to the exhibit. When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, local username, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username

A

A. RADIUS server, local username, line password

85
Q

QUESTION 85 - Which type of information does the DHCP snooping binding database contain?
A. untrusted hosts with leased IP addresses
B. trusted hosts with leased IP addresses
C. untrusted hosts with available IP addresses
D. trusted hosts with available IP addresses

A

A. untrusted hosts with leased IP addresses

86
Q 
QUESTION 86 - Which switch feature determines validity based on IP-to-MAC address bindings that are stored in a trusted database?
A. Dynamic ARP Inspection 
B. storm control 
C. VTP pruning
D. DHCP snooping
A

A. Dynamic ARP Inspection

87
Q 
QUESTION 87 - Which command is needed to enable DHCP snooping if a switchport is connected to a DHCP server?
A. ip dhcp snooping trust 
B. ip dhcp snooping 
C. ip dhcp trust 
D. ip dhcp snooping information
A

A. ip dhcp snooping trust

88
Q 
QUESTION 88 - When you configure private VLANs on a switch, which port type connects the switch to the gateway router?
A. promiscuous 
B. community 
C. isolated 
D. trunked
A

A. promiscuous

89
Q 
QUESTION 89 - When you configure a private VLAN, which type of port must you configure the gateway router port as?
A. promiscuous port 
B. isolated port 
C. community port 
D. access port
A

A. promiscuous port

90
Q 
QUESTION 90 - Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol is an IEEE Standard?
A. GLBP 
B. HSRP 
C. VRRP 
D. OSPF
A

C. VRRP

91
Q 
QUESTION 91 - What is the default amount by which the hot standby priority for the router is decremented or incremented when the interface goes down or comes back up?
A. 1 
B. 5 
C. 10 
D. 15
A

C. 10

92
Q 
QUESTION 92 - What is the maximum number of virtual MAC addresses that GLBP allows per group?
A. 2 
B. 4 
C. 6 
D. 8
A

B. 4

93
Q 
QUESTION 93 - Which gateway role is responsible for answering ARP requests for the virtual IP address in GLBP?
A. active virtual forwarder 
B. active virtual router 
C. active virtual gateway 
D. designated router
A

C. active virtual gateway

94
Q 
QUESTION 94 - Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual router?
A. virtual router master 
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active 
D. virtual router standby
A

A. virtual router master

95
Q 
QUESTION 95 - Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100 
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1 
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5 
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
A

A. standby 1 track 100

96
Q 
QUESTION 96 - Which command configures an HSRP group to become a slave of another HSRP group?
A. standby slave 
B. standby group track 
C. standby follow 
D. standby group backup
A

C. standby follow

97
Q

QUESTION 97 - Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes the reason for this message in a GLBP configuration?
A. Unavailable GLBP active forwarder
B. Incorrect GLBP IP address
C. HSRP configured on same interface as GLBP
D. Layer 2 loop

A

D. Layer 2 loop

98
Q 
QUESTION 126 - What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?
A. 4 
B. 5 
C. 8 
D. 9 
E. 10 
F. 13
A

D. 9

99
Q 
QUESTION 127 - A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added. 
B. stack ID 
C. IP address 
D. VLAN information 
E. VTP information
A

A. No configuration must be added.

100
Q 
QUESTION 128 - What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
A. 0 
B. 25 
C. 50 
D. 75 
E. 100
A

C. 50

101
Q

QUESTION 129 - Refer to the exhibit. Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?
A. switch1 channel-group 1 mode active switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto
B. switch1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switch2 channel-group 1 mode passive
C. switch1 channel-group 1 mode on switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto
D. switch1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto

A

D. switch1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto

102
Q

QUESTION 130 - Refer to the exhibit. How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?
A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.

A

C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.

103
Q

QUESTION 131 - Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination

A

B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination

104
Q

QUESTION 132 - After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.

A

A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.

105
Q 
QUESTION 133 - Which feature must be enabled to eliminate the broadcasting of all unknown traffic to switches that are not participating in the specific VLAN?
A. VTP pruning 
B. port-security 
C. storm control 
D. bpdguard
A

A. VTP pruning

106
Q

QUESTION 134 - Refer to the exhibit. The users in an engineering department that connect to the same access switch cannot access the network. The network engineer found that the engineering VLAN is missing from the database. Which action resolves this problem?
A. Disable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.
B. Update the VTP revision number.
C. Change VTP mode to server and enable 802.1q.
D. Enable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.

A

C. Change VTP mode to server and enable 802.1q.

107
Q

QUESTION 135 - A network engineer wants to ensure Layer 2 isolation of customer traffic using a private VLAN. Which configuration must be made before the private VLAN is configured?
A. Disable VTP and manually assign VLANs.
B. Ensure all switches are configured as VTP server mode.
C. Configure VTP Transparent Mode.
D. Enable VTP version 3.

