Test One Flashcards

1
Q

My Nursing Lab - Submod 2.12 Wound Care

A client is admitted with the dx of a venous stasis ulcer. The LPN understands this is the result of:

A. Trauma to the extremities
B. Decreased arterial circulation to the extremities
C. Venous congestion in the lower extremities
D. Poor cardiac output secondary to heart failure

A

C. Venous congestion in the lower extremities

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2
Q

ATI (Fundamentals Book) - Chapter 55

Scenario: An older adult woman is 6 days postoperative following surgery for a bowel obstruction. During the last 24 hr, she has reported nausea, and she vomitted small amounts of clear liquid three times in the last 8 hr. Her vital signs are stable. Currently, her incision is well approximated and free of redness, tenderness , and swelling

Which of the following findings would indicate development of a wound infection?

A. Decreased pulse rate
B. Increased pain
C. Decreased WBC Count
D. Increased thirst

A

B. Increased pain

Rationale:
An increase in incisional pain is a sign of possible wound infection. With infection, the pulse rate and WBC count increase. Increased thirst has many possible causes and does not necessary indicate a infectious process.

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3
Q

My Nursing Lab - Submod 2.12 Wound Care

The client with a pressure ulcer is placed on a special airflow mattress to provide:

A. decreased shearing and friction
B. Pressure relief
C. Decreased blood flow and congestion in the injured tissue.
D. Improved tissue drainage

A

B. Pressure relief

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4
Q

My Nursing Lab - Submod 2.12 Wound Care

One admission, a client’s risk for pressure ulcers can be determined if the nurse uses the:

A. Circadian rhythm
B. Braden scale
C. Push tool
D. NANDA plan

A

B. Braden scale

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5
Q

My Nursing Lab - Submod 2.12 Wound Care

When a client returns from surgery, the medical intern tells the nurse that the wound was left open because an infection interfered with suturing at this time. The nurse understands that healing for this client will be by:

A. Tertiary intention
B. Primary intention
C. First intention
D. Secondary intention

A

A. Tertiary intention

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6
Q

My Nursing Lab - Submod 2.12 Wound Care

The nurse examines the client admitted with an open wound and finds the wound has eroded the subcutaneous tissue down to the muscle. This wound is correctly documented as:

A. Superficial
B. Superficial partial thickness
C. Partial thickness
D. Full thickness

A

D. Full thickness

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7
Q

My Nursing Lab - Submod 2.12 Wound Care

The nurse bathing a client finds a soft boggy area over the left hip. This is indicative of a:

A. Stage IV pressure ulcer
B. Stage II pressure ulcer
C. Stage I pressure ulcer
D. Stage III pressure ulcer

A

C. Stage I pressure ulcer

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8
Q

My Nursing Lab - Submod 2.12 Wound Care

Which of the following interventions can the nurse use to prevent a pressure ulcer:

A. Change client’s position q shift
B. Keep the skin clean and dry
C. Limit client’s mobility
D. Get help to pull the client up in bed

A

A. Change client’s position q shift

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9
Q

My Nursing Lab - Submod 2.12 Wound Care

The client with a pressure ulcer is placed on a special airflow mattress to provide:

A. decreased shearing and friction
B. Pressure relief
C. Decreased blood flow and congestion in the injured tissue.
D. Improved tissue drainage

A

B. Pressure relief

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10
Q

A wound in which minimal inflammation is encountered and the respiratory, alimentary, genital and urinary tracts are not entered is:

A. Contaminated wound
B. Clean wound
C. Clean-contaminated wound
D. Dirty wound

A

B. Clean wound

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11
Q

Surgical wounds in which the respiratory, almentary, genital, or urinary tract has been entered is:

A. Contaminated wound
B. Clean wound
C. Clean-contaminated wound
D. Dirty wound

A

C. Clean-contaminated wound

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12
Q

What are the three phases of wound healing

A

inflammatory, proliferative, and maturation

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13
Q

The type of dressing applied to a wound depends on all the following EXCEPT:

A. The amount of exudate
B. Whether the wound requires debridement or is infected.
C. The color of the wound
D. The location, size, and type of wound

A

C. The color of the wound

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14
Q

What type of dressings are frequently used for pressure ulcers

A. Hydrocolloid dressings
B. Alginates
C. Transparent dressings
D. Hydrogels

A

A. Hydrocolloid dressings

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15
Q

What type of bandage is one of the most commonly used because it is light and porous and readily molds to the body.

