Test Prep Flashcards

1
Q

List the 12 things you have to do on the morning shift

A
  1. Check the Barometer against DD50 and record.
  2. Check copperchase message manager
  3. Check METAR and ATIS message
  4. check runway state and airfield status map.
  5. Check “read, understand,sign” file.
  6. Check work permits/NOTAMS/SNOWTAMS/Royal Flights and weather warnings for validity.
  7. Update status board
  8. Check current days nav warnings have been printed out.
  9. Check Airmet Area forecast printed and upper winds entered in MET Editor.
  10. Check message Journal to ensure transmitting/receiving messages.
  11. RFFS to carry out RVR when required.
  12. On Sunday test line to signal box bowesfield lane.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 5 things to do when closing?

A
  1. Fill in tomorrow’s status board.
  2. Collect signals and flight strips to date and store.
  3. Complete LARS stats.
  4. Fill in paper for printers in VCR, RAD and FAX.
  5. Turn on ATIS speaker.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the runway designators at DTV?

A

05

23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How long is the runway?

A

2291 metres by 45 metres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the airfield elevation?

A

120ft amsl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the airfields opening hours?

A

0600-2200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fire category at the airport?

A

Cat 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What aircraft can RFFS Cat 6 cover?

A

28 metres up to but not including 39 metres. Width of 5 metres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the Declared distances for runway 23?

A

TORA-2291 m
TODA-2500 m
ASDA-2410 m
LDA-2291 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the declared distances for runway 05?

A

TORA-2291 m
TODA-2570 m
ASDA-2291 m
LDA-2291 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the declared distances for Runway 05, take-off from intersection with hold Charlie?

A

TORA-1788 m
TODA- 2067 m
ASDA- 1788 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Width of Taxiway Alpha?

A

10.5 metres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Width of Taxiway Bravo?

A

35 metres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Width of Taxiway Charlie?

A

15 metres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Width of Taxiway Delta?

A

15 metres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List the taxiways

A

ALPHA
BRAVO
CHARLI &
Delta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List the holding points

A

ALPHA 1

ALPHA 2

APLHA 3

BRAVO

CHARLIE

DELTA 1

DELTA 2

DELTA 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which holding points must Aircraft/vehicle request specific permission to reach and why?

A

Alpha 1 and Delta 1.
Any vehicles after these holding points will interfere with the glide slope.
Vehicles must hold at delta 2 or alpha 2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the frequencies at DTV?

A
  1. 8 TWR
  2. 850 RAD/APP
  3. 850 DIREC
  4. 370 ATIS
  5. 6 FIRE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many VRPs are there?

A

6 and 2 within the circuits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List the VRPs and their location the the field.

A

Hartlepool - North East

Redcar - East
Racecourse

Stokesley - South East

Northallerton - South

Motorway - West
Junction A1/A66

Sedgefield - North
Racecourse

VRPs in the circuit.

LongNewtonReservoirs - Northwest

Yarm - Southeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the frequency for Newcastle LARS?

A

124.380

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the frequency for RAF Leeming?

A

133.375

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What altimeter setting regions (ASRs) are given?

How are they denoted on the strip?

A

Barnsley - BY

Tyne - TY

Humber - HU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 3 provisions for training at DTVA?

A

1) Any request for civil crew training for aircraft Boeing 737 size or larger should be referred to the ADM or in his absence the ATCO will take his details.
2) No more than two aircraft over 5700kg will be allowed in the visual or instrument pattern at anyone time, except with the agreement of the ATCO.
3) The ADM is to be advised of large military aircraft carrying out circuits or multiple approaches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

State the 4 stipulations for training flights by airlines.

A

1) Training flights may only take place during operational hours, except with the agreement of the airport manager.
2) Circuits shall be a minimum height of 1500ft aal for aircraft of 5700kg or above.
3) Circuits will be variable in direction to avoid concentrating noise in one area.
4) Aircraft are to be flown in such a manner as to avoid flight over built up areas in the vicinity of the airport whenever practical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the normal circuit direction for runway 23 &05?

A

23 left hand &

05 right hand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List DTVA’s airspace.

A

ATZ - Class D -SFC to 2120ft

CTR - Class D - SFC to 6000ft

CTA 1 - Class D - 1200 to 6000ft
CTA2 - Class D - 1500 to 6000ft
CTA3 - Class D - 3000 to 6000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

List the restricted areas around airfield.

