Test Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following regarding a sales associate acting as a transaction broker is FALSE?
A. Florida statue presumes that all licensees are working as transaction brokers.
B. The licensee can change from single agent to transaction broker during the transaction.
C. The main goal is to produce a sale between the buyer and seller.
D. Transaction brokers are not entitled to commissions over 5%.

A

D. Transaction brokers are not entitled to commissions over 5%.

Florida statutes presume that, in the absence of a signed agreement for single agency or no brokerage relationship, all sales associates are working as transaction brokers serving to represent all parties in a limited manner and produce a sale between the buyer and the seller. Transaction brokers provide limited representation to both parties, and a sales associate originally working as a buyer’s agent or seller’s agent can, with the written consent of both parties, transition to a transaction brokerage relationship in order to assist both parties.

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2
Q

A broker has just secured a new listing. If he wants to erect a “For Sale” sign on the property, what must he do first?
A. The broker must secure a permit with the local municipality according to their rules of signage.
B. The broker must secure a buyer for the property.
C. The broker must petition the property’s immediate neighbors for their permission.
D. The broker must get the property owner’s permission to do so.

A

D. The broker must get the property owner’s permission to do so.

A broker who wishes to place a “For Sale” sign on a listed property must first obtain the owner’s permission.

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3
Q

A broker with a list of rental properties acting as information broker for a tenant must give the tenant a 1-page contract specifying what?
A. Specifying that the tenant has the right to request a refund of 50% of the fee if the tenant does not find a rental; and the right to request a refund of 75% of the full fee if the information is inaccurate.
B. Specifying that the tenant has the right to request a refund of 75% of the fee if the tenant does not find a rental; and the right to request a refund of 100% of the full fee if the information is inaccurate.
C. Specifying that the tenant has the right to request a refund of 25% of the fee if the tenant does not find a rental; and the right to request a refund of 50% of the full fee if the information is inaccurate.
D. Specifying that the tenant has the right to request a refund of 10% of the fee if the tenant does not find a rental; and the right to request a refund of 20% of the full fee if the information is inaccurate.

A

B. Specifying that the tenant has the right to request a refund of 75% of the fee if the tenant does not find a rental; and the right to request a refund of 100% of the full fee if the information is inaccurate.

When a broker maintains a list of rental property and acts as an information broker to a tenant, the FREC requires that he give the tenant a 1 page contract specifying that the tenant has the right to request a refund of 75% of the fee (if requested within 30 days) if the tenant does not find a rental; and the right to request a refund of 100% of the full fee (if requested within 30 days) if the information is inaccurate.

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4
Q

A licensed sales associate accepted a deposit check from a buyer late on Friday evening. So that the check would not be lost, she deposited it into her personal bank account. Is this wrong?
A. No, because the intent was to protect the funds by placing them into a bank account for safe keeping.
B. No, as long as she informed the buyer she was going to do so.
C. Yes, it is against Florida real estate statutes to do so.
D. Yes, unless the buyer asked her to keep the funds in her account until such time as the contract had been accepted by the seller.

A

C. Yes, it is against Florida real estate statutes to do so.

A sales associate depositing a buyer’s down payment into his or her personal bank account is in breach of the law and may face discipline form the FREC.

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5
Q

A sales associate discovers an error on the closing statement. Who is responsible for ensuring the accuracy of closing statements?
A. The sales associate is responsible
B. The sales associate’s broker is responsible
C. The title company is responsible
D. The attorney is responsible

A

B. The sales associate’s broker is responsible

Although a sales associate should double-check all documents for accuracy, it is the broker who is responsible for the accuracy of agreements, offers, contacts, closing statements and other documents.

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6
Q

Can a successful sales associate who is ambitious to generate new business, place a series of advertisements in the newspaper?
A. Yes, if his broker approves and the ads carry the name of the firm or brokerage in addition to the sales associate’s.
B. Yes, if the ads ONLY feature the sales associate’s name and don’t attempt to “borrow equity” by including his brokerage firm’s name.
C. No, only real estate firms can place ads.
D. No, other than classifieds, newspapers only accept ads from recognized advertising agencies.

A

A. Yes, if his broker approves and the ads carry the name of the firm or brokerage in addition to the sales associate’s.

Sales associates are free to advertise or promote their own services so long as the name of the firm or brokerage is also prominently featured.

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7
Q

Can escrow accounts be interest-bearing in Florida?
A. No, escrow accounts may never be interest-bearing in Florida.
B. Yes, escrow accounts may be interest-bearing provided the interest rate offered is over 3% per year.
C. Yes, escrow accounts may be interest-bearing provided that: the broker has the written permission of all parties to the transaction; the name of the party to receive the interest is agreed; the date the earned interest must be disbursed is agreed.
D. Yes, escrow accounts may be interest-bearing provided that prior written consent is given by the FREC.

A

C. Yes, escrow accounts may be interest-bearing provided that: the broker has the written permission of all parties to the transaction; the name of the party to receive the interest is agreed; the date the earned interest must be disbursed is agreed.

Escrow money MAY be placed in an interest-bearing escrow account provided that: the broker has the written permission of all parties to the transaction; the name of the party who is to receive the interest is agreed in writing; the date the earned interest must be disbursed is agreed in writing.

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8
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Division of Real Estate?
A. To generate revenues with which to finance real estate education through the levying of license fees on real estate licensees.
B. To promote the business of real estate and maximize the number of real estate transactions throughout the state of Florida.
C. To protect the public by regulation of real estate licensees. The Division is responsible for the examination, licensing and regulation of individuals, corporations, real estate schools and instructors.
D. To act as the disciplinary body for all real estate licensees within Florida and all out-of-state individuals holding Florida licenses.

A

C. To protect the public by regulation of real estate licensees. The Division is responsible for the examination, licensing and regulation of individuals, corporations, real estate schools and instructors.

The Division of Real Estate protects the public by regulation of real estate and appraisal licensees pursuant to Florida Statutes. The Division is responsible for the examination, licensing and regulation of over a quarter of a million individuals, corporations, real estate schools and instructors.

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9
Q

Which of the following best describes the FREC’s duties and powers?
A. The FREC administers to disputes between licensees and mediates over cases involving unpaid or disputed commissions and real estate fees.
B. The FREC administers and enforces the real estate license law. The Commission is also empowered to pass rules that enable it to implement its statutorily authorized duties and responsibilities.
C. The FREC is the driving force behind advertising and promoting the business and practice of real estate throughout Florida.
D. The FREC provides advice to the civil courts and has is empowered to hand out judgments in the event that a licensee is found guilty of a crime.

A

B. The FREC administers and enforces the real estate license law. The Commission is also empowered to pass rules that enable it to implement its statutorily authorized duties and responsibilities.

The FREC administers and enforces the real estate license law, Chapter 475, Part I, Florida Statutes. The Commission is also empowered to pass rules that enable it to implement its statutorily authorized duties and responsibilities. These rules are contained in Chapter 61J2, Florida Administrative Code.

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10
Q

Who appoints the FREC and how many members are there on the Commission?
A. The FREC consists of 12 members appointed by the Governor, subject to confirmation by the Senate.
B. The FREC consists of 7 members appointed by the Association of Realtors.
C. The FREC consists of 4 members selected by public election.
D. The FREC consists of 7 members appointed by the Governor, subject to confirmation by the Senate.

A

D. The FREC consists of 7 members appointed by the Governor, subject to confirmation by the Senate.

The FREC consists of 7 members appointed by the Governor, subject to confirmation by the Senate. 4 members must be licensed brokers, each of whom has held an active license for 5 years preceding appointment. 1 member must be a licensed broker or a licensed sales associate who has held an active license for 2 years preceding appointment. 2 members must be persons who are not, and have never been, brokers or sales associates.

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11
Q

A listing agreement is a contract between 2 parties and therefore subject to termination under the same conditions as other contracts. Which of the following does NOT meet one of the conditions required for termination of the contract?
A. Lanie, a real estate licensee, successfully helps her clients sell their property as agreed and receives her commission at closing.
B. Carol, a seller, is in a fatal collision and her heirs don’t want to sell the property.
C. Tara, a seller, accepts an offer from Jacob but decides not to sell after all.
D. The listing agreement term has passed without a single offer on the property, so Gary decides to take his house off the market.

A

C. Tara, a seller, accepts an offer from Jacob but decides not to sell after all.

A listing agreement is a contract that defines the relationship between the real estate agency and the seller, specifying the seller’s price and terms, the services provided by the brokerage, and the amount of commission to be paid at closing. The listing is in effect until it expires or the property sells. Other reasons for termination include mutual agreement between the seller and the brokerage or the death of either party. Change of mind about a sale affects the purchase contract rather than the listing agreement and would entail a breach of contract.

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12
Q

David, a licensed real estate sales associate, creates an offer for the buyer he is representing. In addition to the written offer, what other document must David furnish simultaneously?
A. A Florida Consumer Energy Information Booklet
B. An estimated closing statement
C. Notice of transaction brokerage relationship
D. A disclosure of all known material defects

A

A. A Florida Consumer Energy Information Booklet

The Consumer Energy Information Booklet is required to be provided to any purchaser of a resale property. An agency relationship has already been established at this point, and the seller is the party that furnishes, rather than receives, the disclosure statement.

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13
Q

Following having a few clients who failed to come through, Adnan decided that as an exclusive buyer’s agent, he would charge a retainer fee to all of his clients for his representation, which he insisted on receiving up front. The fee is not refundable, and will apply to closing fees if a transaction is consummated. If a transaction is not compensated the retainer belongs to the broker who in turn would share it with Adnan based upon their written agreement. Which is TRUE?
A. A non-refundable retainer fee that applies towards closing fees must be placed into the broker’s regular escrow account until closing or until the buyer brokerage expires.
B. Adnan may choose to call it a retainer, but in the eyes of the Florida statutes, it is an “advance upon commission”, which is illegal.
C. A retainer fee may only be held by the broker in the form of a check from the client, un-cashed until closing.
D. The retainer fee may be placed into the broker’s operating account, because it is not a commission.

A

A. A non-refundable retainer fee that applies towards closing fees must be placed into the broker’s regular escrow account until closing or until the buyer brokerage expires.

Adnan does have the right to ask for a retainer, and this fee, since it is non-refundable (just like commissions) must be placed in the broker’s escrow or trust account until the time of closing or the time that the buyer brokerage agreement expires. A retainer, because it is not connected with a listing agreement, is not considered an advance fee.

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14
Q

May a real estate broker list a property for sale based on the net price that the seller wants to make?
A. Yes, net listings are legal in Florida.
B. No, unless the agent has the written permission of the FREC.
C. No, net listings are illegal in Florida.
D. No, unless the net gain the agent makes is less than 6% of the total property sale price.

A

A. Yes, net listings are legal in Florida.

It IS legal in Florida to advertise a listed property based on a “net price”, although the practice can lead to serious issues and is strongly advised against.

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15
Q

Which of the following types of assistance can sellers working with a real estate brokerage NOT expect to receive?
A. Assistance in proving good title
B. Assistance attracting prospective buyers
C. Assistance qualifying prospective buyers for financing
D. Assistance with prorating property taxes and insurance at closing

A

A. Assistance in proving good title

Florida licensees have in-depth training in many technical areas, including; using comparative market analysis to determine property value, marketing property, pre-qualifying buyers for financing, and calculating prorated property taxes, insurance, and loan interest. Sellers who work with a Florida real estate associate can count on the licensee to save them from wasting precious time on buyers who aren’t truly interested or able to buy. The process of proving good title falls to title companies and attorneys at law.

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16
Q

Lane, a broker, listed a small cottage near the causeway at $250,000, but the seller finally had to accept an offer of only $230,000. When Lane met with the parties, both the buyer and seller asked her to prepare a second contract in the amount of $250,000 for the buyer to get a higher loan for repairs. Is there anything wrong with Lane following an agreed upon deal between the buyer and the seller?
A. No, as long as Lane genuinely believes the house is worth the $250,000, she can submit the contract.
B. No, Florida law allows for this exception to dual-contract prohibitions; the contract reflecting the offer to purchase can stand separate from that submitted for the purposes of financing.
C. Yes, Lane cannot fiduciarily represent both parties in any transaction, including the writing of a second contract.
D. This is mortgage fraud and Lane may be charged, found guilty and punished along with the seller and the buyer.

A

D. This is mortgage fraud and Lane may be charged, found guilty and punished along with the seller and the buyer.

Any person who violates subsection (2), and the loan value stated on documents used in the mortgage lending process exceeds $100,000, commits a felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084

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17
Q

What is the education requirement for obtaining a Florida broker’s license?
A. Complete and pass a Commission approved 50-hour broker’s pre-license course.
B. Complete and pass a Commission approved 115-hour broker’s pre-license course.
C. Complete and pass a Commission approved 16-hour broker’s pre-license course.
D. Complete and pass a Commission approved 72-hour broker’s pre-license course.

A

D. Complete and pass a Commission approved 72-hour broker’s pre-license course.

Applicants for a broker’s license must complete and pass a Florida Real Estate Commission approved 72-hour Florida broker’s pre-license course.

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18
Q

When a licensee moves from the state of Florida to another state, what must they do?
A. Notify the Department of Business and Professional Regulation of a change in residency within 3 days.
B. Notify the Department of Business and Professional Regulation of a change in residency within 60 days.
C. Notify the Department of Business and Professional Regulation of a change in residency within 30 days.
D. Notify the Department of Business and Professional Regulation of a change in residency within 10 days.

A

B. Notify the Department of Business and Professional Regulation of a change in residency within 60 days.

Florida law requires that any resident licensee who becomes a nonresident must notify the DBPR within 60 days of the change of state residency. A change of mailing address must be noticed in 10 days.

