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Psyc 381 Athabasca > Test Bank Questions chapter 1-14 > Flashcards

Test Bank Questions chapter 1-14 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Ageism is
    a. a form of discrimination against older adults simply due to their age.
    b. a form of negative stereotype against older adults because of their age.
    c. a form of prejudice against older adults because of their race.
    d. a form of myth about older adults that is highly positive.
A

The correct answer is: a form of discrimination against older adults simply due to their age.

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2
Q
  1. Four forces shape development. Which one of the following is not a developmental force?
    a. life-cycle
    b. psychological
    c. biological
    d. histological
A

The correct answer is: histological

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3
Q
  1. Normative history-graded influences are events that
    a. are unique to each person.
    b. occur at a specific age for each person.
    c. generally occur around the same age for most people.
    d. generally occur during a specific time period for most people.
A

The correct answer is: generally occur during a specific time period for most people.

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4
Q
  1. Developmental change in adulthood that is related to disease is termed
    a. primary aging.
    b. secondary aging.
    c. tertiary aging.
    d. holistic aging.
A

The correct answer is: secondary aging

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5
Q
  1. A continuity view involves the _____ of a characteristic a person has.
    a. amount
    b. kind
    c. plasticity
    d. stability
A

The correct answer is: amount

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6
Q
  1. Questionnaires and interviews are examples of _____ techniques.
    a. observational
    b. correlational
    c. sampling
    d. self-report
A

The correct answer is: self-report

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7
Q
  1. Correlational studies
    a. are effective with variables that cannot be manipulated.
    b. provide important information about the strength of relationships between variables.
    c. cannot provide information concerning causation.
    d. have all of these characteristics
A

The correct answer is: have all of these characteristics

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8
Q
  1. In a _____ design, groups of participants varying in age are studied at one point in time.
    a. cross-sectional
    b. longitudinal
    c. cross-sequential
    d. longitudinal-sequential
A

The correct answer is: cross-sectional

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9
Q
  1. In a _____ design, one group of participants is studied repeatedly over a period of time.
    a. cross-sectional
    b. longitudinal
    c. cross-sequential
    d. longitudinal-sequential
A

b. longitudinal

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10
Q
  1. In this type of sequential design, cohort and time of measurement effects are examined.
    a. cross-sequential
    b. time-sequential
    c. time-lag sequential
    d. longitudinal sequential
A

The correct answer is: longitudinal sequential

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11
Q
  1. The neuroscience approach offers a new level of analysis to understanding _____ and _____ functioning.
    a. cognitive; social-emotional
    b. cellular; occupational
    c. systematic; interpretations
    d. cross-linking; brain
A

The correct answer is: cognitive; social-emotional

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12
Q
  1. MRI focuses on the _____ of the brain.
    a. blood flow
    b. structure
    c. images
    d. wrinkles
A

The correct answer is: structure

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13
Q
  1. Processing speed _____ rapidly as people age.
    a. increases
    b. declines
    c. distorts
    d. inclines
A

The correct answer is: declines

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14
Q
  1. The sensory cortices, such as the visual cortex, show relatively little _____.
    a. shrinkage
    b. decline
    c. white matter
    d. intensity
A

The correct answer is: shrinkage

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15
Q
  1. The majority of evidence suggests that age-related change in _____ regions of the brain correlates with executive dysfunction and memory decline.
    a. frontal
    b. cortex
    c. cerebellum
    d. Hippocampus
A

The correct answer is: frontal

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16
Q
  1. The most important components of the limbic system include the hippocampus and the ___________.
    a. prefrontal cortex
    b. cerebellum
    c. amygdala
    d. corpus callosum
A

The correct answer is: amygdala

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17
Q
  1. Evidence has shown that the _____ in frontal activity in older adults might be a response to the _____ efficiency of neural processing related to the perceptual areas of the brain.
    a. increase; increased
    b. decrease; increased
    c. function; increased
    d. increase; decreased
A

The correct answer is: increase; decreased

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18
Q
  1. Which one of the following parts of the brain is preserved from aging?
    a. amygdala
    b. occipital
    c. parietal
    d. prefrontal
A

The correct answer is: amygdala

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following areas of the brain is associated with automatic social cognition?
    a. basal ganglia
    b. frontal lobe
    c. cortex
    d. occipital
A

The correct answer is: basal ganglia

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20
Q
  1. Which region implicated in emotional processing?
    a. cerebellum
    b. sensorimotor area
    c. hippocampus
    d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex
A

The correct answer is: ventromedial prefrontal cortex

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21
Q
  1. Ageism is
    a. a form of discrimination against older adults simply due to their age.
    b. a form of negative stereotype against older adults because of their age.
    c. a form of prejudice against older adults because of their race.
    d. a form of myth about older adults that is highly positive.
A

The correct answer is: a form of discrimination against older adults simply due to their age.

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22
Q
  1. Questionnaires and interviews are examples of _____ techniques.
    a. observational
    b. correlational
    c. sampling
    d. self-report
A

The correct answer is: self-report

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23
Q
  1. Age changes are studied most effectively using a _____ design.
    a. cross-sectional
    b. longitudinal
    c. time-lag
    d. sequential
A

The correct answer is: longitudinal

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24
Q
  1. All genetic and health-related factors that affect development are known as
    a. life-cycle forces.
    b. psychological forces.
    c. biological forces.
    d. histological forces.
A

The correct answer is: biological forces.

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following is a non-normative influence on behaviour?
    a. when one’s first marriage occurs
    b. being a “baby boomer”
    c. having a child
    d. winning the lottery
A

The correct answer is: winning the lottery

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26
Q
  1. Which two effects are confounded in cross-sectional research?
    a. age and cohort
    b. age and time-of-measurement
    c. cohort and time-of-measurement
    d. cohort and practice
A

The correct answer is: age and cohort

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27
Q
  1. A _____ design combines two or more cross-sectional designs.
    a. cross-sequential
    b. longitudinal
    c. cross-sectional
    d. longitudinal sequential
A

The correct answer is: cross-sequential

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28
Q
  1. A study that focuses on the description of the relationship between cognitive development and personality development is an example of
    a. a self-report study.
    b. an observational study.
    c. an experiment.
    d. a correlational study.
A

The correct answer is: a correlational study.

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29
Q
  1. Dr. Geri Atrics wants to survey people 21 and 90 years old to get their opinions concerning financial aid to college students. Which research design is Dr. Atrics most likely to use?
    a. cross-sectional
    b. longitudinal
    c. time-lag
    d. sequential
A

The correct answer is: cross-sectional

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30
Q
  1. Manipulation is a fundamental component of
    a. correlational techniques.
    b. naturalistic inquiry.
    c. observation.
    d. experimentation.
A

The correct answer is: experimentation.

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31
Q
  1. The sensory cortices, such as the visual cortex, show relatively little _____ with age.
    a. shrinkage
    b. decline
    c. white matter
    d. intensity
A

The correct answer is: shrinkage

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a model that explains brain changes across adulthood?
    a. STAC
    b. HAROLD
    c. P-FIT
    d. CRUNCH
A

The correct answer is: P-FIT

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33
Q
  1. Neuroscience has dedicated most of its effort to the
    a. right axon.
    b. frontal lobe.
    c. cerebral cortex.
    d. focal area.
A

The correct answer is: cerebral cortex.

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34
Q
  1. The cingulate cortex is affiliated with the prefrontal cortex, and is involved in _____ processing.
    a. cognitive
    b. emotionally neutral
    c. emotionally negative
    d. emotionally positive
A

The correct answer is: emotionally positive

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35
Q
  1. A form of compensation from the neuroscience perspective that refers to the ability to compensate for declining performance from a behavioural perspective, or to the reorganization of neural circuitry, is commonly referred to as
    a. neurofibrillary.
    b. neuropsychology.
    c. neural adaptation.
    d. plasticity.
A

The correct answer is: plasticity.

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36
Q
  1. According to the STAC model, older adults might have trouble suppressing
    a. the default network.
    b. the prefrontal cortex.
    c. perceptual cortex.
    d. the CRUNCH response.
A

The correct answer is: the default network.

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37
Q
  1. Research has found that declines in the dopaminergic system are related to declines in _____ memory and _____ tasks.
    a. long-term; speed
    b. semantic; attention
    c. episodic; thought
    d. episodic; speed
A

The correct answer is: episodic; speed

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38
Q
  1. Which approach attempts to link measures of cognitive performance to measures of brain structure or functioning?
    a. neurocorrelational
    b. psychological
    c. neuropsychological
    d. neurobiological
A

The correct answer is: neurocorrelational

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39
Q
  1. Activation of both left and right prefrontal areas of the brain is called _____ activation.
    a. bilateral
    b. symmetrical
    c. multilateral
    d. balanced
A

The correct answer is: bilateral

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40
Q
  1. Executive functioning in older adults has been linked to
    a. decreased volume in the prefrontal cortex.
    b. all of the alternatives.
    c. increases in WMH.
    d. decreased volume in the cerebellum.
A

The correct answer is: all of the alternatives.

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41
Q
  1. Compare and contrast the three neuroscience perspectives, and explain how they promote theoretical development in the field of aging.
A
  1. the neuropsychological
  2. the neuro-correlational
  3. the activation imaging approach
    these perspectives promote theoretical development because age related changes (structure and functioning) can assist in exposing why certain adults have a decline in cognitive functioning while others do not. They attempt to connect parts and functions of the brain with behaviour, performance that is observed which provides a picture of the impact aging has on the brain
    They all look at what is happening in the brain, but from different lenses. One is a comparison approach, another is a structure approach and the last utilizes technology to get a real time picture of what is happening in the brain. All of this information is used to explain, understand cognitive decline and changes in older adults.
  4. neuropsychological approach
    • compares brain functioning of healthy older adults with adults who have pathological disorders in the brain.
    • promote development in aging by being able to relate damage in a specific area with a decline in cognitive functioning by comparisons
    • provides insight into unfavourable cognitive changes by correlating research
    • provides information on intervention strategies
  5. The neurocorrelational approach
    • related measures of cognitive performance to measures of brain structure or functioning
    • focus on the structure of the brain, not necessarily damage
    • it links measures of behavioural performance to measures of neural structure
  6. The activation imaging approach
    • links functional brain activity with behavioural data.
    • real-time investigation of changes
    • dependent on neuroimaging techniques (fMRI)
    • can show the brains activation for a comparison between younger adults and older adults, bilateral activation or unilateral activation
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42
Q
  1. Focusing on diet as having a role in aging is one aspect of
    a. wear-and-tear theories.
    b. cellular theories.
    c. programmed-cell-death theories.
    d. rate-of-living theories.
A

The correct answer is: rate-of-living theories.