A

EGR446 - SFC to 2000ft - Northeast of the field sits below CTA 3 and in the CTR.

EGR432 - SFC to 2200ft - North of the field sits above Durham and under Newcastle’s CTA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List the local Danger Areas.

A
Warcop    SFC to 10,000ft
(EGD407) Mon to Sat 0730 - 0200
 Sun 0730 -1300. 
Can be NOTAMed to 13,500ft
West of P18

Feldom SFC to 3,000ft
(EGD408) Tue to Sun 0830-1630
can be NOTAMed to 5,600ft
South west of the field.

Bellerby SFC to 3,000ft
(EGD442) H24. Circle shape, radius 2300m.
South west of the field.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Does DTVA accept non-radio traffic?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the procedures for BASED aircraft coming to the airport if they loose coms?

A

1) Maintain VMC at all times.
2) Transmit blind on 119.8
3) if outside the CTR/CTA enter the zone on a direct track from Sedgefield or Stockesley to the airport not above 1,000ft amsl. Orbit 0.5nm either northwest of southeast as appropriate 500ft agl. On receipt of the appropriate light signals proceed with a normal circuit and landing.
4) if inside the CTA/CTR when the failure occurs continue as cleared and if necessary, leave the CTA/CTR in accordance with clearance and re-enter as stated above.
5) Procedures don’t apply to based ac which land elsewhere and are en-route to/from a planned destination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the Managed Danger Areas (MDAs) and the heights?

A

Southern EG D323A
FL50 - FL660

Southern EG D323B
FL50 - FL 660

Southern EG D323C
FL50 - FL660

Southern EG D323D
FL250 - FL660

Southern EG D323E
FL250 - FL660

Southern EG D323F
FL250 - FL660

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Do the Managed Danger Areas (MDAs) effect DTVA?

A

No as they are all upper airways related.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
An a/c is above 3,000ft amsl or above the appropriate transition altitude, whichever is higher. Under IFR on a heading of 240 degrees below FL290. What altitude should be selected in regards to the semi circular rule?
A) FL50 
B) FL65
C) FL60
D) FL310
A

C) FL 60

Below FL290 IFR flight select headings on odds or even 10s 000-179 degrees being odd and 180-359 degrees being even.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
An a/c is above 3,000ft amsl or above the appropriate transition altitude, whichever is higher. Under VFR on a heading of 070 degrees below FL290. What altitude should be selected in regards to the semi circular rule?
A)FL340
B)FL70
C)FL45
D)FL95
A

D)FL95

Below FL290 VFR flights select headings on odds plus five 000-179 degrees and evens plus five 180 - 359 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the procedures for inbound traffic joining from the south and southwest?

A

Via Y250,P18 leave via GASKO to TD NDB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the procedures for inbound traffic joining from the north and northwest?

A

Via P18 leave airways via TILNI to TD NDB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the procedures for inbound traffic joining from the southeast outside controlled airspace via OTR VOR?

A

Via FAMBO to TD NDB and request air traffic service from Swanick (mil) or DTVA as appropriate. Clearance to enter DTVA CTA/CTR should be requested at least 10 minutes before reaching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
An a/c at FL290. Under IFR on a heading of 145 degrees. What altitude should be selected in regards to the semi circular rule?
A) FL310
B) FL370
C) FL400
D) FL285
A

B) FL370

Fo aircraft operating at or above FL290 undert IFR the levels are all odd.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
An a/c at FL290. Under VFR on a heading of 300 degrees. What altitude should be selected in regards to the semi circular rule?
A) FL380
B) FL400
C) FL370
D) FL105
A

B) FL400

Fo aircraft operating at or above FL290 undert VFR the levels are all even.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

For the section of P18 that lies above Newcastle’s CTA. What is it’s entry height, class and location relative to DTVA?

A

North of the field.
FL55-125 Class D
FL125-195 ClassA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Provide details on the section of P18 northwest of the field.

A

FL75-125 Class D
FL125-195 Class A

In the northwest corner of this section of P18 there is a CTA 6000ft-FL75 Class D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Provide the entry height and classification of airspace in the section of P18 that lies above EG D408(Feldom).

A

FL105-FL125 Class D

FL125-195 Class A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the entry level and classification of airspace for P16/P17/P18/Y250?

A

FL125-FL195

Class A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the entry level and classification of airspace for N601/P17/P18

A

FL95-FL195

Class A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the classification of airspace for Leeds Bradford’s CTA and dimensions south of N601/P17/P18?