A

C. Configure VTP Transparent Mode.

108
Q

QUESTION 136 - Refer to the exhibit. The network switches for two companies have been connected and manually configured for the required VLANs, but users in company A are not able to access network resources in company B when DTP is enabled. Which action resolves this problem?
A. Delete vlan.dat and ensure that the switch with lowest MAC address is the VTP server.
B. Disable DTP and document the VTP domain mismatch.
C. Manually force trunking with switchport mode trunk on both switches.
D. Enable the company B switch with the vtp mode server command.

A

C. Manually force trunking with switchport mode trunk on both switches.

109
Q

QUESTION 137 - A network engineer must implement Ethernet links that are capable of transporting frames and IP traffic for different broadcast domains that are mutually isolated. Consider that this is a multivendor environment. Which Cisco IOS switching feature can be used to achieve the task?
A. PPP encapsulation with a virtual template
B. Link Aggregation Protocol at the access layer
C. dot1q VLAN trunking
D. Inter-Switch Link

A

C. dot1q VLAN trunking

110
Q

QUESTION 138 - Which statement about using native VLANs to carry untagged frames is true?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2 carries native VLAN information, but version 1 does not.
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 carries native VLAN information, but version 2 does not.
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 and version 2 carry native VLAN information.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 3 carries native VLAN information, but versions 1 and 2 do not.

A

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2 carries native VLAN information, but version 1 does not.

111
Q

QUESTION 139 - Refer to the exhibit. A multilayer switch has been configured to send and receive encapsulated and tagged frames. VLAN 2013 on the multilayer switch is configured as the native VLAN. Which option is the cause of the spanning-tree error?
A. VLAN spanning-tree in SW-2 is configured.
B. spanning-tree bpdu-filter is enabled.
C. 802.1q trunks are on both sides, both with native VLAN mismatch.
D. VLAN ID 1 should not be used for management traffic because its unsafe.

A

C. 802.1q trunks are on both sides, both with native VLAN mismatch.

112
Q 
QUESTION 140 - A network engineer must improve bandwidth and resource utilization on the switches by stopping the inefficient flooding of frames on trunk ports where the frames are not needed. Which Cisco IOS feature can be used to achieve this task?
A. VTP pruning 
B. access list 
C. switchport trunk allowed VLAN 
D. VLAN access-map
A

C. switchport trunk allowed VLAN

113
Q

QUESTION 141 - Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly even though the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load- balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.

A

B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly even though the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.

114
Q

QUESTION 142 - A network engineer tries to configure storm control on an EtherChannel bundle. What is the result of the configuration?
A. The storm control settings will appear on the EtherChannel, but not on the associated physical ports.
B. The configuration will be rejected because storm control is not supported for EtherChannel.
C. The storm control configuration will be accepted, but will only be present on the physical interfaces.
D. The settings will be applied to the EtherChannel bundle and all associated physical interfaces.

A

D. The settings will be applied to the EtherChannel bundle and all associated physical interfaces.

115
Q

QUESTION 143 - A Cisco Catalyst switch that is prone to reboots continues to rebuild the DHCP snooping database. What is the solution to avoid the snooping database from being rebuilt after every device reboot?
A. A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.
B. Enable DHCP snooping for all VLANs that are associated with the switch.
C. Disable Option 82 for DHCP data insertion.
D. Use IP Source Guard to protect the DHCP binding table entries from being lost upon rebooting.
E. Apply ip dhcp snooping trust on all interfaces with dynamic addresses.

A

A. A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.

116
Q 
QUESTION 144 - Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to?
A. authorization 
B. authentication 
C. accounting 
D. auditing
A

A. authorization

117
Q

QUESTION 145 - Which command creates a login authentication method named “login” that will primarily use RADIUS and fail over to the local user database?
A. (config)# aaa authentication login default radius local
B. (config)# aaa authentication login login radius local
C. (config)# aaa authentication login default local radius
D. (config)# aaa authentication login radius local

A

B. (config)# aaa authentication login login radius local

118
Q

QUESTION 146 - What is the function of NSF?
A. forward traffic simultaneously using both supervisors
B. forward traffic based on Cisco Express Forwarding
C. provide automatic failover to back up supervisor in VSS mode
D. provide nonstop forwarding in the event of failure of one of the member supervisors

A

D. provide nonstop forwarding in the event of failure of one of the member supervisors

119
Q 
QUESTION 147 - Which configuration command ties the router hot standby priority to the availability of its interfaces?
A. standby group 
B. standby priority 
C. backup interface 
D. standby track
A

D. standby track

120
Q 
QUESTION 148 - What is the default HSRP priority?
A. 50 
B. 100 
C. 120 
D. 1024
A

B. 100

121
Q

QUESTION 149 - A server with a statically assigned IP address is attached to a switch that is provisioned for DHCP snooping. For more protection against malicious attacks, the network team is considering enabling dynamic ARP inspection alongside DHCP snooping. Which solution ensures that the server maintains network reachability in the future?
A. Disable DHCP snooping information option.
B. Configure a static DHCP snooping binding entry on the switch.
C. Trust the interface that is connected to the server with the ip dhcp snooping trust command.
D. Verify the source MAC address of all untrusted interfaces with ip dhcp snooping verify mac-address command.

