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AIR WARFARE TEST > TEST QUESTIONS > Flashcards

TEST QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

When was the EAWS program established?

A

1980

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2
Q

When did it become mandatory for all Sailors assigned and serving on an eligible command or platform? (EAWS)

A

August 2010

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3
Q

What is the SORM used for?

A

to issue policy governing USS Abraham Lincoln organization, regulations, and administrative procedures

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4
Q

What are the three objectives of first aid?

A

to prevent further injury, infection, and loss of life

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5
Q

How many methods are there to control bleeding?

A

4

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6
Q

What are the four methods to control bleeding?

A

-direct pressure
-elevation
-pressure points
tourniquets (last resort)

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7
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

A

Heart is damaged and unable to supply sufficient blood to body (heart attack or CHF)

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8
Q

How many types of shock are there and what are they?

A

5
-Septic
-Anaphylactic
-Cardiogenic
-Hypovolemic
-Neurogenic

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9
Q

What does CPR stand for?

A

cardio pulmonary resuscitation

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10
Q

What does AED stand for?

A

Automated external defibrillator

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11
Q

What is the ratio of compressions to breaths for CPR?

A

30 compressions and 2 breaths

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12
Q

What constitutes a Class C Mishap?

A
  • Total cost reportable material or property damage is 50K or more but less than 500k
    -Non fatal injury causes any loss of time beyond the day/shift on which it occurred
    -non-fatal illness or disease that cause loss of time from work/disability at any time. Reporting purposes mishaps are hose which result in 5 or more lost work days beyond the date of the injury/illness
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13
Q

How many types of chemical agents are there and what are they?

A

4
-Nerve
-Blister
-Choking
-Blood

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14
Q

What does MOPP stand for?

A

Mission oriented protective posture

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15
Q

What does the fire triangle include?

A

Heat, fuel, oxygen

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16
Q

What is HALON 1211?

A

Bromochlorodifluoromethane
-used for class B and C fires

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17
Q

Who wears white jerseys?

A

-Safety
-Air transport officer
-LSO
-Squadron plane inspector
-Medical

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18
Q

Who wears a white jersey with no cranial?

A

Landing signal officer (LSO)

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19
Q

What is the MO?

A

Maintenance Officer
-department head of the maintenance department

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20
Q

What is the AMO?

A

Aircraft Maintenance Officer
-Aircraft maintenance officer/assistant maintenance officer

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21
Q

How long is a turnaround good for?

A

24 hours and no flight occurs during this period, no maintenance other than servicing

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22
Q

When was NATOPS established by the Navy?

A

1961

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23
Q

What was the final major standardization program and when was it initiated?

A

NATOPS 1961

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24
Q

How many men were enrolled in the Ground Scholl Program at MIT?

A

14

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25
Q

What was the name and designation of the Navy’s first carrier and when was it commissioned?

A

USS Langley (CV-1)
20 Mar 1922

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26
Q

What was the significance of the battle of midway?

A

Turning point of the pacific theater, all four Japanese carriers sank

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27
Q

What 3 US carriers were at the Battle of Midway?

A

Hornet, Enterprise, and Yorktown

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28
Q

The USS Abraham Lincoln was the __ aircraft carrier in the Nimitz Class at an initial cost of ____

A

-5th carrier
-3.5 billion

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29
Q

When was the Lincoln’s keel laid?

A

3NOV1984

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30
Q

When was the Lincoln christened and launched?

A

13FEB1988

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31
Q

Who was the USS Abraham Lincoln’s first CO and when was the Lincoln commissioned?

A

CAPT William B. Hayden
-11NOV1989

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32
Q

What are some things that the Abraham Lincoln’s namesake is known for?

A
  • 16th president
  • known as the president who saved the union from dissolution during the civil war
  • Issued the Emancipation Proclamation
  • Issued the Gettysburg Address
    -First president to be assassinated
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33
Q

How many law of motion are there?

A

3

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34
Q

What is a JCN?

A

9 character alphanumeric code that is the basis for data collection

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35
Q

How many basic core capabilities are there?

A

6

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36
Q

Who is the Air Officer (air boss)?

A

CDR Porter

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37
Q

During flight operations how many stations are manned in PRI-FLY?

A

9

38
Q

What are the 9 manned stations of PRI-FLY?

A

-Air boss
-Mini boss
-Primary Flight control supervisor
-land/launch record keeper
-ISIS computer operator
-forward spotter
-aft spotter
-recovery equipment controller
-FLOLS controller

39
Q

Who wears a white jersey and no cranial?

A

Landing Signal Officer (LSO)

40
Q

What is the principal source of energy and is supplied to the catapults by the ship’s reactor?

A

Steam

41
Q

How many stations are manned in Hangar Deck Control?

A

3

42
Q

How are the Aircraft Elevator Deck edges identified?

A

6 inch by 12 inch red-and-yellow line

43
Q

What does CATCC stand for?

A

Carrier Air Traffic Control Center

44
Q

What does CDC stand for?

A

Combat Direction Center

45
Q

How many positions are manned in AirOps during flight operations?

A

5

46
Q

What are the conditions for CASE II flight ops?

A

cloudy day ceiling and visibility in the carrier control zone no lower than 1000ft and 5 NM respectively

47
Q

What is the SPN 41 referred to as?

A

ICLS (Instrument Carrier Landing System) or “Bulls Eye”

48
Q

What is the SPN 46 referred to as?

A

-PALS (precision approach landing system)
-Easy rider
-Needles

49
Q

What does the SPN 46 do?

A

-Enables carrier pilots to perform instrument approaches under either manual or automatic control
-system consists of a precision tracking radar coupled to a computer and data link that provides continuous azimuth and elevation information to aircraft and shipboard controllers

50
Q

What does EMCON stand for?

A

Emissions Control

51
Q

What is EMCON used for?

A

-Used for electronic system to deny information to the enemy for determining the location of the carrier
-when imposed, radio transmissions between pilots and between pilots and carrier control agencies are held to minimum necessary for safety of flight

52
Q

What is the 99 transmission?

A

broadcast of information of collective information of collective interest to all aircraft on a particular radio frequency

53
Q

What is Ball?

A

pilot report indicating that the visual landing aid is in sight

54
Q

What is BRC?

A

Base recovery course
-ships magnetic heading during flight operations

55
Q

What is BINGO?

A
  • order to proceed and land at the field specified, utilizing a bingo profile
  • aircraft is considered to be in an emergency/fuel critical situation
    -bearing, distance, and destination shall be provided
56
Q

What is CHARLIE?

A

-signal for aircraft to land aboard the ship
-number suffix indicates time delay before landing

57
Q

What is CLARA?

A

Pilot transmission indicating pilot does not have the ball in site

58
Q

What is FOX CORPEN?

A

Ships true heading during flight operations

59
Q

What is Hook Skip?

A

When an aircraft’s hook skips over the arresting gear cables, resulting in a bolter

60
Q

What is KILO report?

A

pilot coded report indicating aircraft mission readiness

61
Q

What is Mother?

A

term referring to the ship

62
Q

What is NORDO?

A

No radio: aircraft unable to transmit by radio

63
Q

What is Parrot?

A

term used in pilot/controller communications to refer to aircrafts transponder

64
Q

What is Pigeons?

A

Magnetic bearing and distance to the carrier, divert field or other geographical position from aircraft’s position

65
Q

What is port holding pattern?

A

-case 1 jet and turbo prop aircraft holding pattern is a left hand, 5-mile maximum pattern tangent to the BRC or expected BRC w/ the ship in a 3 o’clock position of holding pattern
-altitude is assigned via landing orders as established in ship/air wing doctrine

66
Q

What is Red light?

A

local time at which a helicopter will no longer be SAR capable/has approx 30 minutes of flight time remaining

67
Q

What is retro report?

A

Report give to the COD aircraft by marshal providing off load info on passengers, mail, cargo, or any pertinent info

68
Q

What is Spin?

A

-Signal given to one or more aircraft indicating a departure and reentry into the break
-command “spin” may be issued by either the air officer or flight leader

69
Q

What is Star Board Holding Pattern?

A

-Right-handed racetrack pattern between 045 and 135- relative to the BRC for COD aircraft and 045 and 100 relative to the BRC for helicopters
-COD aircraft 500ft, 100ft if approved by CV primary, and helicopters 300ft or below

70
Q

What is sweet?

A

term used in Pilot/controller communications indicating that aircraft or shipboard systems/equipment are operative (sweet tanker, sweet father, sweet bullseye)

71
Q

What is Tally-ho?

A

pilot report indicating a target (aircraft/ship) has been visually acquired

72
Q

What is Yo-Yo?

A

Aircraft that launch w/ one even and recover w/ the previous event

73
Q

Who is the Department Head of AIMD?

A

AIMD Maintenance Officer or the MO (CDR Hutton)

74
Q

What work centers are in IM-2?

A
  • Airframes (A/F)
  • Power plants (P/P)
  • Para Loft (LOFT)
75
Q

What departments/rates work in the METCAL Shop?

A

-Departments
+Reactor
+Engineering
+Air
-Rates
+MM’s
+EM’s
+AB’s
+ET’s
+AT’s

76
Q

What is a JCN?

A

9 or 11 digit alphanumeric number assigned to a particular maintenance action

77
Q

What is the Weapons Department Head referred to as?

A

Gun Boss
(CDR Stanley)

78
Q

How many .50 cal mounts does the ship have?

A

10

79
Q

How are the .50 cal mounts numbered?

A

50-59

80
Q

What does a light blue band on ammunition mean?

A

Practice or Dummy ammo

81
Q

What is the MK 15 Phalanx also known as?

A

CIWS

82
Q

How many NSSMS do we have?

A

2

83
Q

How many directors do each NSSMS have?

A

2 each (4 total)

84
Q

What radar is long range 2-D, Secondary Air search W/ long range of 500 yards to 250 nautical miles?

A

AN/SPS-49

85
Q

What radar is long range 3-D, primary air search w/ range of 5,000 yards to 220 nautical miles?

A

AN/SPS-48

86
Q

What radar is know as the “bullseye”?

A

AN/SPN-41

87
Q

What do the HSM squadrons fly?

A

MH-60R

88
Q

What do the HSC squadrons fly?

A

MH-60S

89
Q

What manual prescribes general information/procedures for operation/support of aircraft onboard?

A

NAVAIR 00-80T-105

90
Q
A

AIR WARFARE TEST (1 decks)

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