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Pathopharm I Drugs + > TEST ONE > Flashcards

TEST ONE Flashcards

1
Q

What is an adrenergic receptor?

A

receptors in through out the body for the SYMPATHETIC nervous system that receive epinephrine, and norepinephrine

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2
Q

Which part of the nervous system do adrenergic receptors activate

A

Sympathetic nervous system

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3
Q

Agonist

A

drugs with a specific receptor affinity that mimic the body’s natural chemical.
(TURN ON RESPONSE)

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4
Q

Antagonist

A

Drugs that bind to specific receptors and clog them up so the body’s natural chemical does not activate the receptor.
(TURN OFF OR INHIBIT)

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5
Q

Extravasation

A

leaking of fluid from a blood vessel into the surrounding tissue, like infiltration intravenous infusion

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6
Q

First-dose phenomenon

A

severe drop in blood pressure after the first dose of an alpha-adrenergic blocker

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7
Q

lipophilicity

A

the chemical attraction of a substance to lipid or fat molecules

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8
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

vascular adrenal gland tumor that secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine, stimulating the sympathetic nervous system and elevating the blood pressure

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9
Q

Raynaud’s disease

A

narrowing of small arteries that limit the amount of blood circulation to the extremities causing numbness of the nose, fingers, toes, and ears in response to cold temps or stress.

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10
Q

sympatholytics

A

drugs that INHIBIT the postganglionic functioning of the nervous system

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11
Q

What are the postganglionic functions in the sympathetic nervous system?

A

release norepinephrine and epinephrine to send excitatory input to smooth muscle of the urethra and bladder base and inhibitory input to the body of the bladder and inhibitory and facilitatory input to vesical parasympathetic ganglia.

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12
Q

What neurotransmitter is associated with the parasymopathetic nervous system

A

Acetylcholine

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13
Q

What neurotransmitters is associated with the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

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14
Q

What does a cholinergic receptor receive?

A

acetylcholine

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15
Q

Which drugs inhibit acetylcholine

A

cholinergic blockers, anticholinergics, parasympatholytics, and antimuscarinic drugs

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16
Q

Cholinergic blocking drugs action

A

Block acetylcholine at the muscarinic receptor in the parasympathetic nervous system allowing the sympathetic, fight or flight, system to dominate.

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17
Q

Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim or Bactrim DS)
Drug class

A

sulfonamide and folate antimetabolite

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18
Q

Sulfamethoxazole MOA

A

Inhibit bacterial synthesis of folic acid

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19
Q

Trimethoprim

A

inhibits folic acid pathway

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20
Q

Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim or Bactrim DS)
Contraindications

A

drug allergy to sulfonamides
Term pregnant people
people under 2 months old

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21
Q

Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim or Bactrim DS)
adverse effects

A

common to be allergic including fever, rash, and photosensitivity.
agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, pancreatitis, hepatotoxicity, epidermal necrolysis, exfoliative dermatitis, steven Johnson’s syndrome, convulsions, crystalluria, toxic nephrosis, headache, peripheral neuritis, urticaria, cough

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22
Q

What does Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim or Bactrim DS) treat?

A

Cystitis, and pyelonephritis (UTI) from gram- and gram + bacteria

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23
Q

Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim or Bactrim DS)
interactions

A

potentiate hypoglycemic effects of sulfonylureas for diabetics, toxic effects of phenytoin, and the anticoagulant effects of warfarin which could lead to hemorrhage. Could increase the likelihood of cyclosporine-induced nephrotoxicity. Reduce efficacy of birth control.

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24
Q

Dose Range for Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim or Bactrim DS)

A

IV/PO 8-20 mg per day divided into to 2 doses

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25
Q

Furosemide

A

Lasix

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26
Q

Furosemide CLASS

A

LOOP DIURETIC

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27
Q

Furosemide DOSE

A

IM/IV 20-40 MG/dose
PO 20-120mg/day

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28
Q

Furosemide indications

A

pulmonary edema, liver disease, edema associated with heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, ascites, and sometimes heart failure.

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29
Q

Furosemide MOA

A

Work on the thick ascending side of the loop of Henle, blocking chloride, and secondarily blocking sodium reabsorption. Maybe also activate renal prostaglandins, which dilate the renal blood vessels.