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19
Q

When applying for the Florida real estate licensure examination, what does a candidate need to submit?
A. A passport
B. An authenticated application; digital fingerprint data; the appropriate fee(s)
C. A high school or college transcript
D. A voter registration card

A

B. An authenticated application; digital fingerprint data; the appropriate fee(s)

The candidate must submit to the Department: the appropriate signed or electronically authenticated application; digital fingerprint data, and the appropriate fee(s). The digital fingerprints shall be forwarded to the Division of Criminal Justice Information Systems and to the FBI to determine if the applicant has a criminal history record. This information shall then be sent to the Department for the purpose of determining if the applicant is statutorily qualified for examination.

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20
Q

When Rex obtained his Florida sales associate license he misrepresented the facts and concealed that his insurance license in another jurisdiction had been revoked more than 20 years before. Which of the following is a mandated penalty according to Florida law?
A. There is a mandated $1,000 administrative fine, and Rex’s license will be revoked.
B. Rex’s license will be suspended and there will be a fine of $500.
C. The Commission will never allow Rex to become a broker.
D. There is no fine, but there will be an automatic 3-year suspension.

A

A. There is a mandated $1,000 administrative fine, and Rex’s license will be revoked.

Since there may be mitigating factors, the Commission may specify a lesser period of time for the license revocation. Typically, the salesperson’s license is revoked, and he or she would not be able to apply for a new salesperson’s license for 5 years.

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT required of an applicant applying for a sales associate license?
A. Hold a high school diploma or equivalent
B. Complete the approved 30-hour sales associate pre-license course
C. Pass the appropriate state exam
D. Submit the application to the Division of Real Estate with the applicable fee

A

B. Complete the approved 30-hour sales associate pre-license course

The state-approved course is 63-hours and must be fully completed before applying for a sales associate license.

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22
Q

Which of the following MUST be licensed as a real estate sales associate to avoid criminal prosecution?
A. Ali sells his own home without real estate representation.
B. Massa, a court-appointed guardian for a mentally-incapacitated client, accepts a small fee for helping his client with the sale of her home.
C. Roland, attorney-at-law, prepares an abstract of title for his brother in exchange for a modest fee.
D. Ashley, a personal real estate assistant, negotiates a listing on behalf of her employing broker and receives a $500 bonus when the property sells.

A

D. Ashley, a personal real estate assistant, negotiates a listing on behalf of her employing broker and receives a $500 bonus when the property sells.

Ashley is engaging in the business of real estate and MUST be licensed in order to avoid criminal prosecution. Individuals are exempt from licensure in a number of instances, including; real estate owners, individuals with power of attorney on behalf of a property owner, attorneys performing their legal duties, executors of estates, court-appointed guardians, federal and state officers serving in official capacity, and bankruptcy trustees.

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23
Q

Which of the following unlicensed individuals would be guilty of a third degree felony for violating Florida statutes?
A. The daughter of a couple living abroad with written authorization to sell her parents’ home.
B. An entrepreneur negotiating, for a fee, the sale of a businesses, including equipment and buildings.
C. The licensed director of a property management firm who, as a normal course of business, shows properties around the county.
D. An individual who owns and personally manages a 6-unit apartment building including collecting rents, showing available units, and providing maintenance.

A

B. An entrepreneur negotiating, for a fee, the sale of a businesses, including equipment and buildings.

A person MUST have a real estate license to sell a building. No license is required to negotiate a sale for which written authorization is given, or to manage one’s own building. By engaging in unlicensed activity, the entrepreneur is in violation of the law and has committed a third degree felony as stipulated by the statutes.

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24
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in a property management agreement?
A. The name and address of the owner and name and address of property manager.
B. The start and end date of the agreement and method and schedule of compensation.
C. Specific services to be rendered.
D. The name and address of the current tenants.

A

D. The name and address of the current tenants.

A property management agreement must contain: the name and address of the owner and name and address of property manager; the start and end date of the agreement; method and schedule of compensation; specific services to be rendered; legal description of the property; extent of the property managers authority; procedures for reporting on the status of the property; signature of owner and property manager.

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25
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 requirements for eminent domain to be enforced?
A. The owner must be in full agreement with the reasons for the enforcement.
B. The property owner must be paid compensation for the property.
C. The property must be for the public good.
D. The owner must have due process in the courts.

A

A. The owner must be in full agreement with the reasons for the enforcement.

Eminent Domain is the right of the government (federal, state and local) to take private property for a necessary public good. To take property from an owner, 3 things must take place: the property owner must be paid compensation for the property.; the property must be for the public good; the owner must have due process in the courts.

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26
Q

If a planning board determines a proposed site does not conform with existing land use plans and zoning ordinances, what steps may the board take?
A. Authorize a variance to the land use plan and zoning ordinances to bring the proposed site into line with the existing local land use plans and zoning ordinances.
B. The board is powerless under these circumstances and has to adopt whatever policy the proposed planning and zoning criteria dictate.
C. Publicize the proposed change of zoning and planning in the hope that the public will demand a reversal from the State Legislature.
D. Either A or C

A

D. Either A or C

If the Planning board determines a proposed site does not conform with existing land use plans and zoning ordinances, the board may authorize a variance and/or hold a public meeting to authorize the change

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27
Q

Jody is purchasing an empty warehouse in downtown. She told her real estate sales associate that she intends to rehab the building and turn it into a multi-family apartment building. The real estate sales associate cautions her to consult the zoning laws first. Why?
A. Because the warehouse might be subject to regression
B. Because of “trigger terms” in the ordinances
C. Because the warehouse might be subject to rescission
D. Because the ordinances of the area might impose restrictions

A

D. Because the ordinances of the area might impose restrictions

Zoning ordinances regulate the use of real property by specifying allowable and prohibited uses in order to protect the interests of property owners and provide an aesthetically pleasing community. There are 4 general types of zones: residential, commercial, industrial, and agricultural. Municipal zoning laws govern use and appearance of each zone, and a buffer zone typically separates different zones. Zoning ordinances can be changed and areas can be rezoned by amendment.

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28
Q
A prospective parcel owner in a community must be presented with a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ before executing the contract for sale.
A. Copy of the documents
B. Chain of title
C. Community Budget
D. Disclosure of the community
A

D. Disclosure of the community

A prospective parcel owner in a community must be presented with a disclosure summary before executing the contract for sale.

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29
Q
A purchaser of a newly developed timeshare unit has \_\_\_\_ days in which to cancel the contract
A. 15
B. 10
C. 3
D. 5
A

B. 10

The following statement in a conspicuous font must be located immediately prior to the space in the contract reserved for the signature of the purchaser: You may cancel this contract without any penalty or obligation within 10 days after the date you sign this contract.

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30
Q
The Ben Johnson has homesteaded his home in Melbourne. He purchased the home for $150,000 and is legally blind and a widower. What are his taxes if the city millage is 8 mils, the county millage is 6 mils, and schoolboard taxes are 7 mils?
A. $2,100
B. $1,386
C. $2,254
D. $868
A

C. $2,254

Taxes would be calculated as follows: $150,000 - $1,000 for widower and blind = $149,000 - $25,000 homestead for schools = $124,000 X .007 mils for school taxes = $868.00; $149,000 - $50,000 homestead = $99,000 X .014 (city and county taxes)= $1386 tax for city and county. Total Tax is $2,254.00

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31
Q
What would be Erin's tax savings if she is homesteaded and the millage rate is 8.5 mils for school, 6.5 mils for city, and 4.6 mils for county?
A. $212.50
B. $555
C. $980
D. $767.50
A

D. $767.50

Savings for school tax would be $25,000 X .0085 = $212.50 savings; Savings for City and County tax = $50,000 X .0111 mils = $555.00 savings. Total tax savings are $767.50

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32
Q

3 separate claimants obtain civil judgments against a single licensee. Which of the following is NOT a restriction on payments from the Recovery Fund placed by the statutes?
A. Court costs and attorneys’ fees may be reimbursement from the Recovery Fund.
B. No more than $150,000 in the aggregate can be awarded for claims against a single licensee.
C. Claimants must have a judgment from the appropriate civil court in order to be eligible for a payment from the Recovery Fund.
D. Any monies recovered from other sources must be applied to the total amount awarded by the court and will reduce the payment from the Recovery Fund.

A

A. Court costs and attorneys’ fees may be reimbursement from the Recovery Fund.

The maximum aggregate payment from the Recovery Fund for multiple claims against a single licensee is $150,000. Claimants must have a judgment from the appropriate court in order to be eligible for payment from the Recovery Fund, and any monies already received as damages must be applied to reduce the payment from the Fund. Treble damages, court costs, attorneys’ fees, and interest cannot be recovered from the Fund.

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33
Q
A broker has had his license suspended for failure to properly market his listings. The Whitfields obtain a civil court judgment against him for the damages resulting from his action. Which of the following represents the maximum Recovery Fund payment authorized by the updated statutes for this situation?
A. $25,000
B. $50,000
C. $75,000
D. $150,000
A

B. $50,000

The maximum payment from the Recovery Fund to 1 person or from 1 transaction is $50,000, or an amount equal to the judgment against the broker or sales associate, whichever is less.

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34
Q

A broker has had his license suspended for misrepresentation. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. All of his affiliated licensees will have their licenses suspended, too.
B. All of his affiliated licensees will become involuntarily inactive.
C. All of his affiliated licensees will be assigned to another broker.
D. All of his affiliated licensees will continue to be active with his brokerage until they move to new brokerages.

A

B. All of his affiliated licensees will become involuntarily inactive.

When the Commission suspends or revokes a broker’s license, all licensees under that broker become involuntarily inactive pending their affiliation with a new broker or until the broker’s license is reinstated.

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35
Q

After a long dispute with a bankrupt and corrupt Florida broker, the Gonzalez family was awarded a judgment for $12,500 in actual damages and $87,500 in punitive damages, for a total of $100,000. They were then surprised find that the Real Estate Recovery Fund would not cover all $100,000. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. The Real Estate Recovery Fund is expressly limited to only actual, not punitive damages. Therefore only $12,500 would be available for recovery in this case.
B. The Real Estate Recovery Fund only applies to 1 transaction, therefore the Gonzalez family has to choose which has the most value.
C. Regardless of the number of transactions, the fund is limited to a maximum of $50,000 per claimant.
D. The Fund is not available to claimants once a judgment has been reached.

A

A. The Real Estate Recovery Fund is expressly limited to only actual, not punitive damages. Therefore only $12,500 would be available for recovery in this case.

The Real Estate Recovery Fund only reimburses actual damages, not punitive awards. Treble damages, court costs, attorney’s fees, and interest shall not be recovered from the fund.

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36
Q

Beth wanted a new entrance sign to her brokerage. She took the old sign down, but following a problem with the supplier, after 2 months still hadn’t put up a new one. Beth received a citation for not having a proper entrance sign displayed. If Beth wants to dispute the citation which of the following is TRUE?
A. Beth’s citation is automatically made part of the docket on the next Commission meeting, and as a licensed broker she may attend that meeting and be recognized if she so desires.
B. Beth must pay the fine “on provision” and include a request for a hearing at the next Commission meeting.
C. Beth may dispute the citation within 60 days of being served.
D. Beth may dispute the citation within 30 days of being served.

A

D. Beth may dispute the citation within 30 days of being served.

Florida Real Estate law provides for a licensee to dispute a citation within 30 days of receiving the served citation. After the 30-day limit the citation becomes a final order and constitutes discipline.

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37
Q

What is a “No Brokerage Relationship”?
A. The broker does not represent either party in the transaction
B. The broker does not represent the one of the parties in the transaction.
C. The broker does not represent the seller in the transaction.
D. The broker only represents the lender in the transaction.

A

B. The broker does not represent the one of the parties in the transaction.

A “No Brokerage Relationship” is when the broker does not represent one party in the transaction. This type of relationship may occur when the seller is a FSBO, or the buyer/seller do not wish to be represented on one side of a deal where a single agency exists. There is no fiduciary responsibility, however the requirement for disclosure of material defects and accounting for all funds are still required.

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38
Q

When Ang, owner and principal broker for ABC Realty, helped his niece Seria purchase a property, he did not have Seria sign a disclosure form. According to Florida law, what kind of brokerage relationship will Ang have with his niece?
A. Ang will automatically be considered a single agent for his niece under implied agency.
B. Because Ang was an uncle, he will be a designated agent, representing only his niece.
C. Because nothing was signed, the only way for Ang to help his niece is to enter into what is referred to as a “no brokerage relationship.” He did nothing wrong.
D. Because no brokerage relationship was established in writing with his niece, Ang was operating as transaction broker.

A

D. Because no brokerage relationship was established in writing with his niece, Ang was operating as transaction broker.

Florida statutes states that “all licensees are operating as transaction brokers unless a single agent or no brokerage relationship is established, in writing, with the customer.”

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39
Q

Which best describes a subagent in Florida?
A. A broker represents a seller or buyer as an agent in any capacity - the sales associates and broker associates under the broker are automatically considered sub-agents to the principals.
B. A seller hires A1 Realty to sell his property. The broker at A1 passed the listing on to a second broker at another brokerage firm - Sun Realty.
C. A seller hires A1 Realty to sell his property. The broker at A1 lists the property and a broker at Sun Realty brings a buyer he represents.
D. A seller asks A1 Realty to list his property but doesn’t sign an agreement. The broker at A1 brings a buyer and represents the buyer.

A

A. A broker represents a seller or buyer as an agent in any capacity - the sales associates and broker associates under the broker are automatically considered sub-agents to the principals.

A Subagent is one works under the agent (who is always the broker) for the principal. They assume all of the fiduciary responsibilities of the agent

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40
Q

Which of the following duties does a transaction broker owe their customer?
A. Obedience
B. Limited Confidentiality
C. Full disclosure
D. Ensuring that the title to a property is good.

A

B. Limited Confidentiality

A transaction broker does not owe fiduciary to a customer and must provide limited confidentiality to both sides (if representing such) in a real estate transaction.