A

Class D

3000ft - FL85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the dimensions of the Leeming/Topcliffe MATZ and their location to the field?

A

Southwest to southeast
SFC - 3132ft
5nm radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the location of Leeming’s MATZ stub to DTVA and its dimension?

A

Southwest
1132ft-3132ft
5nm long and 4nm wide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

List the 5 categories of emergency.

A

Aircraft Accident/Aircraft Accident Imminent.

Aircraft Ground Incident.

Full Emergency.

Local Standby.

Weather Standby.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Where is the RVP for all external emergency services?

A

The marker post located 15 metres airside of (Gate 7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

List the Standby points to be used in an emergency.

A

Fire Station
Holding point Alpha 1
Hold Charlie
Hold Delta 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What information should you acquire when a drone operator calls you?

A
  • Location
  • Duration
  • Maximum Height
  • Contact Name & Number
  • place name and number in “regular drone operators” page.

Inform the operator to contact ATC when complete or if control of SUA is lost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the procedure for drone flights?

A

1) Take down the essential information e.g. Location; maximum height, duration, contact name and number.
2) inform operator to contact ATC when complete or if loss of control of SUA has occurred.
3) if in the future note all the details in the diary.
4) make a note of details in the drone folder on the drone card. And note drone operator in regular operators page if not there.
5) pass details to ATCO I.C to note in watch log.
6) place drone card on desk to signify its active. And inform on handover of drone activity.
* note do not remove or “deactivate” card till a phone call has arrived. If it has been over an hour without a call contact the operator to ensure the operation is complete. If workload permits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

For aircraft operating within a 40nm radius of the ATZ and at and below 5,000ft. What sqks can be given

A

7030-7047

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What SQK is given to air ambulance emergency medivac (helicopter)?

A

0020

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What SQK is given to Search and Rescue?

A

0023

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What SQK is given to aircraft engaged in paradropping?

A

0033

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What SQK is given to aircraft doing pipeline inspections?

A

0036

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What SQK is given to Royal Flights (Helicopters)

A

0037

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What SQK is given to aircraft operating in the visual circuit?

A

7010

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What SQK is given to aircraft in an emergency?

A

7700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What SQK is for an aircraft with a radio failure?

A

7600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What SQK is transmitted when dealing with a HI-Jack?

A

7500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What range of SQK codes are given to aircraft operating in upper airspace?

A

Between 7050-7067

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the Standby points at the airfield?

A

1 - Fire station.

2 - Holding Point Alpha 1, Alpha Taxiway.

3 - Hold Charlie, Charlie Taxiway.

4 - Hold Delta, Delta Taxiway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Procedures for outbound traffic departing to the South and Southwest via P18 and Y99?

A

Route GASKO -POL (below FL190)

Route GASKO -RIBEL (FL190 and above)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Procedures for outbound traffic departing to the Southeast Y250 for L26 and UL603.

A

Route: GASKO- M150 - MAMUL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Procedures for outbound traffic departing to the Southeast via OTR VOR?

A

Route: FAMBO - OTR (UL90)

FAMBO - OTBED (Y70)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Procedures for outbound traffic departing to the North and Northwest?

A

Route: TILNI - P18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What runway designators do RAF Leeming use?

A

16/34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What SQK range do RAF Leeming use?

A

0401-0427

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What does SQK 0401 mean?

A

Leeming Zone (BS traffic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does SQK 0402-0406 mean?

A

Leaning Zone (Radar traffic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does SQK 0407 mean?

A

Leeming Practice Force Landing (RPFL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does SQK Leeming director?

A

0410-0417

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What does SQK 0420-0427 mean?

A

Leeming Approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

If an aircraft is operating to the north with a SQK in the band 7030-7047, what can be deemed?

A

The aircraft is operating at 5,000ft and below on the Tyne regional pressure setting (RPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Who has administrative control of the Leeming DTVA Control Area (LDCA)?

A

Durham Radar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

RAF Leeming will have operational access to the LDCA unless….

A

Notified by DTVA of conflicting IFR traffic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is assumed by Leeming with visual circuit traffic squawking 7010?

A

Aircraft are not above 3,000ft from the DTVA QNH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What has been agreed with Leeming regarding IFR departures to the southwest, south and southeast?

A

All IFR departures are to be notified to Leeming with an ETD.