A

Gauze

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16
Q

What type of bandage provides pressure to an area & provide support and improve the venous circulation in the legs.

A

Elasticized bandages

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17
Q

What type of bandage turn is used used to cover distal parts of the body, like the end of a finger, the skull, or the stump of an amputation.

A. Spiral
B. Circular
C. Recurrent
D. Figure eight

A

C. Recurrent

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18
Q

Which bandage turns are used to bandage an elbow, knee, or ankle, b/c they permit some movement after application.

A. Figure eight
B. Recurrent
C. Spiral reverse
D. Spiral

A

A. Figure eight

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19
Q

Bandages and binders

A.  supports and immobilize a wound
B.  retains warmth 
C.  apply pressure 
D.  secure a dressing
E.  all of the above
A

E. all of the above

20
Q

What type of leader does not trust self or others to make decisions and instead relies on the organization’s rules, policies, and procedures to direct the group’s work efforts.

A. Democratic
B. Laissez-faire
C. Situational
D. Bureaucratic

A

D. Bureaucratic

21
Q

What type of leader believes individuals are externally motivated and are incapable of independent decision making.

A. Bureaucratic
B. Autocratic
C. Charismatic
D. Democratic

A

B. Autocratic

22
Q

She was America’s first trained nurse. She is know for introducing nurse’s notes and doctor’s order.

A. Clara Barton
B. Lillian Wald
C. Lavinia Dock
D. Linda Richards

A

D. Linda Richards

23
Q

She participated in protest movements for women’s rights that resulted in the 1920 passage of the 19th amendment to the U.S. Constitution, which granted women the right to vote.

A. Florence Nightingale
B. Margaret Sanger
C. Lavinia Dock
D. Clara Barton

A

C. Lavinia Dock

24
Q

She started on of the first midwifery training schools in the United States.

A. Margaret Sanger
B. Mary Breckinridge
C. Mary Carnegie
D. Dorothea Orem

A

B. Mary Breckinridge

25
Q

She s known for breaking down racial barriers and preserving the history of African American nurses. She pioneered for black nurses to be given full rights and responsibilities within the Florida State Nurses Association.

A. Mary Mahoney
B. Mary Jane Seacole
C. Linda Richards
D. Mary Carnegie

A

D. Mary Carnegie

26
Q

What are the four areas of nursing practice?

A

promoting health and wellness, preventing illness, restoring health, and caring for the dying

27
Q

What are the legal acts that regulate the practice of nursing in the US and Canada

A

Nurse practice acts

28
Q

Which nursing action illustrates the primary level of health care?

A. Administering pain medication
B. Performing wound care
C. Assisting the client with a walker
D. Administering HBV Vaccine

A

D. Administering HBV vaccine

Rationale: The primary level of health care deals with prevention, and the goal of adminstering HBV vaccine is disease prevention.

29
Q

After hip replacement surgery, the client is scheduled to practice isometric and isotonic exercises. These exercises are considered a part of:

A. Tertiary health care
B. Proprietary health care
C. Secondary health care
D. Primary health care

A

A. Tertiary health care

Rationale: The tertiary level of health care is aimed at rehabilitation to the highest level possible.

30
Q

The LPN accidentally forget to strap an infant into a high chair. The infant falls out and his arm is fractured. The nurse may face charges of:

A. Malpractice
B. Slander
C. Assault
D. Battery

A

A. Malpractice

31
Q

A client admitted with the diagnosis of a venous stasis ulcer. The LPN understands this is the result of:

A. Venous congestion in the lower extremitites.
B. Poor cardiac output secondary to heart failure
C. Decreases arterial circulation to the extremities.
D. Trauma to the extremities.