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41
Q

Which of the following regarding a sales associate acting as a transaction broker is FALSE?
A. Florida statue presumes that all licensees are working as transaction brokers.
B. The licensee can change from single agent to transaction broker during the transaction.
C. The main goal is to produce a sale between the buyer and seller.
D. Transaction brokers are not entitled to commissions over 5%.

A

D. Transaction brokers are not entitled to commissions over 5%.

Florida statutes presume that, in the absence of a signed agreement for single agency or no brokerage relationship, all sales associates are working as transaction brokers serving to represent all parties in a limited manner and produce a sale between the buyer and the seller. Transaction brokers provide limited representation to both parties, and a sales associate originally working as a buyer’s agent or seller’s agent can, with the written consent of both parties, transition to a transaction brokerage relationship in order to assist both parties.

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42
Q

A broker has just secured a new listing. If he wants to erect a “For Sale” sign on the property, what must he do first?
A. The broker must secure a permit with the local municipality according to their rules of signage.
B. The broker must secure a buyer for the property.
C. The broker must petition the property’s immediate neighbors for their permission.
D. The broker must get the property owner’s permission to do so.

A

D. The broker must get the property owner’s permission to do so.

A broker who wishes to place a “For Sale” sign on a listed property must first obtain the owner’s permission.

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43
Q

A broker with a list of rental properties acting as information broker for a tenant must give the tenant a 1 page contract specifying what?
A. Specifying that the tenant has the right to request a refund of 50% of the fee if the tenant does not find a rental; and the right to request a refund of 75% of the full fee if the information is inaccurate.
B. Specifying that the tenant has the right to request a refund of 75% of the fee if the tenant does not find a rental; and the right to request a refund of 100% of the full fee if the information is inaccurate.
C. Specifying that the tenant has the right to request a refund of 25% of the fee if the tenant does not find a rental; and the right to request a refund of 50% of the full fee if the information is inaccurate.
D. Specifying that the tenant has the right to request a refund of 10% of the fee if the tenant does not find a rental; and the right to request a refund of 20% of the full fee if the information is inaccurate.

A

B. Specifying that the tenant has the right to request a refund of 75% of the fee if the tenant does not find a rental; and the right to request a refund of 100% of the full fee if the information is inaccurate.

When a broker maintains a list of rental property and acts as an information broker to a tenant, the FREC requires that he give the tenant a 1 page contract specifying that the tenant has the right to request a refund of 75% of the fee (if requested within 30 days) if the tenant does not find a rental; and the right to request a refund of 100% of the full fee (if requested within 30 days) if the information is inaccurate.

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44
Q

A licensed sales associate accepted a deposit check from a buyer late on Friday evening. So that the check would not be lost, she deposited it into her personal bank account. Is this wrong?
A. No, because the intent was to protect the funds by placing them into a bank account for safe keeping.
B. No, as long as she informed the buyer she was going to do so.
C. Yes, it is against Florida real estate statutes to do so.
D. Yes, unless the buyer asked her to keep the funds in her account until such time as the contract had been accepted by the seller.

A

C. Yes, it is against Florida real estate statutes to do so.

A sales associate depositing a buyer’s down payment into his or her personal bank account is in breach of the law and may face discipline form the FREC.

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45
Q

Beacon Real Estate has signed agency agreements with the Platts and the Browns. The Browns like the Platts’ home and want to make an offer. Can Bacon Real Estate represent both parties?
A. Yes, because both parties have signed a written agency agreement.
B. Yes, if the Platts are represented by two separate agents.
C. Yes, if the Platts and Browns both understand and accept Providence acting in a dual agency capacity.
D. No, because no Florida real estate broker may act as a dual agent.

A

D. No, because no Florida real estate broker may act as a dual agent.

Disclosed dual agency (representing both buyer and seller at the same time with the consent of both) is forbidden in Florida.

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46
Q

Cody bought a house in the fall which was found to have a leaky roof during the following spring’s rainstorms. The sellers had discussed the roof leaks with transaction broker, but the transaction broker decided not to divulge those details to the Cody and now claims Cody did not specifically ask about the roof. Which is TRUE?
A. Since he did not specifically ask about the roof before buying the property, Cody has no legal redress in this situation.
B. The broker can be held responsible for not sharing information about the roof with Cody.
C. The sellers are liable for not disclosing the details of the leaky roof.
D. Both B and C

A

D. Both B and C

The broker has a duty to disclose this Material Defect, and the seller will be responsible as they did not disclose the leaky roof themselves.

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47
Q

Deep Lake Realty has entered written agency agreements with each of the seller and a prospective buyer. If the buyer is interested in making an offer on the sellers’ property, may the brokerage comply?
A. Yes. Deep Lake Realty may act as a dual agent for both parties.
B. Yes. However, each party MUST sign a consent to transition to transaction broker or one party sign a non-representative agreement.
C. Yes. Deep Lake Realty may represent the sellers as a single agent and the buyer as a subagent.
D. The type of agency described in this scenario is expressly prohibited.

A

B. Yes. However, each party MUST sign a consent to transition to transaction broker or one party sign a non-representative agreement.

The seller and buyer each MUST sign an agreement to transition to Transaction Broker or one must sign a no brokerage relationship agreement. Then, the broker may act for both sides.

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48
Q

Sales associate Rory, a single agent for the seller, meets Ben, a buyer, at an open house. Ben likes the open house property he inquires about making an offer on it. He isn’t working with a real estate sales associate and prefers to handle his own affairs. Rory represents the seller. What type of brokerage relationship agreement does Rory need to have Bens sign before proceeding?
A. A single (buyer’s) agency agreement
B. A dual agency agreement
C. A transaction broker agreement
D. An agreement that no brokerage relationship exists

A

D. An agreement that no brokerage relationship exists

As the listing agent, Rory represents the seller as principal. Although it’s possible for Rory to represent both buyer and seller as a transaction broker (with the seller’s written agreement), because Ben prefers to manage his own negotiations, Ben is therefore a customer with whom no agency relationship exists. Dual agency is not allowed in Florida. At the first substantial contact - in this case, the open house - the real estate sales associate is required to provide a written notice of disclose that they do not represent the buyer’s interests.

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49
Q

Sales associate Tori is representing both the buyers (the Yorks) and the sellers (the Applegates). Which of the following actions may Tori legally take?
A. Tell the Applegates that the Yorks are willing to pay more than their offer of $210,000.
B. Tell the Yorks that the house previously had a termite infestation which has been treated and corrected.
C. Tell the Yorks that the Applegates will accept $6,000 less than the asking price.
D. Tell the Applegates that the Yorks have to find a house to buy at very short notice because Mr. York is having to relocate for work.

A

B. Tell the Yorks that the house previously had a termite infestation which has been treated and corrected.

A salesperson working as a transaction broker provides limited representation to both parties in a transaction. The licensee owes both parties the duties of honesty and fairness, accounting for all funds, skill and care, disclosure of all known material facts, timely presentation of offers and counteroffers, limited confidentiality, and any additional duties specified in the agency agreement. Unless the buyer or seller waives their right to limited confidentiality, salespersons must keep confidential any information regarding a buyer or seller’s willingness to pay more/accept less, motivation for buying/selling, and any other information the parties would wish to remain confidential.

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50
Q

How would a broker change the registered name of his real estate brokerage?
A. Register the name change with the Association of Realtors
B. Register the name change with the Division of Real Estate
C. Register the name change with the Secretary of State, Division of Corporations
D. Both B and C

A

D. Both B and C

When changing the registered name of a real estate brokerage, it must first reflect with the Secretary of State, Division of Corporation as a name change. Upon the change of name with the Division of Corporations, the name change must be registered with the Division.

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51
Q
If a broker receives funds from a client, how long does he have before he must deposit those funds into an escrow or trust account?
A. 3 business days
B. 24 hours
C. 10 business days
D. 7 business days
A

A. 3 business days

When a broker receives money to be deposited in an escrow account, he must deposit it immediately within 3 business days.

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52
Q

Ralph is a sales person with Sunlight Real Estate Brokers and when he shows his client Ben a property listed by Xavier Realty, Ben decides to make an offer on the property. Ralph notices that Ben has written the earnest money deposit check to be made payable to the wrong name. Which of the following statements do not constitute an appropriate corrective action?
A. Because Ben wrote the check payable to Ralph, Ralph may ask the buyer to change the name on the check to the applicable escrow holder depicted in the contract.
B. Because Ben wrote the check payable to Ralph, Ralph may endorse the check over to the applicable escrow holder.
C. Because Ben wrote the check payable to Ralph, Ralph should return the check to Ben and request he make out a new check.
D. Because Ben wrote the check Sunlight Real Estate, Ralph should simply follow procedure and deliver the paperwork and the check to his employing broker.

A

D. Because Ben wrote the check Sunlight Real Estate, Ralph should simply follow procedure and deliver the paperwork and the check to his employing broker.

The purchase and sale contract indicates how the buyer’s check should be made out before it is written. Any check made out incorrectly should be remanded to the escrow company

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53
Q

To comply with the statutes, which of the following actions must broker Haley take when she moves her office from Winter Park to Sanford?
A. She must file a change of address notice with the local post office. The post office will then notify the Commission of the move, so Haley’s licensing renewal form will be forwarded to her new address.
B. She must notify the Commission within 10 days of her change of address by sending the required form along with a list of licensees no longer associated with the firm.
C. She must send notification of the move on brokerage letterhead to the Commission by certified mail.
D. She must notify the Commission within 1 month of the move and include a list of current affiliated associates.

A

B. She must notify the Commission within 10 days of her change of address by sending the required form along with a list of licensees no longer associated with the firm.

Upon change of address, a broker must send a change of address form to the Commission within 10 days of the move. The broker must also include a list of licensees no longer associated with the brokerage in order to fulfill the change of address notification requirement for licensees who remain with the brokerage. Failure to comply will cause the broker’s and all associates’ licenses to expire.

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54
Q

Valencia, a real estate sales associate, is developing a website to promote her services. Which of the following CAN she post on her site?
A. An old house needs a lot of refurbishment including updating fixtures, exterior and interior painting and repairs to flooring. Valencia lists this property in the bargain section of her website, calling it a “fixer upper - perfect for an owner with home repair skills.”
B. An unusual house with 2 full kitchens located in a residential zone. Valencia describes it on her website as “the perfect site for a catering business or bakery.” She’s aware that previous requests for special use permits on the property have been rejected.
C. Valencia groups her residential listings by top-rated school districts, with a tiny disclaimer at the bottom of the web page that says “all properties are within 5 blocks of the school district mentioned but some may fall within the boundaries of neighboring school districts rather than those listed.”
D. An apartment complex near a university campus ensures boisterous activity throughout the week. Targeting students not familiar with the campus area, Valencia describes the complex as a “scholar’s haven with a studious atmosphere with all the amenities of campus life.”

A

A. An old house needs a lot of refurbishment including updating fixtures, exterior and interior painting and repairs to flooring. Valencia lists this property in the bargain section of her website, calling it a “fixer upper - perfect for an owner with home repair skills.”

Intentionally misleading or misrepresenting properties in the course of selling or leasing real estate violates Florida statutes. Leading prospective buyers to believe incorrectly that a property falls within the boundaries of a certain school district, misrepresenting a residential property as a commercial gem, or promising a quiet student atmosphere in what is renowned as a noisy area are all intentionally misleading to facilitate a sale.

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55
Q

Which of the following brokers is in violation of the Florida statutes regarding brokerage signage?
A. Jimmy of Fern Park Realty has established his brokerage office in the basement of his house. The space has a separate entrance and an exterior sign which displays the business name, Jimmy’s name and licensee status. The sign is visible to anyone who parks in his driveway.
B. Florida broker Deborah has established an office in Georgia. She has agreed, in writing, to cooperate with the FREC in any investigations.
C. Broker Alana has her office in her condominium. The condo association prohibits owners from displaying any materials on their doors, so Alana has her business sign posted on the inside of her condo door, which is visible to clients as soon as they enter.
D. Luke, a licensed broker, with a year’s lease for office space in a storefront of a busy commercial strip. The sign visible above the storefront says “Pine Hills Realty, Luke Price, Lic. Real Estate Broker”.

A

C. Broker Alana has her office in her condominium. The condo association prohibits owners from displaying any materials on their doors, so Alana has her business sign posted on the inside of her condo door, which is visible to clients as soon as they enter.

Office signs are required by law rather than rule. Signage must be visible to anyone about to enter the broker’s office and must clearly state the name of the agency, broker’s name, and the broker’s designation as licensee (either “Licensed Real Estate Broker” or “Lic. Real Estate Broker”). Since Alana has the sign posted in the interior of her condo, clients won’t be able to view the sign before entering her office and so she is in violation of the law.

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56
Q

Over which of the following situations does the Florida Real Estate Commission NOT have authority?
A. Prosecuting a real estate assistant for engaging in unlicensed activity.
B. Imposing a fine of $1,000 and revoking the license of a licensee for fraudulent management of an escrow account.
C. Assessing special fees on new and renewal licenses for the Recovery Fund.
D. Providing for circumstances under which a broker may independently disburse funds from escrow accounts.

A

A. Prosecuting a real estate assistant for engaging in unlicensed activity.

Engaging in the practice of real estate without a license is a third-degree felony, which is a criminal case and not under the oversight of the FREC. However, the FREC can discipline licensees for license law infractions, including suspension and revocation of licenses and the imposition of fines. It also has jurisdiction over the Recovery Fund and may levy special fees, and the FREC may also specify circumstances under which a broker is allowed to disburse funds from escrow accounts.

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57
Q

What does DBPR stand for and what is the DBPR’s purpose?
A. The Department of Business and Public Relations. The agency is charged with promoting licensed businesses and professionals in the state of Florida.
B. The Department of Building and Professional Realty. The agency is charged with approving new construction projects in the state of Florida.
C. The Department of Building and Pollution Regulation. The agency is charged with lowering toxic pollutants within the state of Florida.
D. The Department of Business and Professional Regulation. The agency is charged with licensing and regulating businesses and professionals in the state of Florida.

