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Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

When two aircraft’s are converging at approx the same altitude

A

The aircraft that has the other on the right shall give way

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2
Q

Two aircraft’s are approaching head on or approx so and there is a danger of collision each pilot shall

A

Alter heading to the right

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3
Q

When converging at approx the same altitude what type of aircraft shall give way

A

Aeroplanes towing gliders shall give way to balloons

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4
Q

When two power driver heavier than air aircraft are converging at approx the same altitude who is right of way

A

The one on the right has right of way

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5
Q

When overtaking an aircraft at your 12 o’clock position at your altitude you should

A

Alter heading to the right

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6
Q

Two aircraft’s are on approach to land the aircraft at the higher altitude shall

A

Give way

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7
Q

Who has priority when an aircraft converging at aprox the same altitude ?

A

An aircraft towing objects has the right of way over all power driver heavier than air aircraft’s

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8
Q

A series of flashing green lights at an aircraft means

A

Return for landing (in flight) cleared to taxi (on ground)

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9
Q

A steady red light directed at an aircraft means

A

Give way to other aircraft (in flight), stop (on ground)

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10
Q

A series of red flashes directed at an aircraft means

A

Airport unsafe do not land (in flight), taxi clear of landing area in use (on ground)

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11
Q

Blinking runway lights advices shucked and pedestrians

A

To vacate the runways immediately

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12
Q

Chrome yellow and black stripes painted on pylons or on the roof of a building identifies

A

A fur farm

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13
Q

A steady green light directed at an aircraft means

A

Cleaned to land, cleared for takeoff

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14
Q

Pilots should not overfly reindeer or caribou at an altitude of less than

A

2000 ft AGL

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15
Q

A flashing white light directed at an aircraft on the maneuvering area of an airport means

A

Return to starting point in runway

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16
Q

Pilot is cleared to taxi to runway in without hold short clearance, crossing one runway the pilot should

A

Taxi to the runway in use but further clearance is required to cross the other runway

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17
Q

How should you cancel a distress message

A

The call sign of the air craft with mayday all stations, mayday all stations, mayday all stations

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18
Q

When a clearance for immediate takeoff is issued

A

The pilot should taxi onto the runway and take off in one continuous movement

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19
Q

The APRX 2)3! Contained in a new or replacing Norma mean the Norma is valid

A

Until a cancelling NOTAM is issued

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20
Q

Whenever practical pilots operating VFR in uncontrolled airspace should continuously monitor

A

126.7

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21
Q

An initial call to Timmins FSS should be

A

TIMMIN RADIO THIS IS

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22
Q

Pilots broadcasting on an MF where no ground stations is in operation should direct their transmissions to

A

Aero dome traffic

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23
Q

The radiotelephone urgency signal to indicate a condition concerning the saftey of an aircraft which does not require immediate assistance is

A

PAN PAN PAN

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24
Q

En route aircraft should, whenever possible, maintain a listening watch for aircraft in distress on

A

121.5 on the receiver

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25
Q

A departing flight will normally remains on tower frequency until

A

Clear of the control zone

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26
Q

Airport runways are assigned number based on what bearings

A

Magnetic (except for northern domestic airspace which is true)

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27
Q

In the case of parallel runways, how do you distinguish them?

A

The letter R for right and letter L for left. Assigned as per direction of approach

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28
Q

How far back should an aircraft hold short

A

200 ft

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29
Q

How to indicate a runway is not in use

A

Large yellow white cross at each end of the runway

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30
Q

How many wind indicators will a aerodrome have

A

2 (1 at each end of the runway if runway >4000 ft)
Or
1 (midway if runway <4000 ft)

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31
Q

At night how are landing and take off runways marked

A

Two parallel lines of white lights that are visible at least 2 miles in all directions