VFR traffic is to be prenoted to Leeming asap after departure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

All instrument patterns to Leeming will be what direction to Leeming?

A

To the west, except for the short circuit pattern for runway 16, which due terrain clearance, will be a left circuit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What do all of Leeming’s SID north departures require from DTVA before departing?

A

A positive release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

If Durham Airports’ local traffic is to pass north of Durham City, what must be done?

A

Prenote to Newcastle Radar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What must happen if traffic is tracking north within 30nm of Newcastle Airport?

A

Prenote traffic to Newcastle Radar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

For IFR departures intending to route north (remaining east of P18) that require a radar service by Newcastle Radar will be issued an initial climb to what level?

A

FL80 by Durham Radar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

For IFR departures intending to route north (remaining east of P18) that require a radar service by Newcastle Radar. What should be prenoted 10 minutes before departure?

A

The ETD and requested flight plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What must Durham pass to Newcastle Radar after the aircraft has departed?

A

The ATD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

When must traffic be transferred to Newcastle?

A

After or abeam Durham City.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Do Cobham’s details (when operating North and not requiring a service from Newcastle) need to be passed?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What details about Cobham flights should be passed to Newcastle Radar and when?

A

10 minutes before departure.

  • Number and type of aircraft
  • Routing and level climbing to
  • Durham Radar Allocated SQK

E.G.
“Durham assistant, Traffic Information, 2 FA20s, 020 degrees, FL190, squawking 7051.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What stands are on the “main apron”?

A
1L
1
1R
2
3
4
5
5R
5RR
94
Q

What stands are on the “Western Apron”?

A

6
7
8
9

95
Q

What stands are on the Eastern Apron?

A
Cobham Stands 
(outside hangar 360)
11
12
13
(From hangar 3
Onwards)
96
Q

For IFR departures intending to cross P18 what should be done?

A

Prenote to Newcastle Radar 10 minutes prior to departure detailing:
ETD
Routing
Requested flight level

And pass ATD to Newcastle.

97
Q

What section of P18 do Newcastle have control over?

A

NATEB to GASKO below FL165

98
Q

A standing agreement between ScATCC, Newcastle and Durham allows Durham departures for P18 are given clearance to join at what flight level?

A

FL130

(join at GASKO)*

99
Q

Newcastle shall not descend any P18 inbound traffic below what flight level?

A

FL140 until 5nm north of Durham’s 23 runway extended line.

100
Q

On receipt of an estimate for the TD NDB from EGNT what shall Durham do?

A

Issue an acceptance level and SQK, if not a CCAM SQK.

101
Q

What SQKs are used by Durham and Newcastle for conspicuity purposes?

A

Newcastle 3767

Durham 7067

102
Q

What happens during an SSR failure?
What happens during a full radar failure?
*in reference to the LOA with Newcastle.

A

If SSR fails a handover is required when a/c are to contact the other station.
The LOA will be suspended in the event of a full radar failure.

103
Q

What Squawk range does Leeds Bradford use?

A

2650-2654

2654 conspicuity sqk

104
Q

What Squawk range does Humberside use?

A

4250-4277

105
Q

What Squawk range does Newcastle use?

A

3720-3766

106
Q

What Squawk range does Linton-on-Ouse use?

A

4501-4547

107
Q

What information should be passed during “Traffic inbound”?

A
“Durham Assistant
Inbound 
Location....3 west TILNI
SQK...........7040
Intentions...initially descending 5000ft”
108
Q

What information should be passed outbound traffic information?

A
Durham Assistant 
Traffic information 
Departure runway
Next point
SQK
Example
Durham Assistant 
Traffic information 
Departure 23
GASKO
7050
109
Q

What information should be passed for Transit?

A
Durham Assistant 
Transit
Registration/callsign
AC type 
Departure point
Destination
Level 
Type of service 
SQK
Example 
GFNAC
DA40
EGNM
EGNT
80
Traffic service 
7052
110
Q

An inbound aircraft is exiting airways via GASKO. What information should you provide?

A

A flight level.

111
Q

Frequency for fishburn?

A

118.275

112
Q

What is The frequency for Scottish?

A

133.8

113
Q

What is the frequency for Bagby?

A

123.250

114
Q

What is the frequency for Carlisle?

A

123.6

115
Q

Where is Croft circuit?

A

On the 23 climb out

116
Q

What must pilots do operating at Croft circuit?

A

They must inform air traffic.

117
Q

What must the assistant do when receiving a call from Croft circuit?