A

D. The Department of Business and Professional Regulation. The agency is charged with licensing and regulating businesses and professionals in the state of Florida.

The Department of Business and Professional Regulation. The agency is charged with licensing and regulating businesses and professionals in the State of Florida.

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58
Q

Mario signed an exclusive right of sale listing with Paula to sell his apartment complex. After a few weeks Mario cancelled the listing agreement and contacted an auction house to turn the property quickly. Paula feels she is owed a commission. Is she correct?
A. Yes, Paula is entitled to a commission because Mario has entered into an agreement with another broker.
B. Yes, but only if Mario or his auction house can find a buyer for the property before the expiration date specified in the original listing agreement.
C. No, because Paula did not meet the conditions for payment of commission before the cancellation of the agreement.
D. Yes, because Paula did so much work for Mario before he decided to cancel the contract.

A

C. No, because Paula did not meet the conditions for payment of commission before the cancellation of the agreement.

Paula did not earn the commission for bringing a ready, willing and able buyer. As a broker, depending on the terms of the listing, Paula may be entitled to damages for out-of-pocket expenses incurred while marketing the apartment complex before Mario cancelled the agreement. Such expenses include advertising.

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59
Q

Rick has his property on the market FSBO and his neighbor Christin is a sales associate. Christin told Clem, an agent from another realty company, that she is the listing agent on Rick’s property. Clem shows the house, finds a buyer, and lists Christin as the listing agent for the house. All parties agree to the terms of the purchase contract, including the commission to be paid to Christin. Later Rick contests the contract saying that Christin never represented him and is not entitled to a commission. Is Christin eligible for the commission?
A. Yes, since the buyer believed she was the listing agent.
B. Yes, the house would not have sold without her assistance.
C. No, because No listing agreement existed to pay the listing side.
D. No, Clem is the sales associated entitled to a commission.

A

C. No, because No listing agreement existed to pay the listing side.

A listing agreement is a contract that defines the relationship between the real estate brokerage and the seller, specifying the services to be provided by the brokerage, and the amount of commission to be paid at closing. There may be a problem with paying a buyer commission as well as the listing agreement would show compensation for the buyer or cooperating broker as well - unless the buyer brokerage agreement allowed for payment.

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60
Q

Which of the following is an example of an illegal restrictive covenant?
A. Pete owns a house that has a restrictive covenant preventing him from erecting a fence that is taller than 6 feet.
B. Susan lives in a historical section of town and the deed to her property includes a restrictive covenant that prohibits her from making changes to the architectural style of her home.
C. A subdivision developer has included restrictive covenants in the deeds for all properties that limit ownership to persons with Latino heritage in order to advance the ethnic culture of the community.
D. Gabriella is selling her vacation home and she alerts potential buyers that the property deed contains a restrictive covenant that dictates the appearance of all outbuildings and fences.

A

C. A subdivision developer has included restrictive covenants in the deeds for all properties that limit ownership to persons with Latino heritage in order to advance the ethnic culture of the community.

Restrictive covenants, also known as deed restrictions, limit the use of land in certain ways. For example, legal restrictive covenants may specify the size or type of improvements that an owner is allowed to make on the property. However, restrictive covenants that violate laws are illegal, and a covenant that specifies the ethnicity of future owners violates the Fair Housing laws.

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61
Q

Which of the following types of advertisements is in violation of the law?
A. Verbiage that says “treed lot with ample shade from hot sun” to refer to a house with a lone oak tree shading the north side of the house.
B. Advertisement that says “low, low closing costs.”
C. Newspaper ad aimed at childless couples.
D. A ‘for sale’ flyer that mentions the price of the property and the APR without any additional mention of credit terms or financing options.

A

C. Newspaper ad aimed at childless couples.

Licensees may NOT discriminate against any particular race, color, religion, national origin, sex, handicap, or families with children in advertising. All advertising must be done in the name of the real estate firm and may not imply that it is the ad of a private party. Although eloquent verbiage is allowed, an ad may not misrepresent the property in any way that would not be obvious to potential buyers. Regulations requires full disclosure of loan terms if any information about credit terms, beyond APR and price of property, are given.

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62
Q

Salesperson Jerri helped her sister Summer get a job with Calhoun Title Company. As a way of saying thanks, Summer sends Jerri a $200 referral fee from the Title Company for every transaction that Jerri closes through Calhoun Title. Knowing Florida real estate law, Jerri had a lawyer friend add a phrase in her sale and purchase documentation stating that the buyer “agrees to use Calhoun Title Co.” Which of the following statements is accurate regarding this situation?
A. This is a RESPA violation and Jerri and Summer’s company may be fined and punished as the law allows.
B. Jerri thought ahead by having a lawyer add the phrase to her documents, so she would not be subject to discipline by the FREC.
C. Because Jerri has officially and legally “notified the buyer” of the use of Calhoun Title, Jerri can receive this form of “thank you” without a conflict of interest.
D. Because the buyer has been informed in writing as part of the contract form, Jerri has fulfilled her obligations of disclosure and is free to accept the referral fees.

A

A. This is a RESPA violation and Jerri and Summer’s company may be fined and punished as the law allows.

Jerri may be disciplined for putting such a clause in her standard contract as Title Services are shoppable by a buyer and cannot be mandated. In addition, the RESPA prohibits title companies from paying referral fees, so everyone is in the wrong on this.

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63
Q

Buena Vista School of Real Estate is eager to bolster its student body, so it designs a new advertising campaign. Which of the following practices would be a violation of the statutes?
A. Publishing the credentials of its instructors
B. Advertising the school’s affiliation with local broker Raymond Stolt
C. Guaranteeing a high pass percentage on the state exam
D. Lauding the progressive methods of instructors who have won awards for their instruction

A

C. Guaranteeing a high pass percentage on the state exam

A real estate school is allowed to advertise in connection with an affiliated broker and advertise a pass-fail ratio on the state exam. All advertising and publicity must be factual and supported by evidence. Misleading or exaggerated claims and guarantees of success on exams or offers of employment violate the law.

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64
Q

How would a broker change the registered name of his real estate brokerage?
A. Register the name change with the Association of Realtors
B. Register the name change with the Division of Real Estate
C. Register the name change with the Secretary of State, Division of Corporation
D. Register the name change with the Better Business bureau

A

C. Register the name change with the Secretary of State, Division of Corporation

When changing the registered name of a real estate brokerage, it must first reflect with the Secretary of State, Division of Corporation as a name change. Applying for a new registration with the Division of Corporation is a new registration with the DBPR, Division of Real Estate and NOT a name change.

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65
Q

Is the holder of a 4-year degree in real estate exempt from the pre-licensing courses?
A. No, all applicants must take the pre-licensing courses regardless of educational background.
B. Yes, applicants with a 4-year real estate degree are exempt from both the sales associate and broker pre-licensing courses.
C. No, applicants with a 4-year real estate degree are NOT exempt from the sales associate pre-licensing course but ARE exempt from the broker pre-licensing course.
D. No, applicants with a 4-year real estate degree ARE exempt from the sales associate pre-licensing course but are NOT exempt from the broker pre-licensing course.

A

B. Yes, applicants with a 4-year real estate degree are exempt from both the sales associate and broker pre-licensing courses.

Individuals with a 4-year real estate degree are exempt from the 63-hour pre-licensing sales associate course and the 72-hour pre-licensing broker course, but must make application and take the state exam. Applicants with a 4-year real estate degree must include an official transcripts with their application.

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66
Q

Of the following, which is NOT a proof of experience requirement for a sales associate license holder wishing to become a broker license holder?
A. Has been registered as an active sales associate for at least 24 months during the preceding 5 years.
B. Has sold at least $850,000 in real estate value during the preceding 5 years.
C. Has held a current and valid real estate sales associate’s license for at least 24 months during the preceding 5 years in the employ of a governmental agency for a salary.
D. Has held a current and valid real estate broker’s license for at least 24 months during the preceding 5 years in any other state of the United States, or in any foreign national jurisdiction.

A

B. Has sold at least $850,000 in real estate value during the preceding 5 years.

Applicants wishing to upgrade from sales associate to broker license must show proof of 1 of the following: has been registered as an active sales associate for at least 24 months during the preceding 5 years; has held a current and valid real estate sales associate’s license for at least 24 months during the preceding 5 years in the employ of a governmental agency for a salary; has held a current and valid real estate broker’s license for at least 24 months during the preceding 5 years in any other state, territory, or jurisdiction of the United States, or in any foreign national jurisdiction.

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67
Q

Under which of the following circumstance may a licensed sales associate hold a concurrent license with more than 1 Florida broker?
A. Under no circumstances
B. With the permission of his or her first broker relationship
C. With the written consent of both brokers being represented
D. under a group license

A

A. Under no circumstances

A sales associate may be affiliated with only 1 broker in Florida. A group license only allows a sales associate to work under a developer who operates under different corporate names.

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68
Q

What are the continuing education requirement to renew a both a sales associate and a broker license AFTER the initial renewal?
A. 14 hours of continuing education every 2 years for sales associate, 8 hours being specialty and 3 hours on law for each year.
B. 14 hours of continuing education every 2 years with attendance at a FREC meeting covering law
C. 14 hours of continuing education with 3 hours of ethics and 3 hours of law, where attendance at a FREC meeting may count for specialty training.
D. 28 hours of continuing education if the license has been involuntary inactive for any portion of the 2 years.

A

C. 14 hours of continuing education with 3 hours of ethics and 3 hours of law, where attendance at a FREC meeting may count for specialty training.

Sales associates and brokers are required to complete 14 hours of continuing education with 3 hours of that education covering real estate law, and 3 hours of that education covering ethics. Either may also attend a FREC meeting (provided they have made arrangements and receive 3 hours of specialty credit for continuing education.

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69
Q

What is the correct term for a Florida real estate licensee working under the direction of a broker?
A. Real estate sales associate or broker associate
B. REALTOR Associate or Associate broker
C. Real estate salesperson broker/salesperson
D. Associate REALTORS

A

A. Real estate sales associate or broker associate

Revisions to the Florida statutes changed the designation of “salesperson” to “sales associate” and those who are licensed as brokers but choose to work under a managing broker as “broker associates” so licensees are referred to in those terms.

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70
Q
A mortgage in Florida may not contain both a prepayment penalty clause and which of the following?
A. An acceleration clause
B. An escalation clause
C. An exculpatory clause
D. A due-on-sale clause
A

D. A due-on-sale clause

Florida law stipulates that mortgages may not contain BOTH a prepayment penalty clause and a due-on-sale clause. Including both clauses would effectively cancel each clause out.

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71
Q

Eve and her husband Adrian have homesteaded property. Adrian owns investment real estate in severalty and has expressed his desire that his investment property would go to his friend Rex. When Adrian dies testate, which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the situation?
A. Adrian died without a will, so Rex will not inherit the property.
B. Eve owns the principal residence in severalty and 50% of the investment property.
C. Eve automatically has 100% interest/ownership in the principal residence. She may also file for an elective share of the investment property. Rex would be entitled to the investment property by reason of the will.
D. Florida is a community property state, so Eve would be entitled to half of all the property that Adrian owned, whether or not he left a will.

A

C. Eve automatically has 100% interest/ownership in the principal residence. She may also file for an elective share of the investment property. Rex would be entitled to the investment property by reason of the will.

Eve, as the surviving spouse, is already entitled to a life estate in the homestead. An elective share consists of 30 percent of the decedent’s net estate. Florida is a common law state, NOT a community property state. Testate means to die WITH a will.

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72
Q

John signed a 1-year lease for a home from Miller in a county where the codes require properties to maintain a number of basic standards in order to be legally inhabited. After a severe storm, John noticed the tap water pressure had gone and now only gave a rusty trickle. John notified Miller but Miller said it was “county water problems.” After 6 weeks, John confronted Miller about the ongoing water problem and Miller admitted it was a problem with broken pipes within the property. Miller said he would fix the pipes, but that he would also have to raise Johnson’s rent $50/month help cover the cost. Which is TRUE?
A. Miller can legally raise the rent to cover the cost of the repairs, because the Florida Landlord and Tenant act prohibits such actions only in multi-unit properties.
B. Miller can legally raise the rent, because the implied consent law says that landlords of properties of any size may share the burden of critical repairs with tenants when those repairs are to meet code standards.
C. Unless Johnson specifically noted in the lease that she would not be responsible for critical repairs to the property, Miller can raise her rent until the cost of the water pipe repairs is amortized.
D. Once the monthly rent was established in the lease, and signed by the parties, Miller cannot raise the rent before the end of the year’s term, regardless the nature of the emergency.

A

D. Once the monthly rent was established in the lease, and signed by the parties, Miller cannot raise the rent before the end of the year’s term, regardless the nature of the emergency.

Miller is obligated to provide fresh running water to the property, by code. John not only could file with the county to mandate the enforcement of the code regarding running water, he could also sue Miller in civil court.

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73
Q

Planning and zoning is implemented for various reasons. Which of the following is NOT a goal of planning and zoning?
A. Preventing urban sprawl
B. Adding value to existing real estate in a particular area
C. Added protection against costly drainage or flooding issues
D. The adequate provision of services such as fire and police

A

B. Adding value to existing real estate in a particular area

The goals of planning and zoning include: savings of tax money by preventing urban sprawl; adequate provisions of services such as fire, police and libraries; providing for road right-of-ways and set backs; protection against costly drainage, flooding or environmental problems; protection for the public from harm in building; reduction in political and equity problems in landfills, prisons etc.; reduction in cost for major catastrophes such as earthquakes, tornados and fire.

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74
Q

Private home ownership in Florida is subject to which of the following?
A. Government interference called S.T.O.P.
B. Government interference called P.E.T.E.
C. Government interference called P.L.A.N.K.
D. Government interference called H.O.M.E.

A

B. Government interference called P.E.T.E.

Private home ownership in Florida is subject to government interference called P.E.T.E., an acronym for: Police Power, Eminent Domain, Taxation, Escheat.