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43
Q
  1. Most facial wrinkling experienced by adults is
    a. due to smoking.
    b. due to programmed genetic changes.
    c. due to the overuse of facial cosmetics.
    d. preventable.
A

The correct answer is: preventable.

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44
Q
  1. The leading cause of broken bones in women is
    a. osteoarthritis.
    b. osteoporosis.
    c. vitamin E deficiency.
    d. skeletosis.
A

The correct answer is: osteoporosis.

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a normative age-related change in vision?
    a. difficulty discriminating different levels of illumination
    b. glaucoma
    c. increased sensitivity to glare
    d. decreased ability to focus on nearby objects
A

The correct answer is: glaucoma

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46
Q
  1. Reduced sensitivity to high-pitched tones is known as
    a. presbyopia.
    b. presbycusis.
    c. retinopathy.
    d. vestibular atrophy.
A

The correct answer is: presbycusis.

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47
Q
  1. The best conclusion concerning changes in taste sensitivity with age is that such changes
    a. are extensive.
    b. begin in young adulthood.
    c. only occur for sweet tastes.
    d. are rather minimal.
A

The correct answer is: are rather minimal.

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48
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true?
    a. Atherosclerosis involves fat deposits in the veins.
    b. Atherosclerosis is rarely life threatening.
    c. Most people do not know if they have hypertension.
    d. Hypertension is never a result of atherosclerosis.
A

The correct answer is: Most people do not know if they have hypertension.

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49
Q
  1. Understanding a person’s overall health requires an understanding of biological functioning and
    a. psychological functioning.
    b. sociocultural functioning.
    c. life-cycle forces.
    d. all of the alternatives.
A

The correct answer is: all of the alternatives.

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50
Q
  1. The most common type of heart disease in older adults that results in hospitalization is
    a. congestive heart failure.
    b. cardiac arrhythmia.
    c. arteriosclerosis.
    d. myocardial infarction.
A

The correct answer is: congestive heart failure.

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51
Q
  1. As people age, their ability to regulate body temperature
    a. declines.
    b. shows no change.
    c. improves.
    d. not enough research to answer.
A

The correct answer is: declines.

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52
Q
  1. The age at which half of the individuals who are born in a particular year will have died is called
    a. maximum longevity.
    b. average longevity.
    c. intrinsic longevity.
    d. extrinsic longevity.
A

The correct answer is: average longevity.

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53
Q
  1. The degree to which an individual is attached to his or her present life is known as
    a. valuation of life.
    b. quality of life.
    c. active life expectancy.
    d. optimal lifestyle.
A

The correct answer is: valuation of life.

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54
Q
  1. The process by which the body attacks itself is called
    a. the autoantibodic process.
    b. autolymphomosis.
    c. the reverse immunity syndrome.
    d. autoimmunity.
A

The correct answer is: autoimmunity.

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55
Q
  1. Evaluating your ability to control and cope with harm, threat, or challenge is what occurs during
    a. primary appraisal.
    b. secondary appraisal.
    c. coping.
    d. adaptation
A

The correct answer is: secondary appraisal.

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56
Q
  1. Prevention and treatment of diabetes among older adults involves
    a. increasing the intake of sugars.
    b. increasing red wine consumption.
    c. increasing exercise.
    d. decreasing smoking.
A

The correct answer is: increasing exercise.

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57
Q
  1. The most common form of cancer for men is _______, and for women is ________.
    a. colon; breast
    b. lung; colon
    c. lung; breast
    d. prostate; breast
A

The correct answer is: prostate; breast

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58
Q
  1. 85-year-old Elizabeth has recently begun to lose control of her bladder, which has led to several embarrassing situations when she has been out with friends. Elizabeth is suffering from
    a. Crohn’s disease.
    b. irritable bowel syndrome.
    c. incontinence.
    d. hormonal enuresis.
A

The correct answer is: incontinence.

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59
Q
  1. Older adults are more likely to engage in_____, the taking of multiple medications, than younger adults.
    a. multiple pharmacy
    b. polypharmacy
    c. self-medication
    d. multiple medication
A

The correct answer is: polypharmacy

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60
Q
  1. Which of the following are not part of the disablement process proposed by Verbrugge & Jette
    a. risk factors
    b. personal factors
    c. extraindividual factors
    d. intraindividual factors
A

The correct answer is: personal factors

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61
Q
  1. The self-care tasks of eating, bathing, dressing, and walking are termed
    a. functional activities of daily living.
    b. instrumental activities of daily living.
    c. activities of daily living.
    d. disabilities of daily living.
A

The correct answer is: activities of daily living.

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62
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true?
    a. Atherosclerosis involves fat deposits in the veins.
    b. Atherosclerosis is rarely life threatening.
    c. Most people do not know if they have hypertension.
    d. Hypertension is never a result of atherosclerosis.
A

The correct answer is: Most people do not know if they have hypertension.

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63
Q
  1. As people age, their ability to regulate body temperature
    a. declines.
    b. shows no change.
    c. improves.
    d. not enough research to answer.
A

The correct answer is: declines.

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64
Q
  1. The most important negative influence on hearing loss is
    a. age.
    b. noise.
    c. injury.
    d. weight.
A

The correct answer is: noise.

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65
Q
  1. _________ declines steadily starting at age 20, and rapidly after the age of 60.
    a. Acuity
    b. Light adaptation
    c. Dark adaptation
    d. Retinopathy
A

The correct answer is: Acuity

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66
Q
  1. The ability to smell
    a. remains unchanged throughout life.
    b. declines slowly from age 30.
    c. actually improves as age increases.
    d. usually declines only after age 60.
A

The correct answer is: usually declines only after age 60.

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67
Q
  1. Going from inside a dark movie theatre back out into the sunshine requires
    a. light adaptation.
    b. dark adaptation.
    c. presbyopia.
    d. accommodation.
A

The correct answer is: light adaptation.

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68
Q
  1. One consequence of aging in the cardiovascular system is
    a. greater elasticity and flexibility of the arteries.
    b. a decrease in overall blood pressure.
    c. a reduction of the heart’s pumping capacity.
    d. blockage of cardiac arteries.
A

The correct answer is: a reduction of the heart’s pumping capacity

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69
Q
  1. The best conclusion concerning age differences in pain sensitivity is that
    a. pain sensitivity increases with age.
    b. pain sensitivity decreases with age.
    c. pain sensitivity is constant throughout life.
    d. pain sensitivity varies across body locations and with types of stimulation.
A

The correct answer is: pain sensitivity varies across body locations and with types of stimulation.

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70
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a reproductive change in women?
    a. significant decreases in hormonal levels
    b. significant decrease in sexual desire
    c. shrinking and thinning of the vaginal wall
    d. longer time needed to reach orgasm
A

The correct answer is: significant decrease in sexual desire

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71
Q
  1. When reading a research journal, a 46-year-old professor finds that she must hold it farther away to read the fine print. She is experiencing which normal age-related change in vision?
    a. presbycusis
    b. retinopathy
    c. presbyopia
    d. dysthermia
A

The correct answer is: presbyopia

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72
Q
  1. Older adults are more likely to engage in_____, the taking of multiple medications, than younger adults.
    a. multiple pharmacy
    b. polypharmacy
    c. self-medication
    d. multiple medication
A

The correct answer is: polypharmacy

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73
Q
  1. Which of the following are not part of the disablement process proposed by Verbrugge and Jette
    a. risk factors
    b. personal factors
    c. extraindividual factors
    d. intraindividual factors
A

The correct answer is: personal factors

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74
Q
  1. The difficulty in completing the daily activities of living due to a chronic condition is known as
    a. a long-term illness.
    b. medical pathology.
    c. a disability.
    d. psychoneuroimmunology.
A

The correct answer is: a disability.

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75
Q
  1. Viewing stress as the interaction between a person and an event is known as
    a. psychoanalytical theory.
    b. person-event paradigm.
    c. interactional stress theory.
    d. stress and coping paradigm.
A

The correct answer is: stress and coping paradigm.

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76
Q
  1. An example of an extraindividual intervention is
    a. beginning an exercise program.
    b. keeping a positive outlook.
    c. taking advantage of transportation programs to increase mobility.
    d. surgery.
A

The correct answer is: surgery.

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77
Q
  1. All of the following are chronic conditions, except
    a. arthritis.
    b. diabetes.
    c. cancer.
    d. influenza
A

The correct answer is: influenza.

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78
Q
  1. The oldest age to which any individual of a species lives is called
    a. maximum longevity.
    b. average longevity.
    c. intrinsic longevity.
    d. extrinsic longevity.
A

the correct answer is: maximum longevity.

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79
Q
  1. Due to physiological changes, older adults are at risk for all of the following except
    a. increased side effects from medication.
    b. increased risk of toxic effects from medication.
    c. slower absorption of medication.
    d. faster excretion of medication.
A

The correct answer is: faster excretion of medication.

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80
Q
  1. A secondary appraisal involves
    a. making a new primary appraisal.
    b. evaluating your ability to cope.
    c. reassessing an event as benign, positive, or irrelevant.
    d. making a secondary appraisal of an event.
A

The correct answer is: evaluating your ability to cope.

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81
Q
  1. The condition of urinary incontinence in older adults
    a. is found in over 90% of the population.
    b. can often be treated through behavioural methods.
    c. is the result of an increase in stress.
    d. can be treated successfully with growth hormone.
A

The correct answer is: can often be treated through behavioural methods.

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82
Q
  1. Describe the changes in hearing associated with aging. What are the psychological consequences of changes in hearing? Provide examples.
A

Hearing changes associated with age:
• reduced sensitivity to high-pitched tones that results from changes in the inner ear ( presbycusis)
• loss of sensitivity to low-pitched tones
• Exposure to noise speeds up and exacerbates hearing loss.
• Ear canals can collapse due to atrophy of the supporting cartilage and decreased skin elasticity in the ear canal
• degeneration within the inner ear and along the nerve pathways (related to hair cells) impacts hearing.
• This can have a great effect on adults, feeling them with frustration and embarrassment at not being able to understand what is being said.
• Pride and self esteem are impacted as the adult must come to terms with interventions to assist with hearing, which can be difficult because they are a visual reminder of what is lost (hearing aid)
• hearing is a vital component in social communication, a lack of hearing can have a drastic effect on a persons quality of life.
• It can cause emotional adverse reactions such as isolation, depression, paranoia, irritabolitplays a major role in social communication, its progressive loss could have an equally important effect on people’s quality of life.
• Loss of hearing in later life can also cause numerous adverse emotional reactions, such as loss of independence, social isolation, irritation, paranoia, and depression.