A

Write a transistor strip and inform the controllers.

118
Q

What does R/I stand for?

A

Radar vector ILS

119
Q

What does R/V stand for?

A

Radar Vector visual

120
Q

What does SRA stand for?

A

Secondary Radar Approach

121
Q

What does ILS stand for?

A

Procedural ILS

122
Q

What does NDB stand for?

A

Procedural NDB

123
Q

What does H stand for?

A

The hold.

124
Q

What does F stand for?

A

The NDB.

125
Q

What does R/F stand for?

A

Radar NDB.

126
Q

What section of P18 does DTVA have operational access to?

A

Between TILNI and UVAVU from FL105 to FL125.

127
Q

What should the Radar assistant do after receiving a TD NDB estimate from Newcastle?

A

Issue SQK (if not a CCAM SQK) and acceptance level from the controller.

Pass inbound time and SQK to Tower assistant.

128
Q

What SQKs will durham issue to aircraft receiving a FIS, to the north of Durham at and below 5,000ft?

A

7030-7047

129
Q

IFR aircraft inbound from UMBEL leaving L602 from Swanick North and East will call providing a TD estimate and Swanick SQK. What will provide in return?

A

A squawk and frequency

130
Q

IFR aircraft outbound joining L602 via UMBEL/ OTR. what will Durham do?

A

Provide an ETD & SQK.

Swan NE will provide a FL and swan NE SQK.

131
Q

What is Swanick North East frequency?

A

135.075

132
Q

What is RAF Linton-on-Ouse’s frequency?

A

118.550

133
Q

When is “precautionary action” taken for LVPs?

A

When the visibility is between 2000-1500metres?

134
Q

What triggers LVP state 1?

A

When the visibility is less than 1500 metres and the RVR is greater than 800 metres.

135
Q

When does LVP state two activate?

A

When the visibility is less than 800m and/or the cloud ceiling is 200ft AGL or less.

136
Q

What happens when the visibility is less than 600 metres?

A

Only one aircraft is permitted to use the manoeuvring area.

137
Q

What is the frequency for Full Sutton?

A

120.1

138
Q

What is the frequency for Breighton?

A

129.8

139
Q

Who do you need to inform when you get a weather warning?

A

Radar
RFFS
Airport duty manager
ATE(if in their hours)

140
Q

Who shall be informed when the LVPs are active?

A
  • ADM
  • RFFS
  • Radar
  • ATE
  • CP1
  • IFTC (SERCO)
  • Cobham
  • Aircraft

*Place on the ATIS.

141
Q

When visibility is between 2000-1500metres what should be done?

A

Arrange the duty manager (ADM) to:

  • Barrier off all entrances to runway 23/05
  • Arrange for one RFFS vehicle to position at 05 RVR observation point (ROP) if 05 threshold is not visible from VCR.
  • Cancel all vehicular free flow.
142
Q

What must be done for LVP state one?

A
  • Ensure LVP alert and all appropriate lights are on and on the correct setting.
  • A full service inspection is carried out.
  • RFFS complete RVRs.
  • Suspend all airside WIP and make sure it’s properly lit.
  • Suspend any south side activity.
  • Ensure LVP boards are uncovered.
143
Q

What LVP state require a weather standby?

A

All of them.

144
Q

What are the restrictions on Serco during LVP State 2?

A
  • No SERCO vehicle movements are permitted when aircraft are moving on the airfield.
  • No SERCO vehicle movements are permitted once the ADI controller has received a 10 mole check.
  • when crossing the runway the convoy leader will remain on the 23 threshold to count all vehicles crossing and follow the last vehicle before reporting “all vehicles vacated”.
145
Q

Who has vehicle free flow?

A

ADM Vehicles
RFFS Vehicles
ATC staff in any vehicle
Tels Mobile with approved ATE staff
Cobham & Cobham flight inspection:Limited operations only.
Refuellers, Swissport, and Consort Aviation: Limited operations only.

146
Q

Where are the approved areas for free flow vehicles to operate?

A
  • The south side

- Taxiways except between Delta 2 & 1 and Alpha 2 & 1

147
Q

List the conditions for vehicle free flow

A
  • Daylight hours only
  • Not in LVPs
  • Active unless ATC state otherwise.
  • Specified vehicles only (unless using a replacement notified to ATC in advance)
  • Adhere to speed limits
  • Serviceable R/T equipment
  • Monitor and comply with ATC on GMC Channel 2.
  • Drivers must have passed and completed both drive and R/T tests
148
Q

Which rules can file a flight plan, VFR or IFR?