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75
Q

Melinda is purchasing a condo. When she originally saw it she told her sales associate to be sure to ask the seller to leave the unattached bookcases with the property. However, this stipulation was not included in the written agreement nor was it communicated to the seller. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. The bookcases will convey with the condo.
B. The bookcases do not convey with the property.
C. The purchase agreement is voidable by the buyer.
D. The buyer is entitled to payment from the Recovery Fund.

A

B. The bookcases do not convey with the property.

According to the parol evidence rule( which excludes any prior verbal or written evidence not specified in the contract) the bookcases will not convey with the condo. This would be a circumstance in which neither the real estate sales associate nor the buyer was careful in constructing and approving the contract.

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76
Q
Which of the following is NOT one of the 5 major zoning classifications of property?
A. Agricultural property
B. Commercial property
C. Scientific property
D. Industrial property
A

C. Scientific property

The 5 major zoning classifications of property are: residential; commercial; industrial; agricultural; special purpose property.

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77
Q

With a high percentage of absentee owners, Florida places a higher premium on property management than other states. Which of the following best describes a property manager in Florida?
A. A property manager preserves the value of an investment (by an owner) while generating income as an agent for the owner.
B. A property manager preserves the value of an investment (by an owner) while maximizing vacancy.
C. A property manager ensures the functionality an condition of a property to ensure tenant satisfaction.
D. A property manager mediates between landlord and tenant to negotiate rent and settle disputes.

A

A. A property manager preserves the value of an investment (by an owner) while generating income as an agent for the owner.

Property managers are licensed Florida real estate brokers who, under law, have certain specific duties and services to the owner. A property manager is defined as one who preserves the value of an investment (by an owner) while generating income as an agent for the owner.

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78
Q
Jonie purchased her home for $380,000. What are the Stamp Taxes on the Deed
A. $1,330
B. $2,660
C. $266,000
D. $1,700
A

B. $2,660

Stamp taxes on the deed are calculated as 70 cents per $100. 380,000 ÷ 100 X .7 = $2,660.00

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79
Q
The Ericsons purchased their home on November 14th for $255,000. They obtained an 60% mortgage and assumed a second from the sellers in the amount of $49,000. What did they pay in taxes on the Notes?
A. $1,013
B. $1,414
C. $707
D. $892.50
A

A. $1,013

New Note at $255,000 at 60% = $153,000; $153,000 plus $49,000 = $202,000 ÷100 X .35 = $707.00 stamp tax on the mortgages, intangible tax on the new mortgage $153,000 X .002 = $306.00. Total Taxes = $1013.00

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80
Q

Following a disciplinary hearing, the Commission rules against a licensee. What, if any, action may the licensee the take?
A. The licensee may appeal within 90 days to the High Court.
B. The licensee may appeal within 30 days to the District Court of Appeals.
C. The licensee may not appeal the Commission’s decision.
D. The licensee may appeal within 30 days to the HUD.

A

B. The licensee may appeal within 30 days to the District Court of Appeals.

The licensee may appeal to the courts if the FREC did not rule in his favor. The licensee must appeal within 30 days to the District Court of Appeals. While the case is under appeal, the licensee may receive a stay enforcement (stop enforcement) against the FREC.

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81
Q

If a consumer files a complaint against a licensee with the FREC, will the FREC make the complaint public?
A. Yes, the FREC will immediately make public a complaint filed against a licensee.
B. No, the FREC will never make public a complaint filed against a licensee.
C. If probable cause is found the case will be made public after 10 days.
D. If probable cause is found the case will be made public after 60 days.

A

C. If probable cause is found the case will be made public after 10 days.

A complaint is not made public until 10 days after the finding of probable cause. If probable cause is not found the case will remain confidential.

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82
Q

If a licensee receives a criminal conviction, what must he or she do to avoid disciplinary action by the Department?
A. Report the criminal conviction within 30 days to the Department.
B. Report the criminal conviction within 60 days to the Department.
C. Report the criminal conviction within 30 days to the Association of Realtors.
D. Report the criminal conviction within 60 days to his or her broker.

A

A. Report the criminal conviction within 30 days to the Department.

Failure to report a criminal conviction, a plea of nolo contrendere or a misdemeanor conviction within 30 days may result in disciplinary actions against the licensee. The licensee must report to the department if convicted regardless of adjudication. This applies to action by any jurisdiction.

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83
Q

License law requires that brokers must keep careful, exact records of all money in trust accounts. A broker who fails to reconcile an escrow account, even though the account balances, would be subject to what?
A. A $1,000 fine
B. Completion of a 14-hour escrow management course
C. A $300 fine and completion of a 2-hour escrow management course
D. A $100 fine and completion of a 4-hour escrow management course

A

D. A $100 fine and completion of a 4-hour escrow management course

If a broker fails to reconcile an escrow account properly, but the account balances, the broker is subject to a $100 fine and must take a 4-hour escrow management course.

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84
Q
Marhall has a court order against a bankrupt broker for $75,000 in damages caused by the broker's misconduct. How much will Marshall receive from the Recovery Fund?
A. 50% of $75,000
B.  $50,000
C. $75,000
D. $75,000 plus 12% interest
A

B. $50,000

Payments from the Recovery Fund for claims arising out of the same transaction are limited, in total, to $50,000 or the unsatisfied portion of a judgment claim, whichever is less, regardless of the number of claimants or parcels of real estate involved in the transaction.

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85
Q

A buyer is visiting open houses and runs across a nice looking home for sale. The listing sales associate has a single agency agreement with the seller. Can the listing agent show the buyer the home?
A. No, the buyer must contact another agency to secure an appointment to see the home.
B. Yes, if the buyer agrees to sign a dual agency agreement.
C. Yes, as long as the buyer does not have an agent already representing him in the purchase process.
D. Yes, as long as the listing sales associate provides a non-representative disclosure.

A

D. Yes, as long as the listing sales associate provides a non-representative disclosure.

A sales associate must provide a non-representative agency disclosure which states he or she does not represent the buyer.

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86
Q

A real estate licensee is acting as a transaction broker facilitating the sale of a commercial building. Which of the following is correct regarding transaction brokerage in Florida?
A. Both parties must sign the a transaction broker disclosure notice.
B. Transaction brokerage is available only when the broker transitions from single agency.
C. The transaction brokerage role is NOT authorized for a commercial transaction.
D. Neither party is required to sign the broker disclosure notice if the broker is acting as a transaction broker.

A

D. Neither party is required to sign the broker disclosure notice if the broker is acting as a transaction broker.

Transaction brokerage is the default relationship between a broker and buyer or seller In Florida. If another agreement is entered into by written agreement, that will supersede the default. There is no requirement to sign any disclosure or form if the role is transaction brokerage.

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87
Q

A sales associate decides to sell his own property without using a broker. Which of the following is TRUE regarding any advertising the sales associate may wish to do?
A. The sales associate must disclose the name, address and phone number of his broker, even though he is not using a broker to sell his personal property.
B. The sales associate must disclose the fact that he is a real estate licensee.
C. The sales associate is prohibited from selling his own property without a broker.
D. The sales associate is acting as a private citizen and is therefore exempt from disclosing his licensed status.

A

B. The sales associate must disclose the fact that he is a real estate licensee.

Even though the sales associate chooses to sell his property without a broker, he is still a licensed agent in the real estate industry and he is required to disclose to disclose that he is a licensee.

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88
Q

A sales associate is selling her home and wants to promote it through her firm while acting as the sales agent. What must she include in any advertisements?
A. The broker’s phone number and the sales associate’s license number must be displayed on the ad.
B. The sales must disclose their license status at the first meaningful discussion and all advertisements must include the brokerage name.
C. Only the broker’s name needs to appear on the ad.
D. Only the sales associate’s name needs to appear on the ad.

A

B. The sales must disclose their license status at the first meaningful discussion and all advertisements must include the brokerage name.

The sales associate must disclose her status as a real estate agent. In addition, since she is listing the property through her broker, the broker’s name must appear as well.

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89
Q

A sales associate, Jose, entered representative agreements with both the Cunninghams (sellers) and Marissa (buyer). Jose helped Marissa write an offer for $5,000 less than the asking price and presented it to the Cunninghams. Jose pressured the Cunninghams to accept the lower offer since the house had been on the market for 3 months with little interest. Is this allowable?
A. Yes, as long as the Cunninghams are informed, in writing, that Jose is acting as a buyer’s agent for Marissa.
B. Yes, as long as the lower price is indicative of a fair market value for the Cunninghams’ property.
C. No, Marissa is breaking the law by asking Jose to help her gain an edge in negotiating the transaction.
D. No, Jose is violating the rules of a transaction broker.

A

D. No, Jose is violating the rules of a transaction broker.

Since Jose is working as a transaction broker, he cannot work for one party to the detriment of the other.

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90
Q

Which of the following brokers is NOT in compliance with Florida laws pertaining to brokerage offices?
A. Dave, a licensed broker, has established his registered in a commercial mobile home that is in the middle of a shopping center.
B. Charles has a brokerage sign at the entrance of his office that includes his name and designation as licensed real estate broker.
C. Marilyn has moved her brokerage to a new address and properly notified the commission 5 days after the move.
D. Leya, a licensed broker, operates an office in Valdosta, Georgia. She submitted an office request through the proper channels.

A

A. Dave, a licensed broker, has established his registered in a commercial mobile home that is in the middle of a shopping center.

Florida laws require licensed brokers to maintain an office of at least 1 enclosed room in a building of stationary construction and to post a sign at the entrance which contains the name of the broker, trade name (if any), and the words “licensed real estate broker”. Brokers who have registered offices outside Florida must notify of the office location either through a change of address or branch office approval. Changes of address must be supplied to the commission within 10 days of the change.

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91
Q

Which of the following is a non-licensed assistant NOT allowed to do as per the Florida Real Estate Commission guidelines?
A. At an open house, answer questions concerning a listing and provide subjective advice NOT obtained from the licensed employer-approved printed information
B. Receive, record and deposit earnest money, security deposits and advance rents
C. Follow-up on loan commitments after a contract has been negotiated and generally secure the status reports on the loan progress
D. Compute commission checks

A

A. At an open house, answer questions concerning a listing and provide subjective advice NOT obtained from the licensed employer-approved printed information

Under FREC guidelines an unlicensed assistant at an open house may NOT answer questions concerning a listing from which the answer must be obtained from the licensed employer-approved printed information and is objective in nature (not subjective comments).

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92
Q

Which of the following is in violation of Chapter 475 of the Florida Statutes?
A. A real estate sales associate acting as a transaction broker to facilitate a sale between a seller and buyer.
B. A salaried, unlicensed real estate assistant developing promotional materials, scheduling client appointments, and assisting with the clerical preparation of contracts supplied by her employing broker.
C. A school of real estate advertising in connection with an affiliated broker and purporting a pass-fail ratio of 7:1 on the state exam.
D. A licensee under a suspended broker continuing to list and sell houses during the broker’s suspension period, as a subcontractor of the broker’s brokerage firm.

A

D. A licensee under a suspended broker continuing to list and sell houses during the broker’s suspension period, as a subcontractor of the broker’s brokerage firm.

When a broker’s license is suspended or revoked, all licensees under that broker are placed on involuntary inactive status until they find a new employing broker. A real estate school may advertise in connection with an affiliated broker and advertise a pass-fail ratio on the state exam. A real estate assistant who does not engage in the act of selling, listing, purchasing, renting or leasing real estate for a fee or commission is not in violation of the law.

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93
Q

Which of the following is NOT a qualifying brokers’ supervisory responsibly?
A. Maintaining good employer-employee relationships with the licensees in their office.
B. Being accountable for the actions of all licensees in their office.
C. Ensuring that all licensees’ transactions are legally compliant.
D. Assuming responsibility for any damage caused by any violation of the law by any licensee.

A

A. Maintaining good employer-employee relationships with the licensees in their office.

Real estate sales associates and broker associates are considered subcontractors of an employing broker, not employees. Thus, employing brokers do not have employer-employee relationships with the licensees in their brokerage. However, qualifying brokers’ responsibilities entail supervising all licensees’ real estate activities, ensuring legal compliance of all transactions, and assuming accountability for the consequences of any licensee’s acts or omissions that violate the real estate law.

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94
Q

Which of the following is NOT a requirement to register a real estate company in Florida?
A. At least 1 active Florida broker who is an officer, director, member, manager, or partner of the company.
B. A sales associate MAY be an officer, director, member, manager, or partner of the company.
C. Broker-associates may NOT be an officer, director, member, manager, or partner unless they upgrade to active qualifying broker with the company.
D. Payment of the initial fee $95

A

B. A sales associate MAY be an officer, director, member, manager, or partner of the company.

A sales associate may NOT be an officer, director, member, manager, or partner of a real estate company.

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95
Q

Which of the following is NOT accepted practice for managing a sales escrow account?
A. A sales associate deposits $1,000 of personal funds in his broker’s sales escrow account.
B. A broker keeps a balance of $4,500 in a property management escrow account at a Daytona credit union.
C. A broker inadvertently made an error in the recordkeeping for his brokerage’s escrow account. He continues to make authorized disbursements from the escrow account and thinks he will be able to correct the error within 2 weeks.
D. A broker keeps a minimum balance of $5,000 in her sales escrow account at the local savings and loan.

A

A. A sales associate deposits $1,000 of personal funds in his broker’s sales escrow account.

The statutes allow brokers to maintain up to $5,000 of personal or brokerage funds in a property management escrow account or up to $1,000 in a sales escrow account. In the case of errors, brokers are provided a reasonable time to correct errors and authorized disbursements may still occur.

