TEST ONE Flashcards

1
Q

What is an adrenergic receptor?

A

receptors in through out the body for the SYMPATHETIC nervous system that receive epinephrine, and norepinephrine

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2
Q

Which part of the nervous system do adrenergic receptors activate

A

Sympathetic nervous system

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3
Q

Agonist

A

drugs with a specific receptor affinity that mimic the body’s natural chemical.
(TURN ON RESPONSE)

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4
Q

Antagonist

A

Drugs that bind to specific receptors and clog them up so the body’s natural chemical does not activate the receptor.
(TURN OFF OR INHIBIT)

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5
Q

Extravasation

A

leaking of fluid from a blood vessel into the surrounding tissue, like infiltration intravenous infusion

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6
Q

First-dose phenomenon

A

severe drop in blood pressure after the first dose of an alpha-adrenergic blocker

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7
Q

lipophilicity

A

the chemical attraction of a substance to lipid or fat molecules

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8
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

vascular adrenal gland tumor that secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine, stimulating the sympathetic nervous system and elevating the blood pressure

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9
Q

Raynaud’s disease

A

narrowing of small arteries that limit the amount of blood circulation to the extremities causing numbness of the nose, fingers, toes, and ears in response to cold temps or stress.

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10
Q

sympatholytics

A

drugs that INHIBIT the postganglionic functioning of the nervous system

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11
Q

What are the postganglionic functions in the sympathetic nervous system?

A

release norepinephrine and epinephrine to send excitatory input to smooth muscle of the urethra and bladder base and inhibitory input to the body of the bladder and inhibitory and facilitatory input to vesical parasympathetic ganglia.

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12
Q

What neurotransmitter is associated with the parasymopathetic nervous system

A

Acetylcholine

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13
Q

What neurotransmitters is associated with the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

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14
Q

What does a cholinergic receptor receive?

A

acetylcholine

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15
Q

Which drugs inhibit acetylcholine

A

cholinergic blockers, anticholinergics, parasympatholytics, and antimuscarinic drugs

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16
Q

Cholinergic blocking drugs action

A

Block acetylcholine at the muscarinic receptor in the parasympathetic nervous system allowing the sympathetic, fight or flight, system to dominate.

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17
Q

Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim or Bactrim DS)
Drug class

A

sulfonamide and folate antimetabolite

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18
Q

Sulfamethoxazole MOA

A

Inhibit bacterial synthesis of folic acid

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19
Q

Trimethoprim

A

inhibits folic acid pathway

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20
Q

Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim or Bactrim DS)
Contraindications

A

drug allergy to sulfonamides
Term pregnant people
people under 2 months old

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21
Q

Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim or Bactrim DS)
adverse effects

A

common to be allergic including fever, rash, and photosensitivity.
agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, pancreatitis, hepatotoxicity, epidermal necrolysis, exfoliative dermatitis, steven Johnson’s syndrome, convulsions, crystalluria, toxic nephrosis, headache, peripheral neuritis, urticaria, cough

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22
Q

What does Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim or Bactrim DS) treat?

A

Cystitis, and pyelonephritis (UTI) from gram- and gram + bacteria

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23
Q

Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim or Bactrim DS)
interactions

A

potentiate hypoglycemic effects of sulfonylureas for diabetics, toxic effects of phenytoin, and the anticoagulant effects of warfarin which could lead to hemorrhage. Could increase the likelihood of cyclosporine-induced nephrotoxicity. Reduce efficacy of birth control.

