Test Flashcards
(100 cards)
Samuel is a fund manager who has recently purchased a FTSE 100 call option from the fund’s assets. The risk he is taking is:
Select one:
a. limited to the premium he paid for the option.
b. limited to the transaction costs.
c. unlimited.
d. limited to the premium he paid for the option, plus transaction costs.
d. limited to the premium he paid for the option, plus transaction costs.
chapter reference 8H2A
A structured product is typically based on combining two investment instruments within the wrapper of the product. These are a:
Select one:
a. zero-coupon bond and a call option.
b. zero-dividend preference share and a put option.
c. zero-dividend preference share and a call option.
d. zero-coupon bond and a put option.
a. zero-coupon bond and a call option.
chapter reference 8K1
The main investment objective of an absolute return fund is to achieve a positive absolute return:
Select one:
a. in all market conditions.
b. when markets are rising.
c. by ensuring all fund managers adopt the same investment strategy.
d. when markets are falling.
a. in all market conditions.
chapter reference 8J
Jun Su, a higher-rate taxpayer, has made a capital gain on his venture capital trust after 4 years. If he encashes the plan now he will:
Select one:
a. potentially pay capital gains tax and must repay any income tax relief originally received.
b. pay no capital gains tax but must repay any income tax relief originally received.
c. pay income tax only on the growth over the period.
d. pay capital gains tax with no repayment of income tax relief originally received.
b. pay no capital gains tax but must repay any income tax relief originally received.
chapter reference 8D2A
Christos has 101% of the value of his investment as life cover. His product is most likely to be a[n]:
Select one:
a. structured product.
b. investment bond.
c. ISA.
d. investment trust.
b. investment bond.
chapter reference 8A15
In order to meet stakeholder standards, a stocks and shares ISA must meet which of the following conditions?
Select one:
a. There can be no more than a 2% bid/offer spread on the prices quoted.
b. No more than 70% of the fund can be invested in shares and property.
c. The minimum investment cannot be higher than £20.
d. The annual charge is limited to 1% of the fund during the first ten years, and 1.5% for the remainder of the term.
c. The minimum investment cannot be higher than £20.
chapter reference 8E9A
Why might an individual invest in a real estate investment trust [REIT]?
Select one:
a. All payments from a REIT are paid gross so there is no need for non-taxpayers to reclaim any tax deducted at source.
b. It is a more liquid way of investing directly in commercial property.
c. All income or growth generated from the investment will always be tax-exempt.
d. It provides a guaranteed rate of return.
b. It is a more liquid way of investing directly in commercial property.
chapter reference 8C4
Sanjay is a financial adviser for a trust. The trustees have approached him for advice about placing funds in an investment bond. Sanjay is UNLIKELY to advise that:
Select one:
a. investment bonds provide a wide variety of funds to meet a range of risk requirements.
b. the taxation within the underlying funds of an investment bond is more than the trust would normally be subject to.
c. this type of policy does not generate a taxable income, and so will substantially reduce the amount of administration for the trustees.
d. up to 5% of the original investment can be withdrawn by the trustees each year and paid to a beneficiary with no immediate tax liabilities for the trustees.
b. the taxation within the underlying funds of an investment bond is more than the trust would normally be subject to.
chapter reference 8A19
Kenneth has bought a European-style call option with an expiry date in 3 months’ time. The alternatives available to him at present do NOT include:
Select one:
a. exercising the option immediately.
b. letting the option expire worthless.
c. exercising the option on the expiry date.
d. selling the option.
a. exercising the option immediately.
John’s income tax liability for 2020/21 is £25,000 and for 2019/20 it was £28,000. If he invests £500,000 into an enterprise investment scheme in October 2020, the maximum income tax relief he could receive is:
Select one:
a. £25,000.
b. £150,000.
c. £53,000.
d. £28,000.
c. £53,000.