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30
Q

Furosemide contraindications

A

drug allergy, hepatic coma, severe electrolyte loss, anuria, hypovolemia, electorlyte depletion, has black box warning, regarding fluid and electrolyte loss.
Pregnancy categorey C.
Hypersensitivity to sulfonamides.
If given via IV, need to go slow so not to have ototoxic effect.

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31
Q

Furosemide adverse reactions

A

dizziness, headache, tinnitus, blurred vision, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, agranulocytosis, neutropenia, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, and hyperuricemia.

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32
Q

hyperuricemia

A

Hyperuricemia is an elevated uric acid level in the blood. The normal upper limit is 6.8mg/dL, and anything over 7 mg/dL is considered saturated, and symptoms can occur. This elevated level is the result of increased production, decreased excretion of uric acid, or a combination of both processes.

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33
Q

Agranulocytosis

A

Agranulocytosis is a condition in which the absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is less than 100 neutrophils per microliter of blood.

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34
Q

Oxybutynin (Ditropan) class

A

Cholinergic blocking drug

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35
Q

Oxybutynin (Ditropan) indication

A

overactive bladder and anitspasmodic for neurigenic bladder associated with spinal cord injuries, and congenital issues such as spinabifida.

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36
Q

Oxybutynin (Ditropan) contraindications

A

drug allergy, urinary or gastric retention, uncontrolled angular glaucoma,

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37
Q

Oxybutynin (Ditropan) administration/dose

A

patch
PO 5 MG BID-QID
ER tabs 5-30 mg/day
transdermal patch 3.9 mg/day

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38
Q

Finasteride (Proscar) indication

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia
male andogenetic alopecia

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39
Q

Finasteride (Proscar) class

A

5-alpha reductase inhibitor

40
Q

Finasteride (Proscar) MOA

A

Since dihydrotestosterone (DHT) is the more potent form and the form that stimulates prostate growth, reducing it reduces the growth rate of the prostate. Finasteride stops testosterone from becoming DHT, by inhibiting the enzyme 5-alpha reductase.

41
Q

Finasteride (Proscar)
Contraindications

A

NOT FOR PEOPLE WITH UTERUSES/WOMEN
(handle with glove)
or people who are allergic/hypersensitive

42
Q

Finasteride (Proscar) dose range

A

BPH 5 MG DAILY PO
BALD 1 MG PO DAILY

43
Q

Finasteride (Proscar) ADVERSE REACTIONS

A

gynecomastia, inc prostate cancer risk, dec libido, dec ejaculate, dec fertility, and ED

44
Q

Tamsulosin (Flomax) indications

A

treat benign prostate hyperplasia, and sometimes for female kidney stones

45
Q

Tamsulosin (Flomax) MOA

A

block alpha adrenergic receptors on smooth muscle with in the prostate and bladder

46
Q

Tamsulosin (Flomax) DOSE RANGE

A

0.4mg daily primarily, and after 2 weeks can go up to 0.8mg daily

47
Q

Tamsulosin (Flomax) CONTRAINDICATIONS

A

known allergy and ED drugs

48
Q

Tamsulosin (Flomax) ADVERSE REACTIONS

A

headache, abnormal ejaculate, rhinitis, tachycardia, edema, palpitations, orthostatic hypotension, chest pain, dizziness, nausea, abdominal pain, incontinence, dry mouth, pharyngitis, weakness, fatigue,

49
Q

Tamsulosin (Flomax) CLASS

A

Alpha blocker

50
Q

Agonists bind to a receptor and cause a

A

response

51
Q

antagonists bind to a receptor and ??

A

block stimulation

52
Q

receptor sites for epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

adrenergic receptors

53
Q

The alpha adrenergic-blocking drugs (alpha blockers) interrupt stimulation of the

A

SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM at the alpha 1 adrenergic receptors which are located on tissue muscle or organ that the nerve is stimulating.

54
Q

Alpha 1 receptors are located

A

on tissue muscle or organ (post synaptic effector cells)

55
Q

smooth muscle

A

involuntary muscle

56
Q

Three main classes of drugs that treat angine pectoris

A

NITRATES AND NITRITES
BETA BLOCKERS
CALCIUM CHANNEL BLOCKERS

57
Q

What does nitroglycerin treat?

A

angina pectoris

58
Q

What does captopril treat?