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32
Q

What must be present at the end of a runway operating at night

A

A fixed white light or strobe light

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33
Q

How to indicate runway threshold at night

A

Green lights which are red from the back

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34
Q

How to mark taxiways at night

A

Blue lights

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35
Q

Name and identify all parts of a circuit pattern

A

Crosswind, downwind , base leg, final, upwind

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36
Q

Where no Max is in use how can a pilot approach the traffic circuit

A

From the upwind side side of the runway and enter crosswind at circuit height

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37
Q

Where and is in use how to join traffic circuit

A

Approach straight in, 45 dev to downwind leg and join on bar or final

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38
Q

How should an airplane cross over corcuit pattern in order to join

A

At least 500 ft above circuit height

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39
Q

What is circuit height

A

1000 ft above elevation level (elevation 622 ft at Windsor)

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40
Q

When should you make your first transmission on an MF

A

5 mins before entering zone, state intentions, position, altitude and estimated time of landing

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41
Q

When can a NORDO aircraft enter an MF maneuvering area of an airport

A

A no radio aircraft can operate when prior notice of intentions has been given to FSS or CARS

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42
Q

What is the usual designated ATF when a ground station is present and when one is not

A

Aerodrome traffic frequency for ground stations are UNICOM 122.8 and for no ground station it is 123.2

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43
Q

What is the specified area for ATF

A

Aerodrome traffic frequency is 5 NM and 3000 ft AAE (above aerodrome elevation)

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44
Q

Cleared to circuit allows you to do what

A

Join the circuit on the downwind leg at circuit height

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45
Q

What happens if you are not given clearance to land

A

Request landing time form ATC again and if no clearance is given you must pull up and go around

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46
Q

An airport is

A

A certified aerodrome

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47
Q

No person shall operate any vehicle on any part of an uncontrolled airport used for the movement of aircraft except in accordance with permission form

A

The operator of the airport

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48
Q

The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered d

A

09

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49
Q

Expect for take off and landing an aircraft shall not be flown over an aerodrome at a height of less than

A

2000 ft AGL

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50
Q

Runways and taxiways or portions thereof that are closed to aircraft are marked by

A

A white or yellow X

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51
Q

A dry transport Canada standard wind direction indicator when horizontal indicates a wind speed of at least

A

15kt

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52
Q

The maneuvering area of an airport the area

A

Used for taxiing, taking off and landing

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53
Q

Where taxiways holding positions have not been established, aircraft waitin to enter an entice runway should normally hold

A

200 ft from the edge of the runway

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54
Q

No person shall fly an aircraft for more than how long at which altitude unless their is an oxygen mask and supply of oxygen to each passenger and flight crew member

A

30 mins at 10,000-13,000 ft

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55
Q

CARs define infant passenger as

A

Under 2 years okd

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56
Q

The international VHF Emergency Frequecy is

A

121.5

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57
Q

Which flight instruments and equipment aware required on an power driver aircraft for day VFR in a controlled airspace

A

A direction indicating system, magnetic compass, and airspeed indicator, a sensitive altimeter and a time piece

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58
Q

What documents are necessary onboard an aircraft

A

Certificate of airworthiness/ flight permit, certificate of registration, crew licence, radio operators licence, aircraft journey logbook (unless otherwise stated), proof of liability insurance

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59
Q

What saftey equipment is required for any small aircraft landing or taking off on water for each passenger

A

Am approved life preserver

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60
Q

When PIC instructs seatbelts fastened and infant passenger

A

Must be held tightly in the arms of an adult passenger whose seatbelt is fastened

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61
Q

Private aeroplanes flying VFR 25 NM or more from an aerodrome or operating base may require

A

Specified emergency supplies be carried

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62
Q

No pilot shall take off or one from an aerodrome unless

A

The aerodrome is lighted as prescribed by the minister

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63
Q

Unless oxygen and oxygen masks are available no person shall fly unpressurized aircraft above

A

13,000 ft

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64
Q

A serviceable landing light is required equipment on aircraft

A

Carrying passengers at night

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65
Q

A student pilot on a VFR flight has been given a radar vector by ATC ahead at a lower altitude is a skid overcast cloud condition the pilot should