In hedging his portfolio, an investment manager has a traded call option. The characteristics of this type of investment means that:
You must select ALL the correct options to gain the mark:
a. the investment manager can sell the option before it expires.
b. the investment manager must hold the option until it expires.
c. the duration to its expiry is not relevant to its value.
d. the greater the increase in its price, the greater the intrinsic value.
e. this gives the investment manager the right to sell the underlying asset.
a. the investment manager can sell the option before it expires.
d. the greater the increase in its price, the greater the intrinsic value.
chapter reference 8H2B
Sandra is a higher-rate taxpayer earning £56,000 and her husband John is a basic-rate taxpayer earning £22,000. They have always lived in the UK and have both cashed in offshore bonds making gains of £10,000 each. Assuming they have both already utilised their respective personal savings allowances, how much is their combined income tax liability in respect of these gains?
Select one:
a. £6,000.
b. £8,000.
c. £4,000.
d. £2,000.
a. £6,000.
chapter reference 8A20
Taxation of a gain on an offshore bond
For a basic- or higher-rate taxpayer, the whole gain is charged at the basic rate of 20%. If the policy holders income is not sufficient to reach the basic rate band, any part of the gain that falls within the personal allowance would not be subject to tax.
As chargeable events are subject to the savings rate of income tax, the starting rate of 0% will apply; where the taxpayer’s non-savings income is less that the starting rate limit for savings (£5,000 in 2020/21), the income is not taxed. The personal savings allowanc (PSA) can also be used to offset tax due.
Be aware:
Taxation of UK policyholders
UK policy holders with offshore policies are liable to income tax at their highest rate on the whole of their gain, with time appointment relief for any periods spent outside the UK during the term of the policy.
Sandra, higher rate taxpayer = £10,000 taxed at 40% = £4,000 charge
John, basic-rate taxpayer = £10,000 taxed at 20% = £2,000 charge
Joseph can decide whether he exercises his right to sell an underlying asset at a certain price, at any time during a specified period. He has a[n]:
Select one:
a. European-style call option.
b. American-style call option.
c. European-style put option.
d. American-style put option.
d. American-style put option.
chapter reference 8H2B
Tony has income tax liabilities of £42,000 in the current tax year and £45,000 in the previous tax year. What amount does he need to contribute to a venture capital trust in the current tax year to reduce these tax liabilities as much as possible?
Select one:
a. £290,000.
b. £140,000.
c. £150,000.
d. £200,000.
b. £140,000.
chapter reference 8D2A
For VCTs, The income tax liability for the previous year cannot be rebated.
Tax relief is 30%.
30% * 140,000 = £42,000
42,000/0.30 = £140,000
The early surrender value of Steven’s life policy was £46,000, so he sold it on the second-hand market for £60,000 to Beryl. This means that:
Select one:
a. Beryl may have a liability to capital gains tax when the policy matures, or on prior disposal.
b. Steven will have to declare the difference between the surrender value and sale value on his tax return.
c. if the policy had run for less than 10 years when it was sold, it remains qualifying and Steven has no income tax to pay.
d. if the policy had run for more than three-quarters of its term when it was sold, it becomes non-qualifying.
a. Beryl may have a liability to capital gains tax when the policy matures, or on prior disposal.
chapter reference 8A27C
Taxation on the seller
If a qualifying policy is sold after at least ten years, or three-quarters of the term if sooner, the sale is not a chargeable event and there is no income tax.
If a qualifying policy is sold within the ten-year period, or three-quarter term, the sale is a chargeable event, and if the non-qualifying policy is sold, the sale is always a chargeable event.
If the seller is a higher- or additional-rate taxpayer, the gain is subject to higher or additional-rate income tax.
Four clients hold different investment products. Which one of them would most likely benefit from pound-cost averaging?
Select one:
a. Caitlin, who is paying £300 a month into a cash ISA.
b. Whitney, who is paying £300 a month into a 10-year traditional with-profits endowment policy.
c. Olga, who is paying £300 a month into a unit trust, invested in a specialist growth fund.
d. Imani, who is paying £300 a month into a with-profits whole of life policy.
c. Olga, who is paying £300 a month into a unit trust, invested in a specialist growth fund.
chapter reference 8A10B
SPS Limited has gross assets of £14.8 million. The maximum the company can raise from subscriptions to an enterprise investment scheme [EIS] is:
Select one:
a. £200,000.
b. £0.
c. £1,200,000.
d. £1,000,000.
c. £1,200,000.
chapter reference 8D1B
The gross assets of the company must not exceed £15m immediately before the issue or shares, nor £16m immediately afterwards.