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96
Q

Generally speaking, When and where does the Florida Real Estate Commission meet?
A. Once per month, at the Division of Real Estate offices in Orlando, Florida
B. Once every 6 months, at the Division of Real Estate offices in Orlando, Florida
C. Once per quarter-year, at the Division of Real Estate offices in Tampa, Florida
D. Only when called to session or every 9 months, whichever is sooner, at the Division of Real Estate offices in Orlando, Florida

A

A. Once per month, at the Division of Real Estate offices in Orlando, Florida

The Florida Real Estate Commission meets once per month, usually on the 3rd Tuesday and Wednesday of each month. The Commission meetings are held at the Division of Real Estate offices in Orlando, Florida.

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97
Q

Marta is an unlicensed individual who manages all leasing activities for San Mateo Property Management, including handling marketing and rent collection for the myriad of clients the firm serves. She is paid a base salary for her administrative role plus a commission for each new lease. Which of the following steps must the FREC take when it learns of her actions?
A. Impose criminal sanctions on Marta for engaging in the business of real estate without licensure.
B. Report Marta promptly to the unlicensed activity section created by the DBPR.
C. Bring an administrative complaint against Marta to the Department of Business and Professional Regulation.
D. Nothing, because Marta is exempt from the need for licensure because she works for a property management firm.

A

B. Report Marta promptly to the unlicensed activity section created by the DBPR.

Although Martha does NOT need a license if she is paid a salary, she DOES need a license if she receives commissions. The DBPR has created an unlicensed activity reporting system whereby any unlicensed activity may be reported and the state attorney’s office notified.

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98
Q

Which of the following is considered a material fact that MUST be disclosed per the Florida statutes?
A. The owners believe they saw a ghost of a murder victim who died on the property.
B. The owner’s spouse committed suicide on the property last year.
C. The previous owner died at home after a long illness.
D. While the owner was restaining his deck, the staircase crumbled due to termite activity.

A

D. While the owner was restaining his deck, the staircase crumbled due to termite activity.

The fact that a property was, or was at any time suspected to have been, the site of a homicide, suicide, or death is not a material fact that need be disclosed in a real estate transaction. A material defect such as termite activity MUST be disclosed.

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99
Q
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for inclusion a listing agreement?
A. A definite expiration date
B. The amount the seller will accept
C. The owner's signature
D. A commission rate
A

B. The amount the seller will accept

Listing agreements in Florida must include a definite expiration date, proper identification of the property, price, terms and conditions, fee or commission to be paid and the owner’s signature. An automatic renewal clause for extension of the listing is in violation of Florida Law. The seller’s acceptance is based upon the offer, not the listing agreement.

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100
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding listing agreements in Florida?
A. Listing agreements must be in writing and specify only the referral fee.
B. Listing agreements must include a definite continuation date and include a description of the neighborhood.
C. Listing agreements cannot be in writing and must specify the fee or commission.
D. Listing agreements must include a definite expiration date, include a description of the property, and specify the fee or commission.

A

D. Listing agreements must include a definite expiration date, include a description of the property, and specify the fee or commission.

According to Florida real estate law, listing agreements must include a definite expiration date, a description of the property, price and terms, and fee or commission. There is nothing, however, that states listing agreements must be in writing.

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101
Q

A sales associate just helped the Walters find a new home. After the contract was accepted, the Walters asked her to help them find a mortgage broker. The sales associate knows a broker who pays referral fees to real estate agents. Can she refer the Walters to that broker?
A. Yes, if the fee is disclosed in an addendum to the agency agreement.
B. No, this is a violation of federal law.
C. Yes, if the mortgage broker offers fair market interest rates and terms.
D. Yes, if the mortgage broker does not work for the same company as the sales associate.

A

B. No, this is a violation of federal law.

RESPA (The Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act) states that a licensee participating in a sale may NOT accept any type of referral fee another participant in that sale.

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102
Q

Rita fell in love with a home built in 1905. She was surprised when the listing broker gave her a lead-based paint disclosure form at closing. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. The broker was not required to give Rita the form because the house was built before 1978.
B. According to the EPA, homes over 100 years old are considered “historic” and are not subject to lead based paint disclosure laws, so the form would not have been required.
C. The law says the seller may not accept an offer from the buyer unless both the Lead-based Paint Disclosure and EPA pamphlet have been given. If the seller fails to give the disclosure and pamphlet to the buyer, the broker is responsible for doing so.
D. Lead-based Paint Disclosure is only applicable to commercial property, so the broker should not have given Rita the disclosure.

A

C. The law says the seller may not accept an offer from the buyer unless both the Lead-based Paint Disclosure and EPA pamphlet have been given. If the seller fails to give the disclosure and pamphlet to the buyer, the broker is responsible for doing so.

The Lead-based Paint Hazard Reduction Act requires that sellers and landlords of homes built prior to 1978 give the disclosure form and pamphlet. If the buyer does NOT receive the disclosure, the buyer is not bound by the purchase agreement and both seller and agents are in violation of the law.

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103
Q

After failing his Florida licensing exam Doug decided to change his career path and began working as an administrator for the FHA. With FHA approval, Doug gave lists of foreclosed properties to broker Paige, under the provision that Paige would pay him a percentage of commissions earned by her company on properties from that list. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Paige is allowed to compensate Doug as long as he does not provide any real estate services to the buyer apart from information shown on the FHA list.
B. Paige can legally pay Doug in this manner because he works for the FHA and had permission to distribute property lists.
C. Doug can legally ask for commission after the sale because FHA foreclosure properties are exempt from Florida license law.
D. Paige is violating the law because she is agreeing to pay compensation to an individual who is not licensed.

A

D. Paige is violating the law because she is agreeing to pay compensation to an individual who is not licensed.

Paige could have paid a flat fee for the list of FHA foreclosure properties, but because she tied the compensation to transactions that close, she is in violation of Florida law. A broker cannot pay a referral fee to anyone who is not licensed, regardless of the FHA’s permission.

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104
Q

Alejandro is a salesperson at Rococo Real Estate Brokerage in Pensacola. While visiting his daughter in Daytona, Alejandro sees a property offered by Daytona Diligent Realty which he proceeds to sell to a client back in Pensacola. Alejandro receives 5% commission from Daytona Diligent Realty. Is there anything wrong with this situation, and if so, what is the key legal condition?
A. No, as long as Alejandro maintained an active sales associate license in Florida and Daytona Diligent Realty was the listing Broker.
B. No, as long as Daytona Diligent Realty “cooperated” with selling agent Alejandro.
C. Yes, Alejandro and Daytona Diligent Realty are in violation of Florida’s real estate license law.
D. Yes, Alejandro is only entitled to a maximum of 3% commission.

A

C. Yes, Alejandro and Daytona Diligent Realty are in violation of Florida’s real estate license law.

Alejandro may only be compensated by his broker, Rococo Real Estate, so any offer of commission or fee made directly by Daytona Diligent Realty must be refused. Both parties are in violation of Florida’s real estate license law.

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105
Q

An applicant for the real estate licensing exam in Florida must submit which of the following along with an electronic application?
A. A letter of recommendation
B. 3 different photographs
C. A written request for letter of licensure along with a $25 fee
D. Electronic fingerprints

A

D. Electronic fingerprints

Electronic fingerprinting allows applicants to have their fingerprints scanned and electronically submitted to the Florida Department of Law Enforcement and Federal Bureau of Investigation. Electronic fingerprinting is the only allowable method of background checks for licensure in Florida (Unless the potential licensee is out of country and away from a digital fingerprinting source).

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106
Q

As far as Florida real estate licensing is concerned, which of the following constitutes a Florida resident?
A. Anyone who has continuously resided in Florida for 4 calendar months at any point in their life.
B. Anyone who has continuously resided in Florida for 6 calendar months in the preceding 2 years.
C. Anyone who has continuously resided in Florida for 4 calendar months in the preceding year.
D. Anyone who has continuously resided in Florida for 2 calendar months in the preceding year.

A

C. Anyone who has continuously resided in Florida for 4 calendar months in the preceding year.

A Florida resident is anyone who has resided in Florida continuously for a period of 4 calendar months or more in the preceding year or, anyone who presently resides in Florida with the intention to reside continuously in Florida for a period of 4 months or more.

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107
Q

At age 18, Leslie is considering what to do when she graduates from high school in 9 months. Can she begin taking prelicense coursework during her final year of high school?
A. Yes, but she cannot be licensed until she is at least 19 years old.
B. Yes, but she cannot be licensed until she receives her high school diploma.
C. No, she cannot begin prelicensure coursework until she has a high school diploma.
D. No, she cannot begin prelicensure coursework until she is at least 19 years old.

A

B. Yes, but she cannot be licensed until she receives her high school diploma.

To be eligible for licensure a candidate must be at least 18 years of age and hold a high school diploma or its equivalent.

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108
Q

Bonita, a real estate licensee in Georgia, wants to obtain her Florida license. What steps must she take?
A. Submit an application with the required fee.
B. Submit application, required fee, and current certification of license history.
C. Take and pass a 63-hour prelicense course.
D. Pass the Florida State Exam on Real Estate Law and send in a current certification of license history from Georgia with the Florida application and the required fee.

A

D. Pass the Florida State Exam on Real Estate Law and send in a current certification of license history from Georgia with the Florida application and the required fee.

Florida has mutual recognition with other states allowing individuals with active real estate licenses to receive a Florida Real Estate license by passing a state examination on real estate law. Applicants with experience from one of the other states need to attach a current certification of license history from the licensing agency of jurisdiction to the Florida application and submit the required fee.

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109
Q

Broker Marge was swamped, and asked Jilly and Kelly to help with 1 of her clients. Jilly is a non-licensed secretary and Kelly is a real estate licensee working in a non-representative role with the seller. Who could help Marge and provide the seller with a comparative market analysis (CMA)?
A. Neither. Not being licensed, Jilly could not do a CMA and although Kelly is licensed, she could only provide the seller with a CMA in a transaction broker or single agent capacity.
B. Both. Under Florida law, brokers may assign rudimentary administrative duties to unlicensed staff, so Jilly could do the CMA. Kelly could also do it because she is licensed under Marge.
C. Jilly could if the seller signs a notice that states he will not construe the CMA to create an agency relationship.
D. Kelly could. There is no restriction to prevent a licensee from preparing a CMA for a buyer or seller.

A

D. Kelly could. There is no restriction to prevent a licensee from preparing a CMA for a buyer or seller.

Only Kelly could. There is no restriction under Florida Real Estate law to prevent licensees from preparing a CMA for a buyer or seller. CMAs are outside the scope of office administration, so Jilly could not.

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110
Q
What is the mnemonic for the process of adverse posession to take place in Florida?
A. L.E.A.C.H.
B. T.A.K.E.
C. O.P.A.T.C.H.
D. E.N.C.R.O.A.C.H.
A

C. O.P.A.T.C.H.

Adverse possession is based on the common law which says that all owners should be aware and in possession of their property at all times. For Adverse Possession to take place (adverse to the owner’s title), certain items must be in place. The acronym is O.P.A.T.C.H. - Open, Possession, Actual, Taxes, Continuous, Hostile. 7 years is the minimum requirement for adverse possession.

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111
Q

When Theresa’s neighbor Joe died, his son informed Theresa that he was going to enforce the easement he and Joe had running along the back edge of Theresa’s property. Theresa said that since Joe hadn’t enforced it in 18 years, he had lost the right because the easement automatically terminated in that amount of time. Was she correct?
A. Yes, Theresa was correct. After 15 consecutive years an unenforced easement in Florida terminates automatically.
B. Yes, Theresa was correct. The easement was terminated after 7 years, by adverse possession.
C. No Theresa was wrong. It takes 360 consecutive months without interruption to terminate an easement in this way.
D. takes 20 consecutive years without interruption before the easement may be terminated.

A

D. takes 20 consecutive years without interruption before the easement may be terminated.

By prescription, an easement may be created or terminated after 20 consecutive years. Further, the easement may be cancelled by the new owner since the easement was not in writing. Title to adverse possession requires 7 years of hostile possession in addition to other specific requirements.

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112
Q
Which of the following does a property manager NOT owe to the tenant?
A. Disclosure of material facts
B. Honesty
C. A guaranteed return of their deposit
D. Accuracy
A

C. A guaranteed return of their deposit

Security deposits are held in trust until a tenant vacates. Upon confirmation that there was no damage other than wear and tear, the tenant’s deposit must be returned during the appropriate timeframe.

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113
Q
What Florida Act was initiated to limit urban sprawl and encourage a more compacted development of land use?
A. The Land Use Act
B. The Downsizing Act
C. The Urban Planning Act
D. The Growth Management Act
A

D. The Growth Management Act

The Florida Growth Management Act of 2011 requires local governments to create planning consistent with a statewide land-use plan to reduce urban growth.

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114
Q
What type of Acts were developed to make laws aimed at controlling zoning and property use?
A. Empowerment Acts
B. Enabling Acts
C. Zone Acts
D. Property Usage Acts
A

B. Enabling Acts

The right to make laws to control property use is called Enabling Acts.

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115
Q

A property located in the county has 70 acres. The property has a house, a barn, and a chicken coop. What type of property would this be considered under Florida Law?
A. This is a commercial property, since it produces farm produce.
B. This is agricultural property, since it has more than 10 acres.
C. This is a single family residential property, since it has a house located on the property.
D. This is a single family residential property, since the property has fewer than 100 acres.

A

B. This is agricultural property, since it has more than 10 acres.

The property in this example would be considered agricultural.

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116
Q

Florida zoning regulations govern which of the following issues?
A. The amount of space between the lot line and the building line
B. Qualifications for property owners
C. The price of an easement that transfers with the title to a piece of land
D. The riparian rights of a landowner whose property is adjacent to a flowing waterway

A

A. The amount of space between the lot line and the building line

Zoning ordinances regulate and control the use of a property in a municipality and govern such issues as land use, building heights, setbacks, and density. Zoning regulations have no effect on the price of improvements or appurtenances, restrictions on ownership, or property rights.