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24
Q

Dose Range for Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim or Bactrim DS)

A

IV/PO 8-20 mg per day divided into to 2 doses

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25
Furosemide
Lasix
26
Furosemide CLASS
LOOP DIURETIC
27
Furosemide DOSE
IM/IV 20-40 MG/dose PO 20-120mg/day
28
Furosemide indications
pulmonary edema, liver disease, edema associated with heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, ascites, and sometimes heart failure.
29
Furosemide MOA
Work on the thick ascending side of the loop of Henle, blocking chloride, and secondarily blocking sodium reabsorption. Maybe also activate renal prostaglandins, which dilate the renal blood vessels.
30
Furosemide contraindications
drug allergy, hepatic coma, severe electrolyte loss, anuria, hypovolemia, electorlyte depletion, has black box warning, regarding fluid and electrolyte loss. Pregnancy categorey C. Hypersensitivity to sulfonamides. If given via IV, need to go slow so not to have ototoxic effect.
31
Furosemide adverse reactions
dizziness, headache, tinnitus, blurred vision, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, agranulocytosis, neutropenia, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, and hyperuricemia.
32
hyperuricemia
Hyperuricemia is an elevated uric acid level in the blood. The normal upper limit is 6.8mg/dL, and anything over 7 mg/dL is considered saturated, and symptoms can occur. This elevated level is the result of increased production, decreased excretion of uric acid, or a combination of both processes.
33
Agranulocytosis
Agranulocytosis is a condition in which the absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is less than 100 neutrophils per microliter of blood.
34
Oxybutynin (Ditropan) class
Cholinergic blocking drug
35
Oxybutynin (Ditropan) indication
overactive bladder and anitspasmodic for neurigenic bladder associated with spinal cord injuries, and congenital issues such as spinabifida.
36
Oxybutynin (Ditropan) contraindications
drug allergy, urinary or gastric retention, uncontrolled angular glaucoma,
37
Oxybutynin (Ditropan) administration/dose
patch PO 5 MG BID-QID ER tabs 5-30 mg/day transdermal patch 3.9 mg/day
38
Finasteride (Proscar) indication
benign prostatic hyperplasia male andogenetic alopecia
39
Finasteride (Proscar) class
5-alpha reductase inhibitor
40
Finasteride (Proscar) MOA
Since dihydrotestosterone (DHT) is the more potent form and the form that stimulates prostate growth, reducing it reduces the growth rate of the prostate. Finasteride stops testosterone from becoming DHT, by inhibiting the enzyme 5-alpha reductase.
41
Finasteride (Proscar) Contraindications
NOT FOR PEOPLE WITH UTERUSES/WOMEN (handle with glove) or people who are allergic/hypersensitive
42
Finasteride (Proscar) dose range
BPH 5 MG DAILY PO BALD 1 MG PO DAILY
43
Finasteride (Proscar) ADVERSE REACTIONS
gynecomastia, inc prostate cancer risk, dec libido, dec ejaculate, dec fertility, and ED
44
Tamsulosin (Flomax) indications
treat benign prostate hyperplasia, and sometimes for female kidney stones
45
Tamsulosin (Flomax) MOA
block alpha adrenergic receptors on smooth muscle with in the prostate and bladder
46
Tamsulosin (Flomax) DOSE RANGE
0.4mg daily primarily, and after 2 weeks can go up to 0.8mg daily
47
Tamsulosin (Flomax) CONTRAINDICATIONS
known allergy and ED drugs
48
Tamsulosin (Flomax) ADVERSE REACTIONS
headache, abnormal ejaculate, rhinitis, tachycardia, edema, palpitations, orthostatic hypotension, chest pain, dizziness, nausea, abdominal pain, incontinence, dry mouth, pharyngitis, weakness, fatigue,
49
Tamsulosin (Flomax) CLASS
Alpha blocker
50
Agonists bind to a receptor and cause a
response
51
antagonists bind to a receptor and ??
block stimulation
52
receptor sites for epinephrine and norepinephrine
adrenergic receptors
53
The alpha adrenergic-blocking drugs (alpha blockers) interrupt stimulation of the
SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM at the alpha 1 adrenergic receptors which are located on tissue muscle or organ that the nerve is stimulating.