A

Both.

149
Q

When should a flight plan be filed?

A

1) In Class A Airspace.
2) In Class B-D controlled airspace irrespective of weather conditions.
3) All flights in controlled airspace in IMC or at night (Including SVFR traffic).
4) Flights crossing the UK FIR Boundary.
5) When the destination aerodrome is 40km from the departure aerodrome and the MTOWof the aircraft exceeds 5700kgs.
6) Flights in class F airspace wishing to participate in the Air Traffic Advisory Service.

150
Q

When is it advisable to file a flight plan?

A

1) Over the sea 10nm from the UK coastline
2) Over sparsely populated areas where S+R would be difficult.
3) Into sand area where S+R operations are taking place.

151
Q

When must a “DEP” message be sent?

A

For VFR flight plans;

IFR flight plans outside controlled airspace and the IFPS zone.

152
Q

Who must a DEP/ARR message be addressed to?

A

The destination aerodrome Tower;
Alternates Approach;
The FIR it’s flying through.

153
Q

If the aerodrome is unlicensed, what should be placed in the field?

A

ZZZZ

And in the free text section DEP/ or DEST/ followed by the name of the aerodrome.

154
Q

When either RAF Leeming or RAF Linton-on-Ouse call asking for DTVA to be a diversion and DTVA can accept it. What information do they want from the assistant?

A

Weather colour
Runway in use
Serviceability

155
Q

When an aircraft enquiries about doing approaches at the airfield what information is required?

A

Number/type of aircraft;

Time of approaches.

156
Q

What needs to be done for closures?

A

A NOTAM should be filed and listed in the NOTAM folder.
5 copies of the NOTAM should be printed.
The status board should be updated.
The contact sheet to inform all parties should be checked off.

157
Q

Who needs copies of the NOTAM?

A
  • ATCUM
  • Radar
  • Tower ATCO
  • NOTAM folder copy
  • Status board copy
158
Q

When approaching NOTAM closure time what needs to be done?

A
  • Place the closure on the ATIS (uncheck AFTN)
  • change Airport Status to closed
  • Select the calls and monitor the frequencies
159
Q

What needs to be done when reopening the airport after a closure?

A
  • Runway inspection by the ADM
  • Change the airport status to open
  • Remove it from the ATIS
  • Update the ATCO of any pressure changes or activity.
160
Q

What is the speed limit airside?

A

10mph

161
Q

What work is exempt from requiring a work permit?

A

1) Routine Lamp Changes (Taxiways only)
2) Surface Inspections
3) ILS Adjustments
4) Bird Patrols

162
Q

Are engine runs permitted on the main apron?

A

No

163
Q

When a large aircraft (JS41,SB20,E75 etc.) requests a ground run what must be done?

A

Consult with the ADM for a location.

164
Q

Is there a compass swing at DTVA?

A

No

165
Q

Can Croft operate non-radio within controlled airspace?

A

Yes

166
Q

What are the conditions airfields such as Croft, Yearby etc to operate non radio?

A

1) Radio equipped ac must reach an altitude in which two way communication with DTVA can be established.
2) non radio equipped a/c to land in the event of a radio failure. ATC must be advised over the phone after the event. If outside the CTR/CTA and not in receipt of joining instructions the pilot must should not enter controlled airspace and land elsewhere unless experiencing any other emergency.
3) Maintain VMC at all times in the CTR and responsible for aircraft separation at and adjacent to their site.
4) DTVA reserves the right at any time to cancel or modify these arrangements.

167
Q

What is the radius that parachute operations take place at Peterlee?

A

1.5nm radius

168
Q

What is the maximum height that Peterlee drop from?

A

FL 150

169
Q

What is the normal height Peterlee drop from?

A

6,000ft

170
Q

Who should Durham inform when Peterlee are active?

A

Swan mil North
Swan mil South
RAF Leeming
Newcastle ATC

171
Q

What is the internal line to call in the event of an internal emergency?

A

2222

172
Q

What is the abbreviation for the Royal Victoria Institute hospital?

A

RVI

173
Q

List the hospitals in Newcastle

A

1) Royal Victoria Institute
2) Newcastle General Hospital
3) Freeman hospital

174
Q

What is the abbreviation for Newcastle General Hospital?