A

B. Configure a static DHCP snooping binding entry on the switch.

122
Q

QUESTION 150 - DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard have been configured on a switch that connects to several client workstations. The IP address of one of the workstations does not match any entries found in the DHCP binding database. Which statement describes the outcome of this scenario?
A. Packets from the workstation will be rate limited according to the default values set on the switch.
B. The interface that is connected to the workstation in question will be put into the errdisabled state.
C. Traffic will pass accordingly after the new IP address is populated into the binding database.
D. The packets originating from the workstation are assumed to be spoofed and will be discarded.

A

D. The packets originating from the workstation are assumed to be spoofed and will be discarded.

123
Q 
QUESTION 151- Which technique allows specific VLANs to be strictly permitted by the administrator?
A. VTP pruning 
B. transparent bridging 
C. trunk-allowed VLANs 
D. VLAN access-list 
E. L2P tunneling
A

C. trunk-allowed VLANs

124
Q

QUESTION 152 - For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch. Which two actions can prevent interface trunking? (Choose two.)
A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.
B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis.
C. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter.
D. Enable switchport block on access ports.

A

A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.

B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis.

125
Q 
QUESTION 153 - Which two protocols can be automatically negotiated between switches for trunking? (Choose two.)
A. PPP 
B. DTP 
C. ISL 
D. HDLC 
E. DLCI

F. DOT1Q

A

C. ISL

F. DOT1Q

126
Q

QUESTION 154 - A network is running VTPv2. After verifying all VTP settings, the network engineer notices that the new switch is not receiving the list of VLANs from the server. Which action resolves this problem?
A. Reload the new switch.
B. Restart the VTP process on the new switch.
C. Reload the VTP server.
D. Verify connected trunk ports.

A

D. Verify connected trunk ports.

127
Q

QUESTION 155 - After configuring new data VLANs 1020 through 1030 on the VTP server, a network engineer notices that none of the VTP clients are receiving the updates. What is the problem?
A. The VTP server must be reloaded.
B. The VTP version number must be set to version 3.
C. After each update to the VTP server, it takes up to 4 hours propagate.
D. VTP must be stopped and restarted on the server.
E. Another switch in the domain has a higher revision number than the server.

A

B. The VTP version number must be set to version 3.

128
Q 
NEW QUESTION 194 - When SDM templates are configured, which action must be performed for the configuration to take effect?
A. reload 
B. shutdown 
C. write memory 
D. backup config
A

A. reload

129
Q

NEW QUESTION 195 - Which statement about the MAC address sticky entries in the switch when the copy run start command is entered is true?
A. A sticky MAC address is retained when the switch reboots.
B. A sticky MAC address can be a unicast or multicast address.
C. A sticky MAC address is lost when the switch reboots.
D. A sticky MAC address ages out of the MAC address table after 600 seconds.

A

A. A sticky MAC address is retained when the switch reboots.

130
Q 
NEW QUESTION 196 - Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering 
B. BackboneFast 
C. EtherChannel 
D. BPDU guard
A

D. BPDU guard

131
Q 
NEW QUESTION 197 - Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration ensures that the Cisco Discovery Protocol packet update frequency sent from DSW1 to ALS1 is half of the default value?
A. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 90 
B. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 60 
C. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 30 
D. DSW1(config)#cdp holdtime 90 
E. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 30 
F. DSW1(config-if)#cdp timer 60
A

C. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 30

132
Q

NEW QUESTION 198 - Interfaces are assigned to a VLAN, and then the VLAN is deleted. Which state are these interfaces in after the VLAN is deleted?
A. They remain up, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
B. They go down until they are reassigned to a VLAN.
C. They go down, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
D. They remain up, but they are reassigned to the native VLAN.

A

B. They go down until they are reassigned to a VLAN.

133
Q 
NEW QUESTION 199 - Which feature is automatically configured when an administrator enables a voice VLAN?
A. 802.1Q trunking 
B. PortFast 
C. QoS 
D. private VLANs
A

B. PortFast

134
Q

NEW QUESTION 200 - Which statement describes one major issue that VTP can cause in an enterprise network when a new switch is introduced in the network in VTP mode server?
A. It can cause network access ports to go into err-disabled state.
B. It can cause a network-wide VLAN configuration change if the revision number on the new switch is higher.
C. It can cause a network-wide VLAN configuration change if the revision number on the new switch is lower.
D. It can cause routing loops.

A

B. It can cause a network-wide VLAN configuration change if the revision number on the new switch is higher.

My CCNP Switching 300-115 (3 decks)

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