A

Alter heading as necessary to remain VFR and advise ATC

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66
Q

Before setting out in any VFR flight a pilot is required Rob

A

Be familiar with all available info appropriate to the flight

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67
Q

An aircraft is cleared to the circuit where a left hand circuit is in effect without further approval from ATC a right turn may be made to

A

Join crosswind or partial right turn to join the downwind leg

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68
Q

The holder of a student pilot permit maubfor the sole purpose of the holder own flight training act as PIC of an aircraft

A

By day only

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69
Q

When an arriving aircraft is cleared to the circuit the pilot should interpret this to Emma join the circuit

A

In the downwind leg

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70
Q

The controller suggest a takeoff from a runway intersection, the pilot must judge

A

The remaining runway to be sufficient for takeoff

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71
Q

A pilot requests an intersection take off froM ATC IF AUTHORIZED

A

The pilot must be responsible for ensuring the remaining runway length is sufficient for takeoff

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72
Q

Unless ATC instructs, pilots operating VFR shall select transponder code 1200 when flying at or below ____ and code ____ when flying above that altitude

A

12,500 ASL and 1400 above

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73
Q

Any judgements about avoid obstacles like radio towers is the responsibility of

A

The pilot

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74
Q

A pilot has been advices by ATC to maintain a specific heading that in the pilots opinion with conflict with another aircraft the pilot should

A

After heading to avoid the other aircraft and advice ATC

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75
Q

A NORDO aircraft crosses an airport for the purpose of obtaining landing info it should maintain

A

500 feet above circuit height (nordo is no radio)

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76
Q

When instructed to continue approach and no landing clearance has been given, what should the pilot do

A

Request clearance and if none is given pull up and around into circuit again

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77
Q

When the ceiling is 1000 overcast and visibility 3 miles the circuit height should be

A

500 ft below the cloud base

78
Q

What is usual circuit height?

A

1000 Above aerodrome elevation

79
Q

In what circumstances would an aircraft not be able to fly 1000 ft aae circuits?

A

Weather conditions (ceiling ), a straight in clearance, special NOTAM

80
Q

When should a pilot activate ‘ident’ feature

A

I’m not when instructed to do so by ATC

81
Q

If cleared for take off immediately following a low approach and overshoot of a large aircraft the pilot should

A

Decline clearance and inform ATC OF THE REASON

82
Q

If a pilot is cleared to land and concerned about high crosswind component, the pilot should

A

Overshoot and request an into wind runway

83
Q

Terminal airspace dimensions and VHF sector frequencies for certain high density traffic airports in Canada are shown

A

In the VFR terminal Area chart and the Canadian flight supplement

84
Q

Pilots should not donate blood

A

48 hours before flying

85
Q

After receieving an immunization a pilot

A

If feeling unwell should wait 24 hours before flying

86
Q

When can a pregnant pilot no longer fly

A

At 30 weeks of the pregnancy

87
Q

A pilot should wait ____ hours after having anesthesia to fly

A

24 hours

88
Q

A pilot who has donated blood should not fly for

A

48 hours

89
Q

A pilot who has had local anesthetic should not act as a flight crew member during the next

A

24 hours

90
Q

Small amounts of alcohol affect tolerance to hypoxia (lack of sufficient oxygen) how does this tolerance change during a flight?

A

Deteriorates with increase of altitude

91
Q

Crew meme bees who require decompression stops while scuba diving should not fly for

A

24 hours

92
Q

How to treat hyperventilation below 8,000 ft

A

Slow the breathing rate to below 12 times per minute

93
Q

What drugs are safe to consume when flying

A

None except by advice if aviation medical examiner

94
Q

How can you clear ears during a descent

A

Opening mouth widely or yawning, swallowing, a valsalva maneuver

95
Q

Any pilot who has had general anesthetic should not fly until

A

Advised to by a doctor

96
Q

Medical certificat for those ages below 40 is valid for

A

60 months

97
Q

Medical certificate for those aged above 40 is valid for

A

24 months

98
Q

How much fuel an oil is required on a helicopter

A

To fly to aerodrome (with any foreseen delays) plus 20 mins at normal cruising speed

99
Q

Where a VFR has pan has been filed an arrival report must by files by the pilot by doing what?