A

NGH

175
Q

What is the abbreviation for Freeman Hospital?

A

Freeman

176
Q

Where is North Tees Hospital?

A

Stockton on tees

177
Q

Where is James Cook Hospital?

A

Middlesbrough

178
Q

What is the abbreviation for North Tees Hospital?

A

NTH

179
Q

What is the ICAO code for Warton?

A

EGNO

180
Q

What is the ICAO code for Gamston/Retford?

A

EGNE

181
Q

What is the ICAO code for RAF Leeming?

A

EGXE

182
Q

What is the ICAO code for RAF Linton-on-Ouse?

A

EGXU

183
Q

What is the ICAO code for

Sherburn?

A

EGCJ

184
Q

What is the ICAO code for Leeds?

A

EGNM

185
Q

What is the ICAO code for Doncaster?

A

EGCN

186
Q

What is the ICAO code for Sandtoft?

A

EGCF

187
Q

What is the ICAO code for Humberside?

A

EGNJ

188
Q

What is the ICAO code for Blackpool?

A

EGNH

189
Q

What is the ICAO code for Manchester Barton?

A

EGCB

190
Q

What is the ICAO code for Aberdeen?

A

EGPD

191
Q

Which fire vehicle does the officer in charge ride in, and what is his call sign?

A

Fire 2 and Fire 2 Alpha

192
Q

During LVPs state 2

Will non radio vehicles be allowed on the manoeuvring area?

A

No.

193
Q

During LVPs state 2

Will vehicle escorts be allowed?

A

No, unless under strict procedures stated in the Aerodrome Manual

194
Q

Which work parties require a full briefing from ATC?

A

Routine Lamp Changes
Surface inspections
ILS Adjustments

195
Q

Which contractors require a daily briefing?

A

Grass cutters

Agricultural contractors

196
Q

Who has overall control over bird hazard control policy?

A

The fire service manager

197
Q

What period is the falconer employed between?

A

October till the end of February.

198
Q

List the noise sensitive areas.

A

Yarm (East Southeast)
Eaglescliffe (east)
Middleton StGeorge (West)

199
Q

ICAO code for Carlisle?

A

EGNC

200
Q

What is the ICAO code for RAF Lossiemouth?

A

EGQS

201
Q

What is the ICAO code for Prestwick airport?

A

EGPK

202
Q

What’s is the icao for Glasgow?

A

EGPF

203
Q

How far away is the old fuel tower?

A

300 metres

204
Q

How far away is the White House ?

A

520 metres

205
Q

How far away is the DME?

A

540 metres

206
Q

How far away is 23 glide path?

A

580 metres

207
Q

How far away is the Direction Finder

A

630 metres

208
Q

How far away is the RFFS aircraft?

A

950 metres

209
Q

How far away is the SERCO trident?

A

1150m

210
Q

How far away is the Featherstone House?

A

1200m

211
Q

How far away is the 05 Glide Path?

A

1250m

212
Q

How far away is the telephone mast?

A

1400m

213
Q

How far away is the White House?

A

1550m

214
Q

How far away is the Farm?

A

1400m

215
Q

How far away are the pylons (in front of the cooling towers)?

A

3000m

216
Q

How far away are the cooling towers?

A

13.8km

217
Q

How far away is the red roof house?

A

3300m

218
Q

How far away are the pylons behind the Direction Finder?

A

4000m

219
Q

How far away are the pylons in front of TGH?

A

6.1km

220
Q

How far away is TGH?

A

9.3km

221
Q

How far away is the ICI Tower?

A

12.6km

222
Q

What are the parameters of VFR?

A
At & Above FL100 Class G 
Distance from Cloud
Horizontal 1500m 
Vertical      1000m
Flight Visibility 8km
Below FL100 Class G 
Distance from Cloud
Horizontal 1500m 
Vertical      1000m
Flight Visibility 5km
223
Q

When can’t be given Special VFR?

A

Aircraft=Ground viability less than 1500m and/or cloud ceiling less then 600ft

Helicopters= ground visibility less than 800m and/or cloud ceiling less than 600ft

224
Q

What is EGNR

A

Hawarden

225
Q

What is EGYD

A

Cranwell

226
Q

EGXC

A

Conningsby

227
Q

EGXW

A

Waddington

228
Q

EGNY

A

Beverly

229
Q

EGNL

A

BARROW

230
Q

EGNS

A

Isle of Man

231
Q

EGNF

A

Netherthorpe