54
Alpha 1 receptors are located
on tissue muscle or organ (post synaptic effector cells)
55
smooth muscle
involuntary muscle
56
Three main classes of drugs that treat angine pectoris
NITRATES AND NITRITES BETA BLOCKERS CALCIUM CHANNEL BLOCKERS
57
What does nitroglycerin treat?
angina pectoris
58
What does captopril treat?
HYPERTENSION (lower bp) HEART FAILURE DIABETIC NEUROPATHY IN TYPE 1
59
How does Captopril work
Block the conversion of Angiotension I to angiotension II. Prevents the degradation of bradykinin and other vasodilating prostaglandins.
60
What is a prostaglandin
The prostaglandins are a group of lipids made at sites of tissue damage or infection that are involved in dealing with injury and illness.
61
what is amlodipine used for?
to treat hypertension, chronic angina, vasospastic angina, coronary afib without HF or and angioejection of < 40%
62
What is Diltazam used for
angina pectoris from coronary insufficiency AFIB w/ paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
63
what does metoprolol treat
hypertension angina pectoris
64
hemoptysis
spitting up blood from bronchiole tubes
65
dumping syndrome
rapid gastric emptying
66
secondary intention wound healing
heals by itself
67
primary intention wound healing
stitched, stapled or glued together
68
tertiary wound healing
needs to be closed at a later time to avoid trapping infection inside
69
aplastic anemia
when the body stops producing enough new blood cells. Can lead to uncontrolled bleeding, prone to infection, and fatigue.
70
comminuted fracture
bone breaks into in atleast two places
71
pernicious anemia
B12 deficiency
72
Addison's disease
when the adrenals produce too little cortisol and aldosterone
73
renal calculi
kidney stone, normally no permanent damage is done. Drink lots of water to help pass.
74
Myasthenia gravis
an autoimmune neuromuscular disease that causes weakness in the skeletal muscle, worsens after periods of activity and feels better after rest.
75
Symptoms of Basilar skull fracture
raccoon eyes, halo sign, loss of smell and vision, battle sign, loss of hearing, loss of balance
76
Brachytherapy
A sealed radiation source is put inside the body near the area that needs to be treated.
77
Symptoms of pneumothorax
stabbing chest pain breathing in, fatigue, blueish skin,rapid breathing and heartbeat, dry hacking cough
78
Therapeutic use of prednisone
corticosteroids are to alleviate swelling, itching, redness, and allergic reactions.
79
Meniere's disease
a build-up of fluid in the chambers of the inner ear, causes vomiting and dizzyness
80
Which skin cancer is most deadly?
melanoma
81
Normal ABG LEVELS
pH 7.35-7.45 PaCO2 35-45 mmHg Pa O2 75-100 mmHg
82
parathyroid
the endocrine gland that controls how much calcium is in our blood. Everyone should have four at the base of the neck
83
primary prevention
prevent disease before it happens (immunization)
84
secondary prevention
detect a disease early and stop it (breast exam)
85
tertiary
managing and avoiding the progression of a known disease (diabetes support and education for diabetics)
86
wound evisceration
organs come out through the wound stitches, normally the stomach
87
Histamine is released
when an antibody IgE triggers it. Histamine causes itching, bronchoconstriction, and inflammation.
88
paracentesis
perforation of a cavity or cyst of the body to drain fluid or gas, performed with a hollow needle.
89
normal hematocrit levels
men 41-50% women 36-48%
90
What test result can indicate diabetes insipidus
low specific gravity (1.001-1.003) Polyuria can be a sign due to low antidiuretic hormone
91
Normal level of urine specific gravity
1.005-1.030
92
manifestations of MI
Nausea, pain in the jaw, shoulder, and chest or abdomen.
93
Serum lipase levels
10-140 adults under60 20-151 adults > 60 elevated levels three times the normal amount can indicate acute pancreatitis
94
Manifestations of a hypervolemic syndrome
tachycardia, dyspnea a cough and distended neck veins
95
mannitol
osmotic diuretic
96
serum osmolarity range
275 - 295 mOsm/L (blood sample is from a vein)