A

Advising ATS unit

100
Q

After landing from a VFR flight for which a flight plan has been filed the pilot shall report to ATS by when?

A

Within 60 minutes (or by search and rescue time indicated on flight plan)

101
Q

With regards to a flight itinerary, the responsible person is someone who

A

Has agreed to report the aircraft over due

102
Q

How is an intermediate stop indicated in the flight plan form for a VFR flight

A

By repeating the name of the intermediate stop and it’s duration in the route column

103
Q

How much fuels should any propeller driver aeroplane have

A

Enough for flight including any foreseeable delays plus enough to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

104
Q

What is in the total elapsed time calculated

A

Time to destination plus time at any intermediate stops

105
Q

If a flight plan is not filed, a flight itinerary must be filed

A

For flight proceeding 25 NM or more from the point of origin

106
Q

When no search and rescue time is distinguished in a flight itinerary, when shall the person report to the responsible person

A

As soon as practicable after landing but no later than 24 hours after the last reported ETA

107
Q

If there is a flight plan deviation ATC shall be notified when?

A

As soon as possible

108
Q

If all or part of ATC clearance is unacceptable, a pilot should

A

Refuse the clearance and inform ATC of the pilots intentions

109
Q

An act clearance requires what

A

Compliance when accepted by PIC

110
Q

An ATC clearance or instruction is predicted on know traffic only therefore when a pilot is proceeding in accordance with a clearance or instruction

A

The pilot is not received of the responsibility for traffic avoidance

111
Q

After accepting a clearance and subsequently finding it cannot he complied with a pilot should

A

Take immediate action required and advise ATC as soon as possible

112
Q

And ATC instruction must be

A

Complied with when received by the pilot providing the safety of the aircraft is not jeopardized

113
Q

A pilot after accepting clearance and finding that all or part of the clearance cannot be complied with should

A

Comply as best as possible under the circumstances and advice ATC as soon as possible

114
Q

What is the ground idle danger area and take of thrust danger area for a jumbo jet

A

600ft, 1600ft

115
Q

What is the ground idle danger area and take off thrust danger area for a medium jet

A

450ft, 1200ft

116
Q

What is the ground idle danger area and take off thrust danger area for an executive jet

A

200ft, 500ft

117
Q

What is clean configuration?

A

Flaps extended, slats extended, landing gear retracted, speed brakes retracted

118
Q

What is jet wash?

A

High speed steam of air expelled from the rear of a jet engine

119
Q

Wing tip vortices usually settle where

A

Below and behind the aircrfat

120
Q

Lateral movement of Wing tip vortices may do what ?

A

May place a vortex core over a parallel runway (even in no wind)

121
Q

What can happen to wing tip vortex in a light cross wind

A

One vortex can remain stationary over the ground for some time

122
Q

The pilot of a light aircraft in final approac behind a heavier aircraft should plan the approach to land

A

Beyond the touchdown point of the other aircraft

123
Q

What kind of motion do wing tip vortices have

A

Circular and downward

124
Q

Can wind tip vortices be carried by ambiant wind

A

Yes

125
Q

What effect would a light cross wind have in the wing tip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that had just taken off?