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117
Q

With regards to appraisal services, which of the following holds TRUE?
A. The law allows brokers and sales associates to provide valuation services for compensation as long as they do not represent themselves as appraisers.
B. The law prevents brokers from performing any services assessing property value, except giving price opinions.
C. The law prevents sales associates from giving any price opinion on a property, except comparative market analyses.
D. Brokers and sales associates are allowed to conduct appraisals as long as they convey to clients, in writing, that they are not licensed appraisers.

A

A. The law allows brokers and sales associates to provide valuation services for compensation as long as they do not represent

The law to allows brokers and sales associates to provide “valuation services” for a fee including giving price opinions, conducting comparative market analyses, and giving values of the opinion of real estate as long as they do not represent themselves as certified, licensed, or registered as an appraiser.

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118
Q

John has been farming his land in Florida for nearly 22 years. His principal crops are cabbage and oranges. He also raises pigs and horses for sale on his 280-acre property. He has consistently used conservation methods and fertilizing to maintain the value of the land. He has also reforested where possible on his property. He is currently seeking some tax relief. Is he likely to get relief?
A. Yes, because his property falls under the Florida’s Amendment 477.
B. No. Because his property is more than 200 acres, he must pay commercial property taxes.
C. Yes, because his property falls under the Florida Green Belt Law.
D. No, only properties without livestock are eligible.

A

C. Yes, because his property falls under the Florida Green Belt Law.

In order the preserve Florida’s farming community, the legislature in 1959 passed the Green Belt Law. This taxes agricultural land at a lower rate than the encroaching cities around the land, and preserves the land for future agricultural use. Without this protection, owning farm land and paying taxes would be prohibitive. John’s property would qualify

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119
Q

Millie and Britt have owned 2 homes for the past 7 years, 1 in Manhattan and 1 in Tampa. 6 years ago they separated, and Millie decided to stay in Manhattan, with Britt electing to live in Tampa. They now want to sell the house in Manhattan and buy Millie a condo. Can Britt and Millie exclude up to $500,000 of gain when they sell the home if they file a separately for income tax?
A. Yes, Britt and Millie may take their one-time tax exclusion on the gain from the sale of either home.
B. Yes, as long as Britt and Millie have owned the home for 2 of the last 5 years, they may exclude up to $500,000 of gain when they sell the home.
C. No, they can only claim $250,000 for taxes since they filing separately
D. No, Both Britt and Miller must have lived in and used the home to qualify for the $500,000 exclusion.

A

D. No, Both Britt and Miller must have lived in and used the home to qualify for the $500,000 exclusion.

Tax law states that tax deferral of gains is eliminated because the gain may no longer be rolled over into a new home. However, gain of up to $500,000 is excluded when Britt and Millie file a joint return IF they meet the residence and ownership tests. IRC section 121 allows a taxpayer to exclude $250,000 ($500,000 for joint filers) of gain on the sale or exchange of a home if it was owned and used as the taxpayer’s principal residence for 2 of the 5 years preceding the sale. To qualify for the $500,000 exclusion on joint returns, only 1 spouse must meet the ownership test, but both spouses must meet the use test. Since they lived apart, they would not meet the use test and therefore not qualify.

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120
Q

Of the following, which is NOT a disciplinary action open to the Commission if a licensee fails to provide disclosure or fails to adhere to the disclosure provisions set forth in the regulations?
A. Place the licensee on probation or suspend the licensee
B . Impose an administrative fine of $1,000 for each count
C. Deny an application for licensure or renewal
D. Place penalty points on the licensee’s license

A

D. Place penalty points on the licensee’s license

If a licensee fails to provide or adhere to the provisions of disclosure, the Commission may: deny an application for licensure or renewal; may place the licensee on probation; may suspend a licensee; may impose an administrative fine of $1,000 for each count; may issue a reprimand; or any or all of the above.

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121
Q

Which of the following regarding the position of FREC and disputes between licensees over unpaid commissions is TRUE?
A. All licensees are beholden to the FREC and so any dispute, commission-based or otherwise is handled by the FREC.
B. The FREC does not involve itself with licensees in any way.
C. The FREC will intervene in disputes between brokers, but not in disputes between sales associates.
D. Commission disputes are a civil matter. However, if a judgment is obtained and the licensee fails to pay the judgment, a complaint can be filed against the licensee with the FREC.

A

D. Commission disputes are a civil matter. However, if a judgment is obtained and the licensee fails to pay the judgment, a complaint can be filed against the licensee with the FREC.

FREC disputes are a civil matter. If a judgment is obtained and the licensee fails to pay the judgment, a complaint can be filed against the licensee for failing to pay a judgment.

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122
Q

Who would NOT be eligible for a payment from the Real Estate Recovery fund?
A. Myra has a final judgment from civil court against licensee Taylor.
B. Melba makes a claim against a licensee 18 months after the transaction in question.
C. A claimant, Diana, was a licensed real estate sales associate when a broker representing her failed to protect her interests in a commercial real estate transaction.
D. Warren was awarded $15,000 in damages by the civil court, against which he applied the $10,000 paid by the licensee’s insurance company.

A

C. A claimant, Diana, was a licensed real estate sales associate when a broker representing her failed to protect her interests in a commercial real estate transaction.

No one with an active real estate license at the time of an alleged act is be eligible for damages from the Real Estate Recovery Fund. In order to be eligible an individual must have a final judgment from a civil court against a licensee, and must make the claim within 2 years from the actual act or discovery of the act (as long as no more than 4 years have elapsed since the act). Additionally, the claimant must have notified the Commission by certified mail at the time the action against the licensee was initiated. Any monies already recovered from other sources must be applied to the court-awarded damages.

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123
Q

Wilma accepted an offer on her home from a buyer who provided a $3,500 earnest money deposit, but thereafter neither she nor her broker heard from the buyer. What is the most accurate way the broker should handle this situation and the $3,500?
A. The broker must hold the $3,500 for the buyer in escrow to claim for no less than 1 year, but does not need to notify anyone apart from his client.
B. The broker must send the check back to the missing buyer’s bank, notify the FREC of “Abandoned Funds” and retain a copy in his records for 3 years.
C. The broker must notify the Commission after 90 days of dispersal of abandoned funds to his client.
D. The broker must notify the Commission within 15 business days that he has a good-faith doubt.

A

D. The broker must notify the Commission within 15 business days that he has a good-faith doubt.

Good-faith doubt exists when the closing or consummation date of a sale has not passed, but 1 or more of the parties has expressed intention not to close. In addition to that fact, the broker must not have received conflicting or identical instructions from all parties concerning disbursement of escrowed funds. After realizing he has good-faith doubt (which is not spelled out as a specified amount of time), the broker must notify the FREC within 15 business days.

124
Q

Which of the following limitations has been placed on FREC in the collection of fees for the Recovery Fund?
A. The FREC may collect fees only when the Recovery Fund falls below $500,000.
B. the FREC may collect fees until the Recovery Fund reaches $750,000.
C. The FREC may collect fees until the Recovery Fund reaches $1 million.
D. The FREC may collect fees if the Recovery Fund exceeds $1.5 million.

A

C. The FREC may collect fees until the Recovery Fund reaches $1 million.

If the balance of the Recovery Fund falls below $500,000 special fees can be assessed against all issued licenses. If the Fund exceeds $1,000,000 the collection of fees is discontinued at the end of the licensing cycle and cannot be reinstated until the Fund drops below $500,000. Generally the fees are $1.50 per year assessed to new and renewed sales associate licenses and $3.50 per year assessed to new and renewed broker licenses.

125
Q
A void contract is one that is
A. not in writing.
B. not legally enforceable.
C. rescindable by agreement.
D. voidable by only one of the parties.
A

B. not legally enforceable.

In order to be enforceable, real estate contracts must meet the legal requirements for contracts in general. For example, a contract signed by a minor or a “seller” who doesn’t own the property in question was never legal to begin with and is thus “void.”

126
Q
The essential elements of a contract include all of the following EXCEPT
A. offer and acceptance.
B. notarized signatures.
Ccompetent parties.
Dconsideration.
A

B. notarized signatures.

A contract sets forth the terms and conditions of a real estate transaction, but does not itself transfer ownership. Thus it does not need to be notarized.

127
Q
If, upon the receipt of an offer to purchase his property, the seller makes a counteroffer, the prospective buyer is
A. bound by his original offer.
B. bound to accept the counteroffer.
C. bound by whichever offer is lower.
D. relieved of his original offer.
A

D. relieved of his original offer.

Offers are “one-time-only” events that must be accepted or rejected. Once the seller made a counter-proposal, he rejected the buyer’s offer and no contract exists. The buyer is under no obligation to continue and is entitled to have any earnest money that accompanied the offer returned immediately.

128
Q

An option
A. requires the optionor to complete the transaction.
B. gives the optionee an easement on the property.
C. does not keep the offer open for a specified time.
D. makes the seller liable for a commission.

A

A. requires the optionor to complete the transaction.

It is up to the optionor (seller)to finish the transaction IF the optionee (buyer) decides to exercise the option. The optionee does not have to exercise the option, but would lose whatever option monies that have been deposited.

129
Q

When a prospective buyer makes a written purchase offer that the seller accepts, then the
A. buyer may take possession of the real estate.
B. seller grants the buyer ownership rights.
C. buyer receives legal title to the property.
D. buyer receives equitable title to the property.

A

D. buyer receives equitable title to the property.

“Equitable title” means that the prospective buyer has obtained the right to acquire ownership of a property currently owned and occupied by another.

130
Q

To assign a contract for the sale of real estate means to
A. record the contract with the county recorder’s office.
B. permit another broker to act as agent for the principal.
C. transfer one’s rights under the contract.
D. allow the seller and the buyer to exchange positions.

A

C. transfer one’s rights under the contract.

Assigning a contract means to transfer it to another.

131
Q

An optionor and an optionee make a contract for an option on a commercial piece of property. If the optionee decides to exercise his option, when must he perform?
A. He must exercise his option within 6 months under state law.
B. He must exercise his option under the terms of the option contract.
C. He must exercise his option when the optionor demands it.
D. He can exercise his option whenever he wants.

A

B. He must exercise his option under the terms of the option contract.

Options are generally concerned with only two things: time and price. Whatever the parties agree to in those regards defines the terms of the option and the obligations of the parties.

132
Q
In an installment land contract, what type of title did the seller retain?
A. Joint
B. Legal
C. Equitable
D. Record
A

B. Legal

In this type of contract, the BUYER doesn’t receive legal (i.e. statutory) title to the property until the final payment is made. The BUYER receives equitable title at closing, and upon final payment to the seller receives legal title.

133
Q

A person agrees to sell a property for $500,000. The buyer gives the seller $150 as valuable consideration for a six-month option. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The $150 is valuable consideration if the seller accepted it.
B. The buyer must have at least 5% down as valuable consideration.
C. The buyer must have at least 20% down.
D. The seller cannot accept money for the option.

A

A. The $150 is valuable consideration if the seller accepted it.

“Valuable consideration” is a necessary component of all contracts. It is the benefit one party receives in exchange for granting benefit to the other. Generally it is money in any amount both parties agree to, though it can take other forms such as personal property, work or refraining from an act.

134
Q
The discount points charged by a lender on a federal VA or FHA loan are a percentage of the
A. sales price.
B. appraised price.
C. loan amount.
D. down payment.
A

C. loan amount.

Like points, discount points are one-time charges equal to one percent of the loan amount for each point charged.

135
Q
When the amortized payment of a mortgage remains constant over the period of the loan but leaves an outstanding balance to be paid at the end, this payment is called
A. an escalation payment.
B. a balloon payment.
C. a satisfaction payment.
D. an acceleration payment.
A

B. a balloon payment.

Typically, mortgages with balloon payments are used as a creative financing tool in which buyers plan to refinance the balance in three to five years with better terms than they can qualify for now.

136
Q

One of the main purposes of RESPA regulations is?
A. to protect the real estate agent from fraud.
B. to better inform the real estate agent about the financing of a real estate transaction
C. to protect the home buyer from fraud.
D. to better inform the buyer about the financing of a real estate transaction

A

D. to better inform the buyer about the financing of a real estate transaction

RESPA has two main purposes. One is to better inform the buyer through mandated disclosure statements. The second is to prohibit some settlement practices like kickbacks and referral fees.

137
Q
RESPA would prohibit which of the following acts?
A. Steering
B. Paying of kickbacks
C. Blockbusting
D. Redlining
A

B. Paying of kickbacks

RESPA concerns itself only with educating consumers about the true costs of borrowing and standardizing lending practices. As such, referral “fees” are prohibited.

138
Q
Owner Stan has been defaulting on mortgage payments and owes more than his property is worth. Stan's lender is allowing him to sell the property for less money than necessary to satisfy the loan. The bank has permitted Stan to do what?
A. Commit tax fraud
B. Short sale the property
C. Deed the property to HUD
D. "Flip" the property
A

B. Short sale the property

Short sales avoid the delay and expense of a foreclosure sale. The lender usually forgives the mortgage balance owed after the sale.

139
Q
Owner Grace's property has been foreclosed. After the property was sold for $340,000, she still owed $60,000 to the lender. The lender may be able to get a personal judgment against Grace for the $60,000. This is called a
A. leverage lien.
B. partition lawsuit.
C. reverse foreclosure judgment.
D. deficiency judgment.
A

D. deficiency judgment.

A deficiency judgment enables the lender to attach and foreclose a judgment lien on other real or personal property the borrower owns.The lender’s ability to pursue such a judgment may be limited, however.

140
Q

The finance charges recorded on the Truth in Lending statements would include all of the following EXCEPT
A. loan fees charged by the lender.
B. insurance premiums for mortgage insurance payment.
C. discount points and service fees.
D. recording fees and title insurance premiums.

A

D. recording fees and title insurance premiums.

These are considered legal, not financing fees and therefore are not part of the Truth in Lending statement.

141
Q

A mortgage broker
A. arranges loans between borrowers and investors.
B. is a lender.
C. buys mortgages in the secondary mortgage market.
D. buys mortgages and resells them at a profit.