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83
Q
  1. How are health and illness defined? How is health typically measured? How is quality of life defined and measured?
A

Health is defined as a state of complete physical, mental, and social well- being. Health does not simply refer to the absence of disease. Health can refer to the absence of chronic physical conditions, mental disease or impairment. Defined through observational and self report techniques.
Health Related Quality of Life - includes physical and mental health perceptions such as energy, mood, emotional well being and things that correlate - health conditions, risks, social supports etc. It also includes community resources that influence a persons functional state. w
At the opposite spectrum, non health related quality of life references the environment (arts, economic, entertainment) that affects the overall experience and enjoyment of life.
Illness is the presence of a physical or mental disease or impairment.
Quality of life is a subjective judgment which needs to be understood in a broader context of adult development and aging. referring to peoples perceptions about their life and their position in relation to the core values, expectations, wishes and goals. This includes both the positive and negative aspects. This multidimensional concept is often measured by self evaluation, looking at biological, psychological an sociocultural characteristics
- describing the strengths and use of the strengths in relation to age related changes
-including physical and mental health when assessing quality
-utilizing the SOC model to manage aging successfully
Assessment:
Functional health status - determines how well the person is functioning in daily life and requires very careful assessment in order to differentiate the tasks a person reports he or she can do, tasks a person can demonstrate in a clinic t and tasks the person actually does at home.

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84
Q
  1. The theoretical upper limit of our capacity to function is called
    a. performance.
    b. adjustment.
    c. adaptation.
    d. competence.
A

The correct answer is: competence.

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85
Q
  1. The PCP model of person-environment interactions by Kahana emphasizes the core concept of
    a. competence.
    b. environmental stress.
    c. personal factors.
    d. proactive adaptations.
A

The correct answer is: proactive adaptations

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86
Q
  1. A person’s potential ability to perform a wide range of activities considered essential for independent living is known as
    a. activities of daily living.
    b. instrumental activities of daily living.
    c. everyday competence.
    d. environmental competence.
A

The correct answer is: everyday competence.

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87
Q
  1. When deciding the optimal environment, the first step is to decide whether the individual has significant cognitive or _____ impairments that require intervention.
    a. physiological
    b. social
    c. mental
    d. physical
A

The correct answer is: physical

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88
Q
  1. Traditional congregate housing differs from assisted living in terms of the
    a. level of impairment required.
    b. level of dietary restrictions.
    c. level of services.
    d. level of assistance needed.
A

The correct answer is: level of services.

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89
Q
  1. Over a lifetime, ________ of women will spend time in long-term care, compared to ______ for men.
    a. 50%; 30%
    b. 30% 50%
    c. 40%; 60%
    d. 60%; 40%
A

The correct answer is: 50%; 30%

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90
Q
  1. The major reason for placement in a nursing home is
    a. the lack of other caregivers.
    b. financial.
    c. health.
    d. personal choice.
A

The correct answer is: health.

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91
Q
  1. The circumstances that facilitate feeling “at home” while living in a nursing home include all of the following, except
    a. participating in the placement decision.
    b. having prior knowledge of the facility.
    c. focusing on autonomy and personal objects.
    d. focusing on family and social relationships.
A

The correct answer is: focusing on autonomy and personal objects.

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92
Q
  1. One of the nurses at a nursing home always speaks to Joan in a way she feels is belittling. She often says things such as: “Joanie, dear, we need to get you ready for the day, so hurry, hurry” or “Uh-oh sweetie, it looks like you have made a big mess here. We better get this cleaned up quickly.” This type of speech is known as
    a. stereotypical speech.
    b. insulting.
    c. patronizing speech.
    d. infantilization.
A

The correct answer is: infantilization.

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93
Q
  1. The concept that skilled care environments for frail older adults are habitats rather than facilities for the frail is the philosophy behind
    a. the Americans with Disabilities Act.
    b. the Eden Alternative.
    c. the Pioneer Network.
    d. the Nursing Home Bill of Rights.
A

The correct answer is: the Eden Alternative.

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94
Q
  1. The negative effects of job loss
    a. tend to be greater for younger men.
    b. tend to be greater for middle-aged men.
    c. tend to be greater for older men.
    d. are equal across all groups.
A

The correct answer is: tend to be greater for middle-aged men.

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95
Q
  1. The negative effects of retirement on health depend primarily on
    a. whether retirement was forced or voluntary.
    b. your education level.
    c. your socio-economic status.
    d. your gender.
A

The correct answer is: whether retirement was forced or voluntary.

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96
Q
  1. Career construction theory says careers are built through actions occur at the interface between
    a. personal characteristics and the social context.
    b. the social context and self-efficacy.
    c. the biological context and the psychological context.
    d. none of these alternatives.
A

The correct answer is: personal characteristics and the social context.

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97
Q
  1. The two additional variables added to form the six variable model of the social cognitive career theory were
    a. self-efficacy and outcome expectations.
    b. interests and career goals.
    c. supports and barriers.
    d. finances and education.
A

The correct answer is: supports and barriers.

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98
Q
  1. A main barrier to women making it to the top of their career is
    a. role overload.
    b. role conflict.
    c. lack of interest.
    d. gender discrimination.
A

The correct answer is: gender discrimination.

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99
Q
  1. When a person loses their occupational idealism, feels like they are being exploited, it is termed
    a. alienation.
    b. burnout.
    c. stress.
A

The correct answer is: burnout.

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100
Q
  1. In the US, people over the age of _____ are legally protected against age discrimination.
    a. 40
    b. 50
    c. 60
    d. 70
A

The correct answer is: 40

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101
Q
  1. According to the research, mentorships have value for
    a. mentors only.
    b. workers only.
    c. both workers and mentors.
    d. no one.
A

The correct answer is: both workers and mentors.

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102
Q
  1. Longitudinal studies of leisure activities show that there is
    a. variability as a result of physical changes over time.
    b. stability over long periods of time.
    c. variability as a result of sensory changes over time.
    d. variability as a result of financial changes over time.
A

The correct answer is: stability over long periods of time.

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103
Q
  1. In nearly _____ of two-parent households with children under the age of 6, both parents work outside the home.
    a. 60%
    b. 50%
    c. 70%
    d. 40%
A

The correct answer is: 60%

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104
Q
  1. When deciding the optimal environment, the first step is to decide whether the individual has significant cognitive or _____ impairments that require intervention.
    a. physiological
    b. social
    c. mental
    d. physical
A

The correct answer is: physical

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105
Q
  1. The theoretical upper limit of our capacity to function is called
    b. adjustment.
    c. adaptation.
    d. competence.
A

The correct answer is: competence.

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106
Q
  1. Care facilities that provide a supportive environment to persons with moderate to severe dementia are known as
    a. nursing homes.
    b. assisted living facilities.
    c. special care units.
    d. psychiatric hospitals.
A

The correct answer is: special care units.

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107
Q
  1. A facility that provides assistance with personal care, such as assistance with medication, housekeeping, laundry service, and meals, but does not provide major medical care, is called
    a. a nursing home.
    b. an assisted living facility.
    c. an adult family home.
    d. a psychiatric hospital.
A

The correct answer is: an assisted living facility.

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108
Q
  1. Many nursing homes still rely on a _____ approach of rules, routines, and requirements.
    a. skilled
    b. congruence
    c. traditional
    d. changed
A

The correct answer is: traditional

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109
Q
  1. Deciding on the best option involves assessing the ability of family members or friends to provide
    a. financial support.
    b. care and support.
    c. safety.
    d. love.
A

The correct answer is: care and support.

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110
Q
  1. The Pioneer Network focuses on
    a. changing the culture of aging in America, regardless of where older adults live.
    b. creating a habitat rather than facilities for the aging.
    c. providing variety in daily activities and spontaneity.
    d. all of these.
A

The correct answer is: changing the culture of aging in America, regardless of where older adults live.

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111
Q
  1. Based on the work of Groger, which of the following might actually facilitate adjustment to relocation?
    a. being homesick
    b. reminiscing about home
    c. forgetting about previous life and friends
    d. quickly deciding to relocate before there is too much time to think about it
A

The correct answer is: reminiscing about home

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112
Q
  1. The older individual needs to be an integral part of the decisions, especially when the outcome is likely to be
    a. a placement.
    b. a nursing home.
    c. assisted living
    d. all of these.
A

The correct answer is: all of these.

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113
Q
  1. In the communication enhancement model by Ryan and colleagues (1995), interchanges should recognize individualized cues and
    a. empower both older adults and health care workers.
    b. communication should be modified to suit individual needs and situations.
    c. appropriately assess health and social issues.
    d. include all of the alternatives
A

The correct answer is: include all of the alternatives.

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114
Q
  1. Longitudinal studies of leisure activities show that there is
    a. variability as a result of physical changes over time.
    b. stability over long periods of time.
    c. variability as a result of sensory changes over time.
    d. variability as a result of financial changes over time.
A

The correct answer is: stability over long periods of time.

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115
Q
  1. The two additional variables added to form the six variable model of the social cognitive career theory were
    a. self-efficacy and outcome expectations.
    b. interests and career goals.
    c. supports and barriers.
    d. finances and education.
A

The correct answer is: supports and barriers.

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116
Q
  1. The value of a mentorship is heavily dependent on
    a. the type of occupation.
    b. the quality of the mentor.
    c. the quality of the worker.
    d. all of these alternatives.
A

The correct answer is: the quality of the mentor.

117
Q
  1. Career plateauing refers to
    a. the lack of challenge in the job.
    b. the lack of promotional opportunity.
    c. the decision to not seek advancement.
    d. all of the above alternatives.
A

The correct answer is: all of the above alternatives.

118
Q
  1. Which type of leisure activities decline most across adulthood?
    a. physical
    b. social
    d. cultural
A

The correct answer is: physical

119
Q
  1. Women are more likely to be placed in leadership positions during times of organizational crisis — a move which makes their position precarious, and is referred to as a
    a. glass floor.
    b. glass cliff.
    c. glass ceiling.
    d. glass elevator.
A

The correct answer is: glass cliff.

120
Q
  1. Employed mothers have significantly less stress than employed non-mothers
    a. when they have high control over their jobs.
    b. when they have partners that provide good support.
    c. when they have the ability to adjust their work schedules.
    d. in all of these situations.
A

The correct answer is: in all of these situations.

121
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
    a. Retirement has taken on new and different meanings since the 2008 recession.
    b. Retirement is difficult to define since it involves the loss of occupational identity.
    c. Researchers view retirement as a transition with many complex pathways.
    d. Retirement for the general population was not really an option until the 1900s.
A

The correct answer is: Retirement for the general population was not really an option until the 1900s.

122
Q
  1. Reality shock is
    a. realizing that school is actually difficult.
    b. realizing that you must move away from home.
    c. discovering that you do not like your major.
    d. discovering that the real world does not work exactly like it says in a book.
A

The correct answer is: discovering that the real world does not work exactly like it says in a book.