A

A light cross wind could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for some time

126
Q

Wake turbulence is produced by

A

All fixed and rotary wing aircraft’s

127
Q

To avoid wake turbulence if a larger plane taking off before a smaller plane, the pilot of the smaller airplane lane should

A

Become airborn before the rotation of the large aircraft and stage above its departure path or request a turn in order to avoid the departure path

128
Q

How long after a plane takes off will wing tip vortices remain on the runway

A

Two minutes or more

129
Q

Are the vortices produced by helicopter and aeroplanes of the same weight similar

A

Yes

130
Q

When are wing tip vortices most severe

A

Following take off

131
Q

Wake turbulence begins

A

With rotation

132
Q

For what kind of plane and configuration is wake turbulence greatest

A

Heavy, clean configuration and slow speed

133
Q

What can happen to an aircraft is they hit wing tip vortices

A

Can go out of control, sustain structural damage, continue to descend even when max power is applied

134
Q

A helicopter in forward flight produces what kind of vortices

A

Similar to Wing tip vortices

135
Q

VDF steers are intended to provide directional assistance to VFr flight when

A

In times of difficulty

136
Q

You can check ELF is switched off by

A

Listening on 121.5 for a signal

137
Q

At the request of the pilot, VHF direction finding stations normally provide a homing service

A

In a pre selected tower or FSS frequency

138
Q

A 45kt blast area can be expected how many feet behind the propeller Sina a larger turbo prop aeroplane during taxi

A

60 ft

139
Q

When confronted with an approaching thunder storm a take off or landing

A

Should be avoided as a sudden wind shift or low level turbulence could cause a loss of control

140
Q

A test of an aircraft’s 121.5 MH ELT maybbe done for test purposes

A

In the first 5 minutes of any hour UTC

141
Q

What is ADIZ

A

Air defence identification zone

142
Q

What are the qualifications of a class A airspace

A

No VFR, for IFR transponder, radio, clearance required to enter

143
Q

What are the qualifications of a class B airspace

A

Separation, SVFR, 250 kit below 10,000 MSL, 200kt below 3000 AGL, radio transponder and clearance required

144
Q

What are the qualifications of a class C airspace

A

Conflict resolution upon request, traffic information, SVFR, height 200 or below 3000 AGL and within 19 NM of control zone, transponder, radio and clearance required

145
Q

What are the qualifications of a class E airspace

A

Traffic info when workload permitting, SVFR, transponder required in designated areas, radio not required and clearance not required

146
Q

What are the qualifications of class F airspace

A

Special - use airspace. Find info in DAH. Traffic must be approved by the user/controlling agency. Avoid flight within these spaces

147
Q

What are the classifications of a class G airspace

A

Uncontrolled 200kt below 3000 AGL within 10 NM of controlled airport. Are provided flight info and alerting service

148
Q

What to do in the event of an engine fire on start up?

A

Pull the fuel shut off valve, Keep cranking magnetos, mixture lean, throttle full open. Run.

149
Q

What to do in the event of a wing fire

A

Fuel selector ok other wing or shutoff if possible, bank away from the fire. Shutoff electrical systems

150
Q

A person may conduct aerobatic manoeuvres in what airspace and conditions?

A

Within class F advisory aerospace when visibility is 3 miles or greater

151
Q

Formatting flying is permitted only if such flights

A

Have been pre arranged by the pilots in command

152
Q

No person shall fly a helicopter over a built up area at an altitude less than ____ with horizontal radius of ____

A

1000 ft, 500 ft

153
Q

Flight through active class F airspace with the designator CYR is permitted

A

Only in accordance with permission issued by the user agency

154
Q

When operating in accordance with VFR an aircraft shall be flown in what conditions

A

With visual reference to the surface

155
Q

Except for balloons no person shall cause any aircraft to take off or attempt to take off from, land on or attempt to land on any surface within the built up area of any city or town unless

A

That surface is an airport or military aerodrome

156
Q

The appropriate cruising altitude is determined in southern domestic airspace in accordance with the

A

The magnetic track

157
Q

The appropriate cruising altitude is determined in northern domestic airspace in accordance with the

A

True track

158
Q

What is the height AGL above which an aircraft in VFR flight shall be operated to conform with the cruising altitudes order

A

3000 ft

159
Q

When should a pilot fly odd thousand + 500 ft?