A

A. arranges loans between borrowers and investors.

Mortgage brokers function much like independent insurance agents and represent a variety of lenders. Their role is to match the circumstances of individual buyers with the mortgage program best suited to their needs.

142
Q

The Smiths’ purchased a residence for $750,000. They made a down payment of $150,000 and agreed to assume the seller’s existing mortgage, which had a current balance of $230,000. The Smiths’ financed the remaining $370,000 of the purchase price by executing a second mortgage whereby the seller became a mortgagee. This type of loan is called a
A. wraparound mortgage.
B. package mortgage.
C. balloon note.
D. part (junior) purchase money mortgage.

A

D. part (junior) purchase money mortgage.

Also known as a “purchase money second,” this is a streamlined and often cost-effective financing option.

143
Q

Usury MOST nearly means
A. making loans without the benefit of co-signors.
B. lending money at fluctuating interest rates.
C. redlining.
D. illegal interest.

A

D. illegal interest.

Each state sets its own ceiling for the maximum interest rate lenders may charge. Rates above that ceiling are considered usurious and illegal. No reputable lender exceeds those rates and those that make a practice of it are commonly known as loan sharks.

144
Q
Which of the following describes a mortgage that requires principal and interest payments at regular intervals and is called the liquidation of debt by periodic installment until the debt is satisfied?
A. Amortized loan
B. Annuity loan
C. Acceleration loan
D. Assemblage loan
A

A. Amortized loan

This question is a formal description of amortized loans–the most common form of mortgage where monthly payments include both principal and interes (as opposed to balloon or interest-only seconds). Typically, monthly payment amounts remain constant, while the interest portion is higher in the earlier years, giving homeowners a larger tax deduction with higher percentages of principal paid in the later years.

145
Q
An impound or reserve account MOST benefits whom?
A. The borrower
B. The lender
C. The trustee
D. The trustor
A

B. The lender

Also known as escrow accounts, impound accounts accumulate funds from closing costs and monthly payments to ensure that property taxes and homeowner’s insurance are kept current.

146
Q

The Closing Disclosure (CD) form is
A. the document used to make Fair Housing complaints.
B. provided after signing a listing agreement.
C. a statement of actual charges and adjustments.
D. the document that must be displayed in brokerages.

A

C. a statement of actual charges and adjustments.

The Closing Disclosure (CD) is a standard form in use which is used to itemize services and fees charged to the borrower by the lender. The form is called for in the TILA RESPA Integrated Disclosure (TRID).

147
Q

A VA loan may be granted for the purchase of a one-family to four-family property if
A. the veteran certifies the rent collected will equal the mortgage payments.
B. the loan will be amortized for not more than 20 years.
C. the down payment will be at least 10%.
D. the veteran agrees to live there.

A

D. the veteran agrees to live there.

Although the rules and terms can fluctuate, the low down payment and below market interest features of VA loans come with the condition that the borrower live in the property.

148
Q
A standardized measurement expressing the true annual cost of borrowing is expressed as the what?
A. ECOA
B. AGI
C. APR
D. RESPA
A

C. APR

APR stands for “Annual Percentage Rate” and expresses the true cost of the loan by factoring fees such as points, recording fees, appraisal fees and such into the interest rate. For example, a mortgage that showed an interest rate of 4.85% on the promissory note might have an APR of 5% when associated costs are factored in.

149
Q
RESPA would prohibit which of the following acts?
A. Steering
B. Paying of kickbacks
C. Blockbusting
D. Redlining
A

B. Paying of kickbacks

RESPA concerns itself only with educating consumers about the true costs of borrowing and standardizing lending practices. As such, referral “fees” are prohibited.

150
Q
In which of the following markets may a lender sell a loan that a mortgage banker has previously originated?
A. Primary market
B. Secondary market
C. Stock market
D. Consumer market
A

B. Secondary market

Many homeowners are surprised the first time they receive a letter from a lender they’ve never heard of informing them that they now hold the mortgage on their home and that future payments should be sent to them. This secondary market is where lenders buy and sell mortgages to balance their portfolios according to market conditions and their internal needs and objectives. It should be noted that the terms of mortgages bought and sold cannot be changed by the new note holders.

151
Q
Which of the following is considered a conventional loan?
A. FHA insured
B. VA guaranteed
C. Commercial bank's 15 year loan
D. Contract for deed
A

C. Commercial bank’s 15 year loan

Though 30 year loans are more common, 15 year loans are considered standard, conventional loans. Options A and B are part of various government programs to help low and moderate income families as well as veterans find affordable home financing.

152
Q

All of the following are true of conventional loans except what?
A. They are made to the buyer without governmental insurance or guarantee.
B. The policy requirements of the lenders are not uniform.
C. The qualification requirements are uniformly fixed by state law.
D. They require a higher down payment than non-conventional loans.

A

C. The qualification requirements are uniformly fixed by state law.

Not only are guidelines not uniform, qualification standards can vary enormously from lender to lender. There are no state-mandated qualifying requirements for conventional loans.

153
Q

A buyer wants to take out an FHA loan. The broker should refer the buyer directly to
A. any approved lending institution such as a bank or savings and loan association.
B. an FHA appraiser in the area.
C. the Federal Housing Administration Office.
D. the Federal National Mortgage Association.

A

A. any approved lending institution such as a bank or savings and loan association.

Lenders must be approved by the Federal Housing Authority before they can offer FHA loans. Part of the approval process includes waiving fees customarily charged on conventional mortgages.

154
Q

When real estate under an estate for years is sold, what happens to the lease?
A. It expires with the conveyance.
B. It binds the new owner.
C. It is subject to termination with proper notice.
D. It is valid but unenforceable.

A

B. It binds the new owner.

Tenancy for years is the common form of rental agreements and binds all future owners for the term of the lease.

155
Q

The Federal Fair Housing Act states that a prima facie case against a broker for discrimination be established after a complaint has been received because the broker has failed to do which of the following?
A. The broker has failed to display a HUD Equal Opportunity poster.
B. The broker has failed to hire any minority salespeople.
C. The broker has failed to join the NAACP anti-discriminatory task force.
D. The broker has failed to attend mandatory classes on fair housing.

A

A. The broker has failed to display a HUD Equal Opportunity poster.

Included among Fair Housing regulations is the requirement that the HUD Equal Opportunity signage be prominently displayed.

156
Q

Which of the following would usually occur in a sale-and-leaseback transaction?
A. The seller only gets a return on the purchase in the form of rental payments.
B. The property is sold on the condition that the new owner lease it back to the seller at the time title passes.
C. The new owner leases the property out to a third party.
D. The rent that the seller pays is not income-tax deductible.

A

B. The property is sold on the condition that the new owner lease it back to the seller at the time title passes.

A sale-leaseback is usually used for the purpose of creating cash flow from a commercial property. As the name implies, the owner transfers title to the buyer in exchange for cash, then leases the property back at a monthly rate while continuing to run his business from that location or otherwise use the property.

157
Q
The primary survey line running north and south in the rectangular survey system is the
A. township line.
B. base line.
C. range line.
D. principal meridian.
A

D. principal meridian.

Crossing a base line, the principlal meridan is the primary reference point for locating and describing land falling within its boundaries.

158
Q

A three-story apartment complex built in 1965 does not meet with the handicapped access provisions for the 1988 Fair Housing Act. The owner must
A. make the ground floor handicapped accessible.
B. make the 1st and 2nd floors accessible.
C. make the entire building accessible.
D. the owner doesn’t have to comply since it’s less than 4 stories.

A

A. make the ground floor handicapped accessible.

Because the building was constructed before the 1991 standards went into effect, only the first floor needs to be modified.

159
Q

A salesperson is involved in a transaction where an individual wishes a six-month lease with an option to buy. What is true about this situation?
A. The individual must go to an attorney since it is too complicated a transaction for a salesperson.
B. This transaction is too complicated for a salesperson. Only a person with a broker’s license should handle this transaction.
C. A salesperson could use two standard forms, fill in the blanks and request that his or her broker review the forms before signing.
D. The salesperson should write the purchase offer. A lease for 6 months does not need to be in writing.

A

C. A salesperson could use two standard forms, fill in the blanks and request that his or her broker review the forms before signing.

Generally speaking, salespeople may complete standard forms so long as they are reviewed by and with the approval of their broker.

160
Q
A seller listed his home for six months on February 26. On April 29, a buyer made an offer on the property. The listing broker presented the offer to the seller on April 30. The seller accepted the offer on May 1, with the closing to occur on June 15. Assuming the closing took place on June 15, when did the listing expire?
A. May 26th
B. June 15th
C. August 26th
D. December 15th
A

B. June 15th

Listing contracts set forth the terms and conditions under which a broker will sell a property for his or her client. When the closing takes place, the terms of the contract have been fulfilled and it expires automatically.

161
Q
A competent and disinterested person who is authorized by another person to act in his or her place and sign a contract of sale is called
A. an attorney in fact.
B. a substitute grantor.
C. a licensee.
D. an agent.
A

A. an attorney in fact.

“Disinterested” means being able to act in an objective manner without any hidden motivation or prospect of gain. For example, a person who made a secret deal to sign a contract contrary to his client’s best interests in exchange for an under-the-table payment would not be “disinterested.”

162
Q

A zoning change has been announced that will result in the loss of value of the property to a property owner. What should a property manager do?
A. Advise the owner immediately.
B. Terminate the property management agreement.
C. Follow the owner’s instructions that were previously given.
D. Start lobbying against the zoning change.

A

A. Advise the owner immediately.

Again, the property manager is the owner’s “eyes and ears” for protecting the owner’s best interests. Anything that can impact the property’s value in either a positive or negative way should be communicated immediately.

163
Q

Which of the following would not terminate an agency relationship?
A. Abandonment by the agent
B. Revocation by the principal
C. Submission by the agent of two offers at the same time
D. Fulfillment of the agency purpose

A

C. Submission by the agent of two offers at the same time

Submitting offers doesn’t end the relationship–only the owner’s acceptance of one and ultimately closing on the transaction.

164
Q
Which entity is prohibited from collecting taxes on real property?
A. Counties
B. Townships
C. Cities
D. The Federal Government
A

D. The Federal Government

There are no federal taxes on real property. The Constitution of the United States specifically prohibits such taxes. The federal government does, however, tax income derived from real property and gains realized on the sale of real property. The federal government can impose a tax lien against property for failure to pay any tax due the Internal Revenue Service.

165
Q

A homeowner owned a house on a lot. The front ten feet of the lot were taken by eminent domain for a sidewalk. Would the homeowner be entitled to compensation?
A. Yes. The land was taken for public use by eminent domain.
B. Yes. He must be paid for the use of the sidewalk.
C. No. He still had use of the house and lot.
D. No. Compensation is not given on land taken for public use.

A

A. Yes. The land was taken for public use by eminent domain.

Governments and municipalities can only seize property (other than in criminal cases) for the public good and through eminent domain, which is a process, not an arbitrary action. Part of that process involves determining fair compensation to the owner.

166
Q
A recorded subdivision plat is used in the
A. metric survey system.
B. rectangular survey system.
C. lot and block system.
D. metes and bounds system.
A

C. lot and block system.

Lot and block is the “final” survey of property being readied for development and identifies each individual parcel in a subdivision.

167
Q
The zoning commission of Jefferson County requires that all new construction in a specific area adhere to a specific type of architecture. What type of zoning is this?
A. Bulk
B. Retro
C. Directive
D. Aesthetic
A

D. Aesthetic

Aesthetic zoning helps ensure consistency within a neighborhood or area, thus raising its visual appeal and, very often, its desirability and value as a place to live.

168
Q
For the past 30 years Lois has operated a neighborhood grocery store. Last week the city council passed a zoning ordinance that prohibits packaged food sales in the area where Lois's grocery store is located. The store is now an example of a/an
A. illegal enterprise.
B. nonconforming use.
C. violation of eminent domain.
D. variance of the zoning laws.
A

B. nonconforming use.

This is an example of “grandfathering” that’s common when new zoning rules are put into place. Basically it means that businesses and buildings that were in compliance before the new code was established may continue to operate or exist under their present owners. However, if Lois want to sell her business, it must be to an enterprise that meets the new requirement.

169
Q

Which of the following activities is a violation of the Federal Fair Housing Act?
A. A nonprofit church that denies access to its retirement home to any person because of race
B. A nonprofit private club that gives preference in renting units to its members at lower rates
C. The owner of a single-family residence selling his/her own home who gives preference to a buyer based on his/her sex
D. Discrimination in the sale of a warehouse based on the prospective purchaser’s gender

A

A. A nonprofit church that denies access to its retirement home to any person because of race

The private club is exempt because its preferential treatment is based on its membership; the home owner is exempt, so long as he is selling his home without a broker; the warehouse is exempt because it’s not a housing unit.

170
Q

An increase in the availability of money would lead to which effect?
A. Interest rates would go up.
B. Interest rates would go down.
C. Interest rates would NOT be affected due to RESPA guidelines.
D. Interest rates would NOT be affected due to Truth in Lending.

A

B. Interest rates would go down.

Just like most things in a free market economy, mortgage loans are subject to the laws of supply and demand. Thus, when there is more mortgage money in the market place “looking for a home,” borrowers have more choices, which leads to increased competition among lenders, which leads to lower interest rates.

171
Q
The illegal process of a banker refusing to approve loans for a neighborhood based on the racial composition of the area is
A. blockbusting.
B. steering.
C. redlining.
D. panic peddling.
A

C. redlining.

Loans may only be approved or denied on the basis of whether a specific individual and property meet established standards. Thus lenders are well within their rights to deny a loan to a particular person because he or she lacks sufficient income or has poor credit. Additionally, a loan for a partially completed home or one that doesn’t meet code can also be denied. However, “macro” issues such as race or neighborhood cannot be considered.

172
Q
Which phrase is not acceptable to use