123
Q
  1. Each of the following is one of the four common meanings of work, except
    a. developing self.
    b. union with others.
    c. expressing self.
    d. economic need.
A

The correct answer is: economic need.

124
Q
  1. Describe adult day care and the options it provides. What are the major issues when deciding to use adult day care? What is congregate housing? What is assisted living, and what are its primary attributes? How does congregate housing differ from assisted living?
A

adult day care provides support, companionship, and certain services during the day. This is used when more supports are needed beyond home notifications, but not to the extreme of full time basis care. This is often the case when the primary caregiver works full time or is not available during the day. It is also used to delay placement to a more forma; care setting, by providing an alternate choice that both encourages and enhances the clients self esteem and socialization.
Deciding to use adult day care is done when there is concerns around safety, when the caregiver has to take increasing amount of time off work to provide care, or relationship problems; careful screening is necessary and affordability is an issue that needs to be looked at.
Congregate housing includes a range of options from providing only housing to providing some level of medical services, with the most common form being an apartment complex that provides support and shared meals. Congregate housing differs from assisted living in the levels of services it is able to provide, and it is less expensive. keeping in mind that most of the residents need to be independent.
Assisted living is housing for older adults who need assistance with personal care, but who are not requiring 24 hour care for cognitive or physical impairments. There are 3 attributes that have been attributed to assisted living:
1. the physical environment is designed to be as much like a family house as possible - privacy, personal bathroom, enhance autonomy and independence.
2. emphasizes personal control, dignity, autonomy and allowing residence to exert control over their lives and schedule
3. meeting the residence routines and special needs, without requiring the high level of intensive nursing support. supports include transportation, socialization, etc…

125
Q
  1. Describe the gender differences in occupational choice. Describe the developmental changes in occupations that have occurred for women over the last century. Summarize the issues of ethnicity and occupational development.
A

Occupational choices are not available to all, gender creates barriers. Presently, almost 60% of women are in the labour force, which is down from the 90’s. In the past women were in female dominated positions such as secretary, social work, teaching, early because of their socialization into these fields. However, women are now entering what was traditionally male dominated positions, such as medical, engineering and trades. These numbers are still very low, but they are gaining. In the 21st century women accounted for more than half of all employees in professional and management occupations!
Women who enter these “male dominated role” encounter gender stereotyping, and they have been negatively viewed. In fact, in the US men still claim they prefer to date women in traditional roles.
Before, women had fewer fewer opportunities for employment choices, but now things are significantly different. Now, women are becoming entrepreneurs faster then men!!! Things are starting to change and will continue to do so, the characteristic of women entering the work force in the 1950’s is vastly different from today.
Research in ethnicity and occupational development shows that women do not differ significantly in relation to participating in non traditional occupations. African American women tend to be more educated and they plan to be more formally educated for their job than necessary. Latino Americans and European Americans are similar in their work values and occupational development.

126
Q
  1. The earliest step in information processing is
    a. attention.
    b. working memory.
    c. primary memory.
    d. sensory memory.
A

The correct answer is: sensory memory.

127
Q
  1. Winnie is busy taking notes from the slides presented during lecture and listening to the instructor. This is an example of
    a. attentional capacity.
    b. sustained attention.
    c. selective attention.
    d. divided attention.
A

The correct answer is: divided attention.

128
Q
  1. A small-capacity store that deals with the items currently in use is
    a. sensory memory.
    b. working memory.
    c. secondary memory.
    d. remote memory.
A

The correct answer is: working memory.

129
Q
  1. Implicit memory __________, and has been found to _________ with age.
    a. refers to the retrieval of information without conscious or intentional recollection; remain stable
    b. is based on intuition; improve
    c. is an intentional and conscious recollection of information; decline
    d. is also known as procedural memory; improve
A

The correct answer is: refers to the retrieval of information without conscious or intentional recollection; remain stable

130
Q
  1. Learning and remembering the meaning of words and concepts not tied to specific occurrences of events in time is
    a. sensory memory.
    b. episodic memory.
    c. semantic memory.
    d. remote memory.
A

The correct answer is: semantic memory.

131
Q
  1. Memory for events in your past is known as
    a. sensory memory.
    b. primary memory.
    c. long-term memory.
    d. autobiographical memory.
A

The correct answer is: autobiographical memory.

132
Q
  1. The ability to remember where an event was actually experienced or imagined is known as
    a. imaginary memory.
    b. false memory.
    c. source memory.
    d. explicit memory.
A

The correct answer is: source memory.

133
Q
  1. One way to distinguish between normal and abnormal changes in memory is to
    a. ask a friend or family member.
    b. watch the person in a naturalistic observation.
    c. determine whether memory problems are disrupting daily living tasks.
    d. assess memory using complex memory problems.
A

The correct answer is: determine whether memory problems are disrupting daily living tasks.

134
Q
  1. You have an hour break between classes, and you decide to go to the library and study. Your awareness of the time while studying is an example of
    a. metamemory.
    b. memory monitoring.
    c. on-line awareness.
    d. memory awareness.
A

The correct answer is: memory monitoring.

135
Q
  1. According to the E-I-E-I-O framework, using rehearsal to intentionally memorize a list of words for a quiz is
    a. explicit memory and external aid.
    b. implicit memory and external aid.
    c. explicit memory and internal aid.
    d. implicit memory and internal aid.
A

The correct answer is: explicit memory and internal aid.

136
Q
  1. Which approach to intelligence emphasizes scores on standardized tests?
    a. psychometric
    b. neofunctionalist
    c. cognitive
    d. applied
A

The correct answer is: psychometric

137
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a primary mental ability?
    a. verbal meaning
    b. inductive reasoning
    c. word fluency
    d. fluid intelligence
A

The correct answer is: fluid intelligence

138
Q
  1. Which of the following tests would not measure crystallized intelligence?
    a. vocabulary
    b. intentional learning
    c. comprehension
    d. inductive reasoning
A

The correct answer is: inductive reasoning

139
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a moderator of intellectual change?
    a. cohort
    b. educational level
    c. occupation
    d. gender
A

The correct answer is: gender

140
Q
  1. Education is an important predictor of all of the following, except
    a. fluid intelligence.
    b. crystallized intelligence.
    c. survivorship.
    d. lifestyle.
A

The correct answer is: lifestyle.

141
Q
  1. According to Piaget, what is responsible for cognitive development?
    a. changes in cognitive function
    b. changes in behaviour
    c. changes in cognitive structures
    d. changes in assimilation processes
A

The correct answer is: changes in cognitive structures

142
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of formal operations?
    a. hypothetico-deductive thought
    b. logical structure
    c. reality constraints
    d. one solution
A

The correct answer is: reality constraints

143
Q
  1. Realizing that there can be more than one right answer to a problem, and that they are dependent on situational circumstances, demonstrates ________ thinking, which is often associated with ______ adults.
    a. absolutist; younger
    b. absolutist; older
    c. relativistic; younger
    d. relativistic; older
A

The correct answer is: relativistic; younger

144
Q
  1. In the model by Denney, which of the following terms refers to the ability a normal healthy adult would exhibit with practice or training?
    a. optimally exercised ability
    b. pragmatic intelligence
    c. unexercised ability
    d. interindividual variability
A

The correct answer is: optimally exercised ability

145
Q
  1. According to Baltes, all of the following factors might be important in helping one become wise, except
    a. general personal conditions.
    b. specific expertise conditions.
    c. absolutist thinking.
    d. facilitative life contexts.
A

The correct answer is: absolutist thinking.

146
Q
  1. You have an hour break between classes, and you decide to go to the library and study. Your awareness of the time while studying is an example of
    a. metamemory.
    b. memory monitoring.
    c. on-line awareness.
    d. memory awareness.
A

The correct answer is: memory monitoring.

147
Q
  1. Memory for events in your past is known as
    a. sensory memory.
    b. primary memory.
    c. long-term memory.
    d. autobiographical memory.
A

The correct answer is: autobiographical memory.

148
Q
  1. Research on memories about personal health conducted by Coleman and colleagues, based on the Harvard Longitudinal Studies, showed that
    a. memories improved between ages 40 to 50.
    b. people at all ages performed poorly.
    c. memories about eating were more accurate.
    d. specific episodes were remembered best.
A

The correct answer is: memories improved between ages 40 to 50.

149
Q
  1. Memory for implicit material reveals that, in general, age differences are
    a. greater for explicit memory relative to implicit memory.
    b. smaller for explicit memory relative to implicit memory.
    c. are similar for explicit and implicit memory.
    d. only found on perceptual tasks.
A

The correct answer is: greater for explicit memory relative to implicit memory.

150
Q
  1. The best conclusion about age differences in retrieval is that
    a. older adults are less efficient when generating retrieval cues than younger adults.
    b. age differences are always eliminated in recognition tasks.
    c. age differences in retrieval are very small.
    d. older adults are more efficient when generating retrieval cues than younger adults.
A

The correct answer is: older adults are less efficient when generating retrieval cues than younger adults.

151
Q
  1. The type of memory having to do with time-dependent information is
    a. sensory memory.
    b. working memory.
    c. episodic memory.
    d. semantic memory.
A

The correct answer is: episodic memory.

152
Q
  1. Older adults are likely to have difficulties with _____, which involves remembering where a piece of information was acquired.
    a. false memory
    b. source memory
    c. flashbulb memory
    d. implicit memory
A

The correct answer is: source memory

153
Q
  1. The amount of attention that one has to apply in a given situation is known as ______, and it generally _______ with age.
    a. speed of processing; declines
    b. attentional capacity; improves
    c. resource capacity; declines
    d. processing resources; declines
A

The correct answer is: processing resources; declines

154
Q
  1. Answering a short-answer or essay question are examples of
    a. inference.
    b. recall.
    c. recognition.
    d. recapitulation.
A

The correct answer is: recall.

155
Q
  1. Older adults are more susceptible to scams and con artists because they are more susceptible to
    a. false memories.
    b. source memories.
    c. flashbulb memories.
    d. implicit memories.
A

The correct answer is: false memories.

156
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of formal operations?
    a. hypothetico-deductive thought
    b. logical structure
    c. reality constraints
    d. one solution
A

The correct answer is: reality constraints

157
Q
  1. In the model by Denney, which of the following terms refers to the ability a normal healthy adult would exhibit with practice or training?
    a. optimally exercised ability
    b. pragmatic intelligence
    c. unexercised ability
    d. interindividual variability
A

The correct answer is: optimally exercised ability

158
Q
  1. In the model by Denney, which of the following terms refers to the ability a normal healthy adult would exhibit without practice or training?
    a. optimally exercised ability
    b. pragmatic intelligence
    c. unexercised ability
    d. interindividual variability
A

The correct answer is: unexercised ability

159
Q
  1. Project ACTIVE examined whether primary mental abilities could be trained. The findings from Project ACTIVE include all of the following, except
    a. memory training benefited all adults, including those with a mild cognitive impairment.
    b. improvement in primary mental abilities had a positive effect on sense of self control.
    c. improvements in some abilities persisted for at least five years.
    d. declines in fluid intelligence is reversible.
A

The correct answer is: memory training benefited all adults, including those with a mild cognitive impairment.