A

A. Venous congestion in the lower extremities.

32
Q

When a client returns form surgery, the medical intern tells the nurse that the wound was left open b/c an infection interfered with suturing at this time. The nurse understands that healing for this client will be by:

A. First intention
B. Secondary intention
C. Primary intention
D. Tertiary intention

A

D. Tertiary intention

Rationale: Secondary intention occurs when there is loss of tissue such as a pressure ulcer.

33
Q

The first sign that a client is at risk for a pressure ulcer is that:

A. There is a large red blister at the affected area
B. The area is red, raised, and warm to the touch.
C. The area is red, dark, and hard
D. There is a whitened appearance of the skin in the affected area.

A

D. There is a whitened appearance of the skin in the affected area.

34
Q

A client has a soft boggy area over the left hip, this indicates:

A. Stage II pressure ulcer
B. Stage III pressure ulcer
C. Stage IV pressure ulcer
D. Stage I pressure ulcer

A

D. Stage I pressure ulcer

35
Q

Which of the following is an example of a chronic wound? A client

A. with a hemovac drain insertion at a surgical site
B. Who fell and suffered an open wound to the knee
C. Who sustained a break in the skin while shaving
D. With a stage III pressure ulcer

A

D. With a stage III pressure ulcer

36
Q

Which dressing would best absorb a large amount of drainage from a wound?

A. hydrogel
B. gauze
C. hydrocolloid
D. transparent

A

B. gauze

37
Q

Which intervention would a nurse perform for a pressure ulcer with tunneling?

A. Apply wet to dry dressing
B. Apply a simply dry dressing
C. Pack the tunnel with ribbon gauze
D. Pack the area with Panafil ointment

A

C. Pack the tunnel with ribbon gauze

38
Q

Heat application is contraindicated for which condition?

A. Hypertension
B. Local infection
C. Cardiac disease
D. Rheumatoid disease

A

C. Cardiac disease

39
Q

A nurse with 2 to 3 years of experience who has the ability to coordinate multiple complex nursing care demands is at which stage of Benner’s states of nursing expertise?

A. Advanced beginner
B. Competent
C. Proficient
D. Expert

A

B. Competent

40
Q

Nurses anticipate which of the following social forces will be most likely to significantly impact the future supply and demand for nurses?

A. Aging
B. Economics
C. Science and technology
D. Telecommunications

A

A. Aging

41
Q

Which of the following provides the best explanation for describing nursing as a practice discipline?

A. Nursing focuses on performing the professional role.
B. It takes time and experience to become a competent nurse.
C, Research and theory development is a central focus.
D. Nurses function as members of a team who form a practice group.

A

A. Nursing focuses on performing the professional role.

42
Q

“A group of related ideas or statements” best defines which of the following?

A. A philosophy
B. A conceptual framework
C. A theory
D. A paradigm

A

B. A conceptual framework

43
Q

Person, environment, health, and nursing constitute the metaparadigm for nursing because of which of the following?

A. They provide a framework for implementing the nursing process.
B. They can be utilized in any setting when caring for a client.
C. They can be utilized to determine applicability of a research study.
D. They focus on the needs of a group of clients.

A

B. They can be utilized in any setting when caring for a client.

44
Q

A primary care provider prescribes one tablet, but the nurse accidently administers two. After notifying the primary care provider, the nurse monitors the client carefully for untoward effects of which there are none. Is the client likely to be successful in suing the nurse for malpractice?

A. No, the client was not harmed.
B. No, the nurse notified the physician.
C. Yes, a breach of duty exists.
D. Yes, foreseeability is present.

A

A. No, the client was not harmed.

45
Q

An ethical issue arises involving the nurse’s assigned client. One of the most important nursing responsibilities in managing this client care situation would be which of the following:

A Be able to defend the morality of one’s own actions.
B. Remain neutral and detached when making ethical decisions.
C. Ensure that a team is responsible for deciding ethical questions.
D. Follow the client’s and family’s wishes exactly.

A

A. Be able to defend the morality of one’s own actions.