A

HYPERTENSION (lower bp)
HEART FAILURE
DIABETIC NEUROPATHY IN TYPE 1

59
Q

How does Captopril work

A

Block the conversion of Angiotension I to angiotension II.
Prevents the degradation of bradykinin and other vasodilating prostaglandins.

60
Q

What is a prostaglandin

A

The prostaglandins are a group of lipids made at sites of tissue damage or infection that are involved in dealing with injury and illness.

61
Q

what is amlodipine used for?

A

to treat hypertension,
chronic angina,
vasospastic angina,
coronary afib without HF or and angioejection of < 40%

62
Q

What is Diltazam used for

A

angina pectoris from coronary insufficiency
AFIB w/ paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

63
Q

what does metoprolol treat

A

hypertension
angina pectoris

64
Q

hemoptysis

A

spitting up blood from bronchiole tubes

65
Q

dumping syndrome

A

rapid gastric emptying

66
Q

secondary intention wound healing

A

heals by itself

67
Q

primary intention wound healing

A

stitched, stapled or glued together

68
Q

tertiary wound healing

A

needs to be closed at a later time to avoid trapping infection inside

69
Q

aplastic anemia

A

when the body stops producing enough new blood cells. Can lead to uncontrolled bleeding, prone to infection, and fatigue.

70
Q

comminuted fracture

A

bone breaks into in atleast two places

71
Q

pernicious anemia

A

B12 deficiency

72
Q

Addison’s disease

A

when the adrenals produce too little cortisol and aldosterone

73
Q

renal calculi

A

kidney stone, normally no permanent damage is done. Drink lots of water to help pass.

74
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

an autoimmune neuromuscular disease that causes weakness in the skeletal muscle, worsens after periods of activity and feels better after rest.

75
Q

Symptoms of Basilar skull fracture

A

raccoon eyes, halo sign, loss of smell and vision, battle sign, loss of hearing, loss of balance

76
Q

Brachytherapy

A

A sealed radiation source is put inside the body near the area that needs to be treated.

77
Q

Symptoms of pneumothorax

A

stabbing chest pain breathing in, fatigue, blueish skin,rapid breathing and heartbeat, dry hacking cough

78
Q

Therapeutic use of prednisone

A

corticosteroids are to alleviate swelling, itching, redness, and allergic reactions.

79
Q

Meniere’s disease

A

a build-up of fluid in the chambers of the inner ear, causes vomiting and dizzyness

80
Q

Which skin cancer is most deadly?

A

melanoma

81
Q

Normal ABG LEVELS

A

pH 7.35-7.45
PaCO2 35-45 mmHg
Pa O2 75-100 mmHg

82
Q

parathyroid

A

the endocrine gland that controls how much calcium is in our blood. Everyone should have four at the base of the neck

83
Q

primary prevention

A

prevent disease before it happens
(immunization)

84
Q

secondary prevention

A

detect a disease early and stop it
(breast exam)

85
Q

tertiary

A

managing and avoiding the progression of a known disease
(diabetes support and education for diabetics)

86
Q

wound evisceration

A

organs come out through the wound stitches, normally the stomach

87
Q

Histamine is released

A

when an antibody IgE triggers it. Histamine causes itching, bronchoconstriction, and inflammation.

88
Q

paracentesis

A

perforation of a cavity or cyst of the body to drain fluid or gas, performed with a hollow needle.

89
Q

normal hematocrit levels

A

men 41-50%
women 36-48%

90
Q

What test result can indicate diabetes insipidus

A

low specific gravity (1.001-1.003)
Polyuria can be a sign due to low antidiuretic hormone

91
Q

Normal level of urine specific gravity

A

1.005-1.030

92
Q

manifestations of MI

A

Nausea, pain in the jaw, shoulder, and chest or abdomen.

93
Q

Serum lipase levels

A

10-140 adults under60
20-151 adults > 60
elevated levels three times the normal amount can indicate acute pancreatitis

94
Q

Manifestations of a hypervolemic syndrome

A

tachycardia, dyspnea a cough and distended neck veins

95
Q

mannitol

A

osmotic diuretic

96
Q

serum osmolarity range

A

275 - 295 mOsm/L
(blood sample is from a vein)

Pathopharm I Drugs + (2 decks)

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