160
Q
  1. Which type of thought is characterized by the recognition that the correct answer varies from situation to situation, the solutions must be realistic, that ambiguity is the rule rather than the exception, and that emotion and subjective factors usually play a role in thinking?
    a. concrete operational thought
    b. formal operational thought
    c. postformal thought
    d. reflective thought
A

The correct answer is: postformal thought

161
Q
  1. According to research on expertise and aging,
    a. expertise improves continuously well into the 70s.
    b. expertise peaks in middle age and remains stable.
    c. expertise peaks in old age and then declines rapidly.
    d. expertise peaks in midlife and then declines slightly.
A

The correct answer is: expertise peaks in midlife and then declines slightly

162
Q
  1. Figuring out which letter goes next in the series z, w, s, n, …, is an example of
    a. fluid intelligence.
    b. crystallized intelligence.
    c. primary intelligence.
    d. tertiary intelligence
A

The correct answer is: fluid intelligence.

163
Q
  1. Research on wisdom shows that it is most associated with
    a. creativity.
    b. age.
    c. fluid intelligence.
    d. life experience.
A

The correct answer is: life experience.

164
Q
  1. Traditional scientific reasoning is an example of which aspect of formal operations?
    a. hypothetico-deductive thought
    b. multiple frameworks
    c. reality constraints
    d. multiple solutions
A

The correct answer is: hypothetico-deductive thought

165
Q
  1. According to the theory by Piaget, interpreting the world in terms of existing cognitive structures is called
    a. organization.
    b. operations.
    c. accommodation.
    d. assimilation.
A

The correct answer is: assimilation.

166
Q
  1. Describe the terms below, and summarize the major findings with respect to aging within each area.
    a. Working Memory
    b. Implicit Memory
    c. Long Term Memory
    d. Encoding and Retrieval
A

Working memory (an umbrella term) is the active processes used to hold information in the mind and simultaneously using it to solve a problem or make a decision. It plays an active and important role in encoding, storage and retrieval while having a relatively small capacity. It deals with information being processed in the moment.There is a significant age related decline in working memory - the loss of it limits older adults overall cognitive functioning. Note: this age difference in working memory is not universal.

Implicit memory involves retrieval of information without conscious or intentional recollection; much like a routine, we dont have to think about it. Older adults are generally better at implicit memory than explicit, but age differences depend on the specific kind of implicit memory task.

Long term memory refers to the ability to remember large amounts of information from a few seconds to a few hours to decades. It represents a large capacity to store information for long periods of time. It contains multiple systems served by different brain area’s. Semantic and episodic are two important components. On aging, semantic increases from 35-55 then tapers off and declines at 65. Episodic stays fairly stable until 55-60 and then declines around 65.

encoding is the process of getting information into the memory system, whereas retrieval is getting information back out of memory .
There is no evidence for age differences for how information is organized in storage, most research has examined encoding and retrieval as sources of age differences.
Encoding is affected by age, but the reason is the adults spontaneous use of strategies during learning new information declines with age. The same with retrieval, older adults use spontaneously use fewer retrieval strategies and have poorer encoding strategies. Neuroimaging studies have shown during encoding, older adults prefrontal cortex shows over-activity, meaning the usual pattern of compensatory processes with age

167
Q
  1. What are the three characteristics of intelligent people? How are the four lifespan concepts applied to the study of intelligence and aging? Describe the dual component model of intellectual functioning.
A

3 characteristics:
1. problem-solving ability - consists of reasoning logically, identifying connections among ideas, seeing all aspects of a problem, and making good decisions.
2. verbal ability - comprises such things as speaking articulately, reading with high comprehension, and having a good vocabulary
3. social competence - includes behaviours such as accepting others for what they are, admitting mistakes, displaying interest in the world at large, and being on time for appointments.
Approach to studying development is called the lifespan perspective. This approach is based on several key principles:

  1. multidirectionality - refers to the distinct patterns of change in abilities over the life span
  2. plasticity - refers to the range of functioning within a person and the conditions under which their abilities can be modified (within specific age ranges)
  3. Interindividual variability - accepts that adults differ in the direction of their intellectual development. Some show decline in specific abilities where others show stability of functioning, and show improvements in those same abilities.
  4. multidimensional - meaning development involves the interaction of factors like physical, emotional, and psychosocial development

Using those four concepts Baltes and colleagues proposed the dual-component model of intellectual functioning. This consist of:
1- mechanics of intelligence: involves the neurophysiological structure of the mind, including basic information processing components, problem solving, spatial orientation, and perceptual speed. Change is greatest in childhood, adolescents as skills are acquire to handle complex tasks

2- Pragmatic intelligence: includes everyday cognitive performance/adaptations: wisdom, practical problem solving and verbal knowledge. This is available knowledge from culture and this type dominates adulthood.

168
Q
  1. Hess and Pullen (1994) studied impression formation and found that, when negative information was provided after an initial positive portrayal of a person, older adults
    a. were likely to change their initial impression.
    b. were not likely to change their initial impression.
    c. only paid attention to the positive information.
    d. only paid attention to the negative information.
A

The correct answer is: were likely to change their initial impression.

169
Q
  1. When in a new situation, you draw on prior experiences. This is known as
    a. knowledge base.
    b. social context base.
    c. social knowledge.
    d. implicit memory.
A

The correct answer is: social knowledge.

170
Q
  1. When people develop explanations of behaviour, it is known as a
    a. situational attribution.
    b. causal attribution.
    c. causation.
A

The correct answer is: causal attribution.

171
Q
  1. According to research by Blanchard-Fields and colleagues, which age group made more dispositional attributions when assessing the behaviour of others in presented situations?
    a. adolescents
    b. young adults
    c. middle-aged adults
    d. older adults
A

The correct answer is: older adults

172
Q
  1. The __________ is found in __________, and refers to the focus on positive information and the avoidance of negative information.
    a. positivity effect; younger adults
    b. positivity effect; older adults
    c. negativity effect; younger adults
    d. negativity effect; older adults
A

The correct answer is: positivity effect; older adults

173
Q
  1. When the forgetfulness of older adults is rated as more serious than memory failures of younger adults, this is known as
    a. an age-based double standard.
    b. an age-based stereotype.
    c. an age-based attribution.
    d. a dispositional stereotype.
A

The correct answer is: an age-based double standard.

174
Q
  1. Becca Levy’s research demonstrates that older adults are vulnerable to _________, and that internal negative stereotypes can ______ cognitive performance.
    a. implicit stereotyping; have no effect on
    b. situational attributions; impair
    c. dispositional attributions; have no effect on
    d. stereotype threat; impair
A

The correct answer is: stereotype threat; impair

175
Q
  1. According to Brandtstadter, a person who uses all sorts of memory aids (e.g., a PDA and a Franklin planner) because they pride themselves on not forgetting appointments is said to be engaging in
    a. primary control.
    b. secondary control.
    c. assimilative activities.
    d. emotion-focused coping.
A

The correct answer is: assimilative activities.

176
Q
  1. In the theory of personal control developed by Heckhausen and Schulz, changing the environment to achieve your goals is referred to as
    a. primary control.
    b. secondary control.
    c. possible selves.
    d. problem-focused coping mechanisms.
A

The correct answer is: primary control.

177
Q
  1. Dixon and colleagues found that when older adults worked together to recall a story
    a. they confused each other.
    b. their performance was better than as individuals working alone.
    c. they each remembered different aspects of the story.
    d. they only remembered certain aspects of the story and completely forgot other aspects.
A

The correct answer is: their performance was better than as individuals working alone.

178
Q
  1. When do most people have the most friends?
    a. adolescence
    b. young adulthood
    c. middle-age
    d. old age
A

The correct answer is: young adulthood

179
Q
  1. Men tend to base their friendships on
    a. intimate sharing.
    b. shared activities.
    c. emotional sharing.
    d. personality matches.
A

The correct answer is: shared activities.

180
Q
  1. When looking at romantic attachment cross-culturally in terms of one’s model of self and others, which of the following statements is false?
    a. North America has a much higher model of self than model of others.
    b. Eastern Europe has a much higher model of others than model of self.
    c. East Asia has a much higher model of others than model of self.
    d. Southern Europe have equally high models of others and self.
A

The correct answer is: Eastern Europe has a much higher model of others than model of self.

181
Q
  1. According to the text, ______ vulnerable older adults are at risk for some type of abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
    a. 1 out of 5
    b. 1 out of 4
    c. 1 out of 3
    d. 1 out of 6
A

The correct answer is: 1 out of 4

182
Q
  1. The median age for marriage has been _____ over the last several decades.
    a. decreasing
    b. increasing
    c. increasing for women
    d. decreasing for men
A

The correct answer is: increasing

183
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best characterizes the longitudinal study of marital satisfaction in long-term marriages?
    a. continuous decline
    b. highest at the beginning and end, lowest when children leave home
    c. continuous rise in satisfaction
    d. there is no consistent pattern
A

The correct answer is: highest at the beginning and end, lowest when children leave home

184
Q
  1. Gottman’s research on the predictors of early divorce and later divorce found that
    a. positive emotion was an important predictor.
    b. predictors might not apply across all income levels.
    c. negative emotion was an important predictor.
    d. all alternatives are true.
A

The correct answer is: all alternatives are true.

185
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true?
    a. Widows always grieve more than widowers.
    b. Men are generally older when they are widowed than are women.
    c. Remarriage does not help widows deal with the loss of their first husband.
    d. Widowers have more financial problems than widows.
A

The correct answer is: Men are generally older when they are widowed than are women.

186
Q
  1. The term sandwich generation applies to
    a. people who grew up before fast-food restaurants.
    b. middle-aged people with aging parents and teenage children.
    c. older adults who do not have enough income to afford food beyond the basics.
    d. children who have parents, step-parents, grandparents, and step-grandparents.
A

The correct answer is: middle-aged people with aging parents and teenage children.

187
Q
  1. Grandparenting styles are _____ with different grandchildren, and ______ as grandparents age.
    a. similar; change
    b. different; change
    c. similar; stay the same
    d. different; stay the same
A

The correct answer is: different; change

188
Q
  1. According to research by Blanchard-Fields and colleagues, which age group made more dispositional attributions when assessing the behaviour of others in presented situations?
    a. adolescents
    b. young adults
    c. middle-aged adults
    d. older adults
A

The correct answer is: older adults

189
Q
  1. Dixon and colleagues found that when older adults worked together to recall a story
    a. they confused each other.
    b. their performance was better than as individuals working alone.
    c. they each remembered different aspects of the story.
    d. they only remembered certain aspects of the story and completely forgot other aspects.
A

The correct answer is: their performance was better than as individuals working alone.