When he surrendered his single premium unitised with-profits bond, Ross received a lower value than he expected. The most likely reason is because:
Select one:
a. explicit charges were applied because he surrendered within 5 years of taking out the policy.
b. explicit charges were applied because he surrendered within 10 years of taking out the policy.
c. a percentage of the annual bonuses were deducted from the surrender value.
d. a market value reduction was applied.
d. a market value reduction was applied.
chapter reference 8A2B
Barton Investments’ hedge fund always adopts a market-neutral strategy. This fund is referred to as a[n]:
Select one:
a. event-driven fund.
b. tactical trading fund.
c. relative value fund.
d. long/short fund.
c. relative value fund.
chapter reference 8I1D
Relative value funds are often referred to as adopting ‘market neutral’ strategies because there is no market-related element in their returns. Instead, the managers rely on arbritage to produce returns, i.e. by indentifying and exploiting pricing anomalies between similar investments or combinations of investments. Although these strategies usually have limited volatility, they can still suffer when market liquidity dries up.
Lindsey, an additional-rate taxpayer, invested £80,000 in an onshore investment bond. After six and a half years she makes her first withdrawal of £30,000. The income tax liability as a result of this withdrawal will be:
Select one:
a. £500.
b. £1,500.
c. £1,000.
d. £3,000.
a. £500.
chapter reference 8A25C
For partial withdrawals, the chargeable gain is determined at the end of each policy year, when all withdrawals for the year are added together…
Up to 5% of the original investment may be withdrawn each policy year without attracting a tax liability all the time.
For example:
- The potential liability is deferred until encashment or death.
- If the allowance is not used in any one year, it may be carried forward on a cumulative basis for future years.
- The allowance is treated as a return of the investors capital, and applies until the total of all withdrawals covered by the cumulative 5% allwance equals the original investment.
Julian, a 69 year old retired teacher, has a non-qualifying endowment policy. Examples of a chargeable event would include:
You must select ALL the correct options to gain the mark:
a. his death.
b. maturity of the plan.
c. switching of funds within the plan.
d. surrendering the plan.
e. assignment to his wife by way of a gift.
a. his death.
b. maturity of the plan.
d. surrendering the plan.
chapter reference 8A25C
Peter has just invested in a enterprise investment scheme. Assuming this is appropriate for his needs, this will be attractive to him because:
You must select ALL the correct options to gain the mark:
a. he can shelter gains from the disposal of his former business.
b. it will provide him with 30% income tax relief against his tax liability.
c. if he holds the shares for one year, they will be free of inheritance tax.
d. it may produce tax-free dividends.
e. he can reduce his income tax liability by carrying back tax relief to the previous tax year.
a. he can shelter gains from the disposal of his former business.
b. it will provide him with 30% income tax relief against his tax liability.
e. he can reduce his income tax liability by carrying back tax relief to the previous tax year.
chapter reference 8D1A
Dividends from EIS companies are paid with a 10% non-reclaimable tax credit and are potentially liable to further income tax. Consequently, most EIS companies do not pay dividends as it is more tax efficient to roll up income as tax free growth.
Edith is a client who is looking for a non-income producing investment. The options that will definitely meet her requirements include a[n]:
You must select ALL the correct options to gain the mark:
a. offshore reporting fund.
b. real estate investment trust.
c. structured product.
d. guaranteed growth bond.
e. unit trust with accumulation units.
d. guaranteed growth bond.
c. structured product.
chapter reference 8A15C/8K
Guaranteed growth bonds, while the bond it generates no income for the investor.
Structured Products, there is either a return of capital or income (rarely both), but not necessarily a 100% return of capital in all cases.
An important difference between exchange-traded funds [ETFs] and exchange-traded notes [ETNs] is that only:
Select one:
a. ETFs hold a portfolio of actual investments.
b. ETFs are sensitive to changes in interest rates.
c. ETFs track an index.
d. ETNs give access to specialist market niches.
a. ETFs hold a portfolio of actual investments.
chapter reference 8B