A

000 - 179 degrees (east)

160
Q

When should a pilot fly even thousand + 500 ft?

A

180-359 degrees

161
Q

An aircraft cruising VFR in level flight above 3000 ft AGL on track of 290*M should fly at what height

A

Even thousand + 500 ft

162
Q

Pilots must present their licence when required to

A

Immigration officers, minister and “peace” officers

163
Q

The selection of cruising altitude in the southern domestic airspace should be based on

A

Magnetic track

164
Q

Day in Canada is defined as

A

The beginning of morning civil twilight and the end of evening civil twilight

165
Q

After consumption of alcohol no personal shall act as a crew member for ___hours

A

12 hours

166
Q

Low level airspace is defined as

A

Airspace within the Canadian domestic airspace below 18,000 ft ASL

167
Q

A control zone normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from

A

The surface of the earth to 3000 ft

168
Q

Night is defined as the period between

A

The end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

169
Q

Over no populous areas or over open water a pilot may not fly and aircraft at a distance less than ____ ft from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure

A

500 ft

170
Q

What is a general rule to follow with regards to advisory airspace ?

A

Non participating VFR aircraft are encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace during active period specified on aeronautical charts and NOTAM

171
Q

What distance from cloud shall an aircraft maintain when flying below 1000 fr AGL within an uncontrolled airspace ?

A

Clear of the cloud

172
Q

What is ADIZ?

A

Air defence identification zone

173
Q

Which aircraft’s do ADIZ rules normally apply?

A

To all aircraft’s

174
Q

No personal shall drop anything from an aircraft in flight

A

That will cause hazard to a person or property

175
Q

Normally a helicopter is an uncontrolled airspace at less than 1000 ft AGL May operate during the day in flight visibility which is not less than

A

1/2 mile

176
Q

vfR cross country pilot wishing to cross through any org of a class C control Zone should

A

Advise ATC if their intentions and obtain a clearance

177
Q

When VfR flight within controlled airspace a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least

A

500 ft vertically and 1 mile horizontally

178
Q

When in VfR flight within a control zone a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least

A

500 ft vertically and 1 mile horizontally

179
Q

VFR flight within class B airspace is permitted

A

In accordance with an ATC clearance

180
Q

ATC May authorize an aeroplane equipped with a functioning two way radio to transit a control zone under say special VFr provided the flight visibility and when reported ground visibility are each not less than

A

1 mile

181
Q

An arriving VfR flight shall make initial radio contact with the control tower

A

Prior to entering a control zone

182
Q

An aircraft flying in accordance with special VFR would be flying within

A

A control zone

183
Q

The pilot of an arriving VFr flight shall make initial radio contact with a control tower in Class C airspace

A

Prior to entering the Control Zone

184
Q

ATC May authorize a helicopter equipped with a functioning two way radio to transit a control zone under special VfR where the flight visibility and reported dg round visibility are each not less than

A

1/2 mile

185
Q

The minimum flight visibility for VFr flight within a low level airway is

A

3 miles

186
Q

Unless otherwise authorized a pilot in a VfR flight operating within a Class C terminal Controk Area must

A

Establish and maintain radio communication with the appropriate ATC unit

187
Q

Controlled airspace means all airspace of defined dimensions within which

A

An ATC service is provided

188
Q

Details on civil aviation reporting procedures can be found in the

A

tC AIM

189
Q

The TSB considered a missing aircraft to be a

A

Reportable aviation accident

190
Q

The primary objective of an aviation saftey investigation into an aircraft accident or aircraft incident is to

A

Prevent reoccurrences

191
Q

When an aircraft accident occurs the pilot or operator of the aircraft involved shall ensure that the particulars of the accident are reported to the TSB When?

A

Asap and by quickest means available

PSTAR (2 decks)

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