190
Q
  1. When people develop explanations of another person’s behaviour based on things outside the control of the other person, this is know as a
    a. situational attribution.
    b. causal attribution.
    c. causation.
    d. dispositional attribution.
A

The correct answer is: situational attribution.

191
Q
  1. The results of research on married couples and collaborative cognition illustrates
    a. older couples perform better than singles, but not as well as young married couples.
    b. older couples perform worse than younger couples.
    c. older couples perform as well as younger couples.
    d. older couples perform as well as younger singles.
A

The correct answer is: older couples perform as well as younger couples.

192
Q
  1. An 82-year-old woman decides she is not able to drive on the interstate any more, but she realizes that it is not necessary to do so because she can get to most locations by avoiding highways. According to Heckhausen and Schulz, this is an example of
    a. primary control.
    b. secondary control.
    c. possible selves.
    d. problem-focused coping mechanisms.
A

The correct answer is: secondary control.

193
Q
  1. Before you are told the details about a car accident your friend was in, you are told that the other person involved in the accident was an older man who is hard of hearing. Whether this information will influence your social judgement of the event is related to your
    a. social context effect.
    b. implicit priming.
    c. implicit stereotyping
    d. impression formation.
A

The correct answer is: implicit stereotyping

194
Q
  1. The theory of personal control developed by Heckhausen & Schulz, control is viewed as
    a. a motivational system that regulates human behaviour.
    b. the give and take of mechanisms that regulate human behaviour.
    c. minimizing the impact of failures in performance.
    d. none of these.
A

The correct answer is: a motivational system that regulates human behaviour

195
Q
  1. When encountering a situation, your belief system is triggered. Your belief system draws on both your
    a. social knowledge and cognitive interpretation of the situation.
    b. emotional reaction and cognitive interpretation of the situation.
    c. social knowledge and personal experiences.
    d. emotional reaction and personal experiences.
A

The correct answer is: emotional reaction and cognitive interpretation of the situation.

196
Q
  1. The activation of an automatic, unconscious stereotype is known as
    a. implicit social beliefs.
    b. implicit stereotyping.
    c. implicit attributions.
    d. explicit stereotyping.
A

The correct answer is: implicit stereotyping.

197
Q
  1. Referring to older adults as golden agers or senile are examples of
    a. social scripts.
    b. stereotypes.
    c. situational attributions.
    d. causal attributions.
A

The correct answer is: stereotypes.

198
Q
  1. The term sandwich generation applies to
    a. people who grew up before fast-food restaurants.
    b. middle-aged people with aging parents and teenage children.
    c. older adults who do not have enough income to afford food beyond the basics.
    d. children who have parents, step-parents, grandparents, and step-grandparents.
A

The correct answer is: middle-aged people with aging parents and teenage children.

199
Q
  1. The median age for marriage has been _____ over the last several decades.
    a. decreasing
    b. increasing
    c. increasing for women
    d. decreasing for men
A

The correct answer is: increasing

200
Q
  1. When looking at romantic attachment cross-culturally in terms of one’s model of self and others, which of the following statements is true?
    a. Western Europe has a much higher model of others than model of self.
    b. Southeast Asia has a much higher model of others than model of self.
    c. North America has a much higher model of self than model of others.
    d. East Asia has a much higher model of self than model of others.
A

The correct answer is: North America has a much higher model of self than model of others.

201
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
    a. Young adults view married people more favourably than single people.
    b. Rental agents prefer married couples 60% of the time.
    c. Men marry at earlier ages than women.
    d. Men and women often remain single to focus on their careers.
A

The correct answer is: Men marry at earlier ages than women.

202
Q
  1. Researchers include the following as themes that characterize adult friendships, except
    a. affective basis of friendship.
    b. communal nature.
    c. sociability.
    d. physical intimacy.
A

The correct answer is: physical intimacy.

203
Q
  1. Most of the people who experience the death of their spouse are
    a. women.
    b. men.
    c. young.
    d. middle-aged.
A

The correct answer is: women.

204
Q
  1. _____ refers to the idea that the well-being of the family takes precedence over the concerns of individual family members.
    a. Nuclear
    b. Married
    c. Alternate
    d. Familism
A

The correct answer is: Familism

205
Q
  1. Middle-aged mothers are often put into the role of
    a. kinkeeper.
    b. primary bread-winner.
    c. happy housewife.
    d. empty-nest basket cases.
A

The correct answer is: kinkeeper.

206
Q
  1. According to research on marital satisfaction in couples with children, the shape of the marital satisfaction curve across time is
    a. steadily increasing.
    b. steadily decreasing.
    c. increasing, then decreasing.
    d. decreasing, then increasing.
A

The correct answer is: decreasing, then increasing.

207
Q
  1. A family consisting of grandparents, parents, children, and other relatives is called
    a. nuclear.
    b. extended.
    c. reconstituted.
    d. expanded.
A

The correct answer is: extended.

208
Q
  1. What are stereotypes, and how do they change with age? What is the age-based double standard, and why is it important? Provide an original example.
A

Stereotypes are a type of social knowledge structure or social belief. They represent socially shared beliefs about characteristics and behaviours of a particular social group. Stereotypes are used to judge first impressions, and to process information in a social interaction. The downside of stereotypes is that they can underestimate what a person is observing, casting unjustified potential.
Stereotypes change as we age as there are age differences in how we perceive older adults. As well, the ability to estimate someones age decreases with age. Older adults ideas and stereotypes become more elaborate and enriches as they are able to integrate their life experiences into their beliefs. Older adults experience more negative stereotyping, which can have a drastic effect on their physical and cognitive domains. however, the beneficial effects of positive stereotypes on older adults’ results in better balance performance, reduced cardiovascular stress and overall better health. older adults are plagued by negative stereotypes of being less competent, less able to hear, and having poor memories, which can unconsciously result in accurate assessment of them.
The age-based double standard a double standard is a set of rules that apply for one population but not for another; age based double standards are s set and assumed based on age. This is operating when an individual assumes an older persons memory failure is more serious than it would be if observed in a younger person. If an older person is forgetting something it is looked upon as possible dementia or Alzheimers (age based double standard, this would not be the first thought with a younger person.

209
Q
  1. What is the lifespan theory of socioemotional selectivity? How does it explain the developmental pattern of friendship formation? How do friendships differ between men and women?
A

friendships are important at all stages of life, and they play an important part of our overall health. As adults age they become increasingly selective, putting greater resources in emotionally meaningful goals and activities, such as friendships. For older adults, friends are an important aspect of a healthy life; as friendships help to foster independence - especially at a time when older adults do not want to be felt like they are a burden to their families,
Carstensen proposed a life-span theory of socioemotional selectivity, that states social contact is motivated by a variety of goals. This theory explains why older adults do not to replace relationships they lose. Older adults are more selective and have less opportunities to make new friends. The goals are:
A. Information seeking
B. self-concept
C. Emotional regulation

Women base their friendships on intimate and emotional sharing and utilize the friend as a confident, friendships revolve around the discussion pf personal matters…this is a strong basis for women’s friendship. Whereas, men base friendships on shared interests and activities. Cross yes friendships are often overestimate by men and underestimate by women with respect to their friends’ sexual interest in them.

210
Q
  1. According to Hooker (2002), the three processes that act in tandem with the three structural components of personality levels are
    a. state processes, personal concerns, and cognitive processes.
    b. self-concept processes, personal concerns, and cognitive processes.
    c. state processes, self-concept processes, and personal concerns.
    d. personal concerns, dispositional traits, and life narrative.
A

The correct answer is: state processes, personal concerns, and cognitive processes.

211
Q
  1. Melissa is high in warmth, gregariousness, activity, and positive emotions. According to the theory by Costa and McCrae, Melissa would be considered high on the dimension of
    a. neuroticism.
    b. extroversion.
    c. openness to experience.
    d. agreeableness.
A

The correct answer is: extroversion.

212
Q
  1. Personality adjustment refers to developmental changes in personality occurring as
    a. an adaptive response.
    b. an ideal response.
    c. an ego response.
    d. a conflict response.
A

The correct answer is: an adaptive response.

213
Q
  1. According to Erikson, the basis for personality growth is
    a. achieving a balance of forces.
    b. blending among traits.
    c. resolving struggles between opposing tendencies.
    d. achieving formal operations.
A

The correct answer is: resolving struggles between opposing tendencies.

214
Q
  1. What are the three motivational components of McAdam’s model of generativity?
    a. inner desire, belief, action
    b. commitment, concern, action
    c. cultural demand, concern, inner desire
    d. cultural demand, commitment, belief
A

The correct answer is: cultural demand, concern, inner desire

215
Q
  1. Levinson and colleagues found evidence of a midlife crisis in the men in his study,
    a. and a midlife crisis is more likely in midlife than a crisis at any other point in life.
    b. and subsequent research has found that women are more likely than men to have a midlife crisis.
    c. and subsequent research has found that men are more likely than women to have a midlife crisis.
    d. but most follow-up research has failed to support the universality of such crises in midlife.
A

The correct answer is: but most follow-up research has failed to support the universality of such crises in midlife.

216
Q
  1. According to McAdams, the narrative that people create and revise throughout adulthood is a
    a. life-span construct.
    b. life story.
    c. life narrative.
    d. scenario.
A

The correct answer is: life story.

217
Q
  1. Identity theory by Whitbourne combines assimilation and accommodation, components of which cognitive-development theory?
    a. Baltes
    b. Piaget
    c. Erikson
    d. Sternberg
A

The correct answer is: Piaget

218
Q
  1. Younger adults, compared with older adults, are more likely to have
    a. more possible selves but are less likely to believe they can attain them.
    b. more possible selves and are more likely to believe they can attain them.
    c. fewer possible selves and are less likely to believe they can attain them.
    d. fewer possible selves and are more likely to believe they can attain them
A

The correct answer is: more possible selves and are more likely to believe they can attain them.

219
Q
  1. According to neuroscience research, age-related decline in amygdala activation and emotional arousal may be responsible for
    a. less negative emotion experienced.
    b. lower rates of depression.
    c. all of these alternatives.
    d. better reports of well-being.
A

The correct answer is: all of these alternatives.

220
Q
  1. Which of the following behaviours might be considered abnormal in younger adults but might be considered adaptive in older adults?
    a. passivity
    b. paranoia
    c. autonomy
    d. memory impaired
A

The correct answer is: passivity

221
Q
  1. ________ are useful quick screening measures of mental competence.
    a. Life skills exams
    b. Multidimensional assessments
    c. Neuropsychological assessments
    d. Mental status exams
A

The correct answer is: Mental status exams

222
Q
  1. The most obvious sign of clinical depression is
    a. dyspnea.
    b. dysphoria.
    c. apathy.
    d. lack of expression.
A

The correct answer is: dysphoria.

223
Q
  1. A major theme of psychosocial theories of depression is
    a. loss.
    b. self-esteem.
    c. ego.
    d. growth.
A

The correct answer is: loss.

224
Q
  1. A type of therapy that emphasizes changing maladaptive beliefs and thoughts is
    a. psychoanalytic therapy.
    b. behavioural therapy.
    c. cognitive therapy.
    d. drug therapy.
A

The correct answer is: cognitive therapy.

225
Q
  1. The most common form of dementia is
    a. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
    c. Alzheimer’s disease.
    d. Parkinson’s disease.
A

The correct answer is: Alzheimer’s disease.

226
Q
  1. Behavioural symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease tend to be worse
    a. in the morning.
    b. in the early afternoon.
    c. around lunchtime.
    d. in the evening.
A

The correct answer is: in the evening.

227
Q
  1. Using which behavioural technique can caregivers reduce the difficult behaviours of Alzheimer’s patients?
    a. milieu therapy
    b. differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviour
    c. spaced reinforcement
    d. cognitive retraining
A

The correct answer is: differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviour

228
Q
  1. As many as _____ of older adults suffer from anxiety disorders.
    a. 6% to 10%
    b. 1% to 5%
    c. 17% to 21%
    d. 11% to 16%
A

The correct answer is: 17% to 21%

229
Q
  1. Alcohol dependency
    a. is most frequent during young adulthood.
    b. is most frequent during middle-age.
    c. is most frequent during old age.
    d. occurs at a similar frequency for all age groups of adults.
A

The correct answer is: is most frequent during young adulthood

230
Q
  1. According to Hooker (2002), the three processes that act in tandem with the three structural components of personality levels are
    a. state processes, personal concerns, and cognitive processes.
    b. self-concept processes, personal concerns, and cognitive processes.
    c. state processes, self-concept processes, and personal concerns.
    d. personal concerns, dispositional traits, and life narrative.
A

The correct answer is: state processes, personal concerns, and cognitive processes.

231
Q
  1. According to McAdams, the narrative that people create and revise throughout adulthood is a
    a. life-span construct.
    b. life story.
    c. life narrative.
    d. scenario.
A

The correct answer is: life story.

232
Q
  1. The epigenetic principle in the theory by Erikson means that
    a. ego development is determined by the environment.
    b. each psychosocial strength has its own special time of importance.
    c. the order of the stages of ego development is variable.
    d. psychosocial development is due to assimilation-accommodation.
A

The correct answer is: each psychosocial strength has its own special time of importance.

233
Q
  1. The best conclusion to draw from research concerning the midlife crisis is that
    a. there is no question it exists.
    b. there is little data to support its existence.
    c. it clearly exists for women but not for men.
    d. it clearly exists for men but not for women.
A

The correct answer is: there is little data to support its existence.

234
Q
  1. The organized, coherent, and integrated pattern of self-perception is the
    a. ego.
    b. life story.
    c. self-concept.
    d. scenario
A

The correct answer is: self-concept.

235
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of Kotre’s types of generativity?
    a. cultural
    b. agentic
    c. technical
    d. personal
A

The correct answer is: personal

236
Q
  1. According to neuroscience research, amygdala activation and emotional arousal are _________ in older adults, which might explain the ________ rates of depression and negative emotion.
    a. lower; higher
    b. higher; lower
    c. higher; higher
    d. lower; lower
A

The correct answer is: lower; lower

237
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a criticism of the theories based on life transitions?
    a. sample selection
    b. whether changes really happen
    c. degree to which stages are universal
    d. whether changes in extroversion occur
A

The correct answer is: whether changes in extroversion occur

238
Q
  1. In McAdams model of generativity, meaning is derived from the interactive effects of
    a. concern, action, and commitment.
    b. motivational sources, commitment, and belief.
    c. motivational sources, thoughts and plans, and behaviour.
    d. thoughts and plans, behaviour, and action
A

The correct answer is: motivational sources, thoughts and plans, and behaviour.

239
Q
  1. The best conclusion to make about personal concerns is that there is
    a. some change, but it is not tied to any specific ages.
    b. no change.
    c. some change but it is related to a person’s age.
    d. a midlife crisis.
A

The correct answer is: some change, but it is not tied to any specific ages.

240
Q
  1. A major theme of psychosocial theories of depression is
    a. loss.
    b. self-esteem.
    c. ego.
    d. growth.
A

The correct answer is: loss.

241
Q
  1. Alcohol dependency
    a. is most frequent during young adulthood.
    b. is most frequent during middle-age.
    c. is most frequent during old age.
    d. occurs at a similar frequency for all age groups of adults.
A

The correct answer is: is most frequent during young adulthood

242
Q
  1. According to a prevalence study of adults in the US, approximately _____ of adults over the age of 50 had a clinical depressive disorder.
    a. 3%
    b. 5%
    c. 7%
    d. 10%
A

The correct answer is: 5%

243
Q
  1. The microscopic changes that define Alzheimer’s disease include all of the following, except
    a. rapid cell death.
    b. decreased serotonin levels.
    c. neuritic plaques.
    d. neurofibrillary tangles.
A

The correct answer is: decreased serotonin levels.

244
Q
  1. A type of therapy that emphasizes increasing the number of rewards or reinforcements people receive from their environment is
    a. psychoanalytic therapy.
    b. behavioural therapy.
    c. cognitive therapy.
    d. drug therapy.
A

The correct answer is: behavioural therapy.

245
Q
  1. What is a frequently overlooked factor in understanding behaviour and developmental history?
    a. sociocultural influences
    b. biological influences
    c. psychological influences
    d. life-cycle influences
A

The correct answer is: sociocultural influences

246
Q
  1. Traditional treatment of schizophrenia consists of
    a. antidepressant medications.
    b. lithium.
    c. antipsychotic medications.
    d. MAO inhibitors
A

The correct answer is: antipsychotic medications.

247
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true concerning Alzheimer’s disease?
    a. Drugs should never be used at any stage of Alzheimer’s disease.
    b. Behavioural intervention works only for lowering hostility.
    c. Drug therapies are available to improve many of the behavioural problems.
    d. No interventions besides drug therapies are ever effective.
A

The correct answer is: Drug therapies are available to improve many of the behavioural problems

248
Q
  1. A definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease depends on
    a. a mental status exam.
    b. CT and PET scans.
    c. an autopsy.
    d. genetic screening.
A

The correct answer is: an autopsy.

249
Q
  1. Which disorder is characterized by periods of depression and mania?
    a. schizophrenia
    b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
    c. multiple personality disorder
    d. bipolar disorder
A

The correct answer is: bipolar disorder

250
Q
  1. What are traits? Describe the five-factor model of personality, and summarize the evidence regarding the stability of traits with age. What can be concluded from the study of dispositional traits?
A

Traits are a distinguishable and enduring way that one individual differs from another. They are based on comparison given that there is no quantitative standards to assess it by. Once a trait is attributed to a person it is assumed that it is a stable characteristic.
the five factor model by Costa and McCrae consists of five independent dimensions of personality:
1. Neuroticism - anxiety, hostility, self consciousness, depression, impulsivity, vulnerability
2. Extraversion - six facets divided into 3 interpersonal and three temperamental traits.
3. openness to experience - the individual is open to new situations. 6 facets; fantasy, spent o action, open to ideas, open minded, in touch with emotions and fantasy.
4. agreeableness - similar to antagonism
5. conscientiousness - strong desire to make something of yourself at the high end, and negligent, lazy and disorganized at the low end.
Evidence suggest there are normative increases in adjustment aspects of personality with increasing age. The basic indicators of personality growth/change show either stability or decline with age. Research concludes that personality growth across adulthood does not usually happen unless there are special circumstance and a welcoming environment for change. Personality adjustment however grows in adulthood in response to the developmental changes and life changes. McCrae believed that personality traits stop changing by the time a person is 30 and there are no significant changes, however there has since been evidence to support otherwise.

The conclusion about dispositional traits is that evidence supports that personality traits remain stable through adulthood when we average out all of the data. However, when we examine specific aspects of personality in specific people we may very well discover change. Life experiences has to be looked at, as they are a deciding factor for change.

251
Q
  1. What is multidimensional assessment? What are the factors that affect assessment? What are the major assessment methods? What are the developmental issues related to therapy?
A

An assessment is a formal process of measuring, understanding, and predicting behaviour.
A multidimensional assessment is done by a group of professionals (physician, psychologist, nurse, social worker etc). It is a team approach to an assessment which forms an overarching narrative for the assessment needs. Factors that influence an assessment are biases, both negative and positive, and environmental conditions, where the assessment occurs, sensory problems, mobility problems and the participants current health; both of these factors can complicate the assessment.
There are 6 primary methods of assessment:
1. interview - clinical interviews are the most popular and used for many reasons (obtain history, determine follow up, consent, evaluate effects of treatment)
2. self reports - validity and reliability are a concern
3. reports by others - family and friends
4. Psychophysiological assessment- looks at the relation between physical and psychological functioning.
5. direct observation - in both systematic and naturalistic observation
6. performance based assessment - assessing on a specific tasks
developmental issues in therapy - therapy generally takes two approaches, medication and psychotherapy. However, professionals must take into account the ways medications work change with age - medications that work in one age group do not necessarily work across the board for all ages. Psychotherapy needs to be looked at in terms of older adults unique needs - which has led to her-psychology. It is a positive approach that promotes and focuses on successful ageing. The approach used must be deemed effective based on research and clinical evidence. Due to the prevalence of medical conditions there are specific challenges for psychological assessments, as many scales include items assessing physical symptoms. Taking life span development into consideration is key.

252
Q
  1. The early criteria used to define death are now known as
    a. natural causes.
    b. death.
    c. clinical death.
    d. textbook death
A

The correct answer is: clinical death

253
Q
  1. The study of issues such as euthanasia is called
    a. psychoethics.
    b. socioethics.
    c. bioethics.
    d. medethics.
A

The correct answer is: bioethics

254
Q
  1. One major difference between a living will and a durable power of attorney is
    a. their legality.
    b. the naming of a specific individual who can make decisions.
    c. the stipulation of what types of treatment you want to receive.
    d. the need for a court hearing.
A

The correct answer is: the naming of a specific individual who can make decisions

255
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a stage of dying according to Kubler-Ross?
    a. denial
    b. bargaining
    c. depression
    d. agitation
A

The correct answer is: agitation

256
Q
  1. Contextual theories of dying emphasize
    a. the individual differences in caregivers.
    b. fate, causing a person to move from one stage to another.
    c. that there is no one right way to die.
    d. the stages of dying
A

The correct answer is: that there is no one right way to die.

257
Q
  1. David works in a hospice. He clearly does not show
    a. death aversion.
    b. passive euthanasia.
    c. death anxiety.
    d. end-of-life fears.
A

The correct answer is: death anxiety.

258
Q
  1. _______ is an approach to assisting dying people that emphasizes pain management and death with dignity.
    a. Palliative care
    b. Hospital care
    c. Hospice care
    d. Ethical treatment
A

The correct answer is: Hospice care

259
Q
  1. The way we express our grief, known as _______, is highly influenced by culture.
    a. grief work
    b. mourning
    c. bereavement
    d. working through
A

The correct answer is: mourning

260
Q
  1. The psychological side of coming to terms with bereavement is called
    a. grief.
    b. mourning.
    c. grief work.
    d. recovery.
A

The correct answer is: grief work

261
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
    a. Death of one’s child is associated with unimaginable grief.
    b. Death of one’s parent depends on the age one experiences the death.
    c. Psychological and socio-cultural forces are equally influential at death.
    d. The death of a child for a middle-aged parent has greater emotional consequences than it does for a younger parent.
A

The correct answer is: The death of a child for a middle-aged parent has greater emotional consequences than it does for a younger parent.

262
Q
  1. By 2030, the ratio of workers to retirees will likely
    a. be similar to the current level at 3 to 1.
    b. decrease to 2 to 1.
    c. increase to 4 to 1.
    d. be unimportant because Social Security will not exist
A

The correct answer is: decrease to 2 to 1.

263
Q
  1. Factors that increase the chances of successful aging include all of the following, except
    a) good health habits.
    b) an optimistic outlook on life.
    c) a strong social network.
    d) spending money on all wants and desires.
A

The correct answer is: spending money on all wants and desires.

264
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a stage of dying according to Kubler-Ross?
    a) Denial
    b) Bargaining
    c) Depression
    d) agitation
A

The correct answer is: agitation

265
Q
  1. Contextual theories of dying emphasize
    a) the individual differences in caregivers.
    b) fate, causing a person to move from one stage to another.
    c) that there is no one right way to die.
    d) the stages of dying.
A

The correct answer is: that there is no one right way to die

266
Q
  1. A possible example of _____ might be a women dressed in black following the death of her spouse.
    a) grief work
    b) mourning
    c) poor fashion sense
    d) working through it
A

The correct answer is: mourning

267
Q
  1. Abnormal grief is distinguished from depression in terms of
    a) complicated grief and excessive crying.
    b) reduced ability to work.
    c) physical ailments.
    d) separation distress and traumatic distress.
A

The correct answer is: separation distress and traumatic distress.

268
Q
  1. In general, older adults are
    a) more anxious about death because they feel impending doom.
    b) more likely to have depression because of the many losses they have suffered.
    c) more likely to have feelings of guilt because of the many losses they have suffered.
    d) less anxious about death because they are more likely to have ego integrity.
A

The correct answer is: less anxious about death because they are more likely to have ego integrity

269
Q
  1. The deliberate ending of a life because of a terminal illness is called
    a) active euthanasia.
    b) passive euthanasia.
    c) homicidal euthanasia.
    d) medical euthanasia.
A

The correct answer is: active euthanasia.

270
Q
  1. Anniversary reactions tend to be
    a) a sign of abnormal grief.
    b) common in normal grief.
    c) unrelated to the grief process.
A

The correct answer is: common in normal grief.

271
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
    a) The death of a parent forces us to face our own mortality.
    b) Loss of a child through stillbirth can be highly traumatic.
    c) Losing parents in adulthood is considered to be a rite of passage.
    d) Young adult widows have less intense grief immediately after the death
A

The correct answer is: Young adult widows have less intense grief immediately after the death

272
Q
  1. Susan is dying from lung cancer. She and her family are deciding on her care options and where she will be buried on her death. Making her wishes known is an example of a(n)
    a) final scenario.
    b) death anxiety.
    c) end-of-life issue.
    d) dying process.
A

The correct answer is: final scenario.

273
Q
  1. Palliative care is
    a) pain management.
    b) extending life.
    c) ending life.
    d) diagnosing disease.
A

The correct answer is: pain management

274
Q
  1. _______ is (are) one of the most important things for preventing or delaying the onset of several chronic conditions.
    a) A good outlook on life
    b) Immunizations
    c) Good relationships with family
    d) Regular moderate exercise
A

The correct answer is: Regular moderate exercise

275
Q
  1. By 2030, the ratio of workers to retirees will likely
    a) be similar to the current level at 3 to 1.
    b) decrease to 2 to 1.
    c) increase to 4 to 1.
    d) be unimportant because Social Security will not exist.
A

The correct answer is: decrease to 2 to 1.

276
Q
  1. A problem with most theories of successful aging is that _____ is a necessary component. This might send a negative stereotype for those that do not meet this criterion.
    a) having money
    b) good health
    c) having a large family
    d) all of these
A

The correct answer is: good health

277
Q
  1. A cancer screening test is an example of
    a) primary prevention.
    b) secondary prevention.
    c) tertiary prevention.
    d) quaternary prevention.
A

The correct answer is: secondary prevention.

278
Q
  1. In the selection, optimization, and compensation model, changing how you exercise to reduce your risk of injury would be considered
    a) a passive strategy.
    b) optimization.
    c) adaptive.
    d) all of these.
A

The correct answer is: adaptive.

279
Q
  1. The _____ the body mass index, the greater the risk of health problems.
    a) greater
    b) lower
    c) more similar body weight is to
    d) less similar body weight is to
A

The correct answer is: greater

280
Q
  1. A subjective assessment or value judgment of your own life is known as
    a) quality of social support.
    b) a successful life.
    c) successful aging.
    d) quality of life.
A

The correct answer is: quality of life.

281
Q
  1. Due to slowing rates of metabolism, older adults need
    a) fewer calories.
    b) more vitamins.
    c) more carbohydrates.
    d) to exercise more slowly.
A

The correct answer is: fewer calories.

282
Q
  1. According to Rowe and Kahn, the following views were foundational to the concept of successful aging, except
    a) avoidance of disease.
    b) maintenance of function.
    c) sustained engagement.
    d) objective social support.
A

The correct answer is: objective social support

283
Q
  1. Based on the life-span perspective, successful aging involves all of the following, except
    a) optimization.
    b) selection.
    c) mediators.
    d) compensation.
A

The correct answer is: mediators.

284
Q
  1. Jose has been in the hospital for several weeks due to heart problems. Everyday a nurse helps Jose sit up in bed and move around to prevent fluid buildup and blood clotting. This could be seen as a
    a) primary prevention.
    b) secondary prevention.
    c) tertiary prevention.
    d) quaternary prevention.
A

The correct answer is: tertiary prevention.

285
Q
  1. _______ is (are) one of the most important things for preventing or delaying the onset of several chronic conditions.
    a) A good outlook on life
    b) Immunizations
    c) Good relationships with family
    d) Regular moderate exercise
A

The correct answer is: Regular moderate exercise

286
Q
  1. In the selection, optimization, and compensation model, choosing your goals would be considered under
    a) selection.
    b) optimization.
    c) compensation.
    d) all of these.
A

The correct answer is: selection.

287
Q
  1. What are the components of death anxiety? What are the personality and demographic factors related to death anxiety? What kind of strategies exist for dealing with death anxiety?
A

Death anxiety refers to people’s anxiety or even fear of death and dying, it is a multidimensional construct relating to anxieties surrounding death - it is the frail nature of death rather than something in particular that makes it uncomfortable. Components of death anxiety include pain, humiliation, rejection, negative impact, punishment, and interruption of goals. what we admit to feeling about in public with respect to death may differ from our actual thoughts when we are alone. Measuring death anxiety is complex.

Terror management theory addresses the issue of why people engage in certain behaviours to achieve particular psychological states based on their rooted concerns about mortality. The theory proposes ensuring the continuation of one’s life is the primary motive underlying behaviour and all other motives can be traced to this basic one. Neuro imaging research shows terror management theory provides a useful framework for studying brain activity related to death anxiety
Research also shows that older adults present an existential threat for the younger and middle-aged adults because they remind us all that our bodies are fallible, death is inescapable, our body is fallible, and managing death anxiety is transitory (hence why some people do cosmetic procedures as a way to deal with their death anxiety). Older adults have less death anxiety than younger adults - life review has something to do with this, because older adults engage in the process. Men show greater fear than women, but women have more specific fears about dying.
To deal with death anxiety one must live life to the fullest, enjoy what you have, have few regrets, personal reflection and education. Furthermore, research shows teenagers, especially males, engage in risky behaviour that is correlated with low death anxiety

288
Q
  1. Describe the scenario provided by the book authors for the year 2030. What is the dependency ratio? What are the two major issues facing the US? Are these issues different from the ones in your country?
A

By 2030 The US will see a disproportionate number of older to younger adults, with baby boomers officially reaching old age. The proportion of older adults will have doubled, with Gen X being significantly smaller and Millennials feeling the effects (leaving a potential for intergenerational conflict).
These older adults are more educated, politically informed and be familiar with a high complex society.
A comfortable retirement will be viewed as a right not a privilege - without having the financial savings necessary to support those expectations.
The dependency ratio of workers to retirees will fall from its current level of roughly 3:1 to 2:1. This means to maintain the level of benefits in programs such as Social Security, the working members of society will have to pay significantly higher taxes than workers do now.
There will continue to be an increase in divorce which means fewer older adults will have family members available to care for them, placing a significantly greater burden on society for care.
There will be a rapid increase of ethnic minority older adults and it will force a reconsideration of issues such as discrimination and access to health care, goods, and services.
Social security and medicare are the two most pressing issues. without changes to spending patterns by 2030 expenditures for these programs will continue to increase and consume a bulk of the budget, forcing the government to make difficult decisions. An increasing number of adults now use social security as their primary income source instead of supplemental income, again causing a financial drain on the system. By the time 2030 comes there will be almost twice as many people collection social security per worker who is paying into the system.

We are blessed in Canada for having health care that is covered by our OHIP, and we have been better equipped to deal with the shift from the baby boomers. However, in Canada there is debate about filling in the CPP gap in the future years as only 1/3 of Canadians have an employer pension plan, and roughly little to no savings by way of RRSP.
Our CPP is one of the biggest pension funds in the world and it 2010 the Government said that the CPP would be able to remain stable for at least 75 years.

Psyc 381 Athabasca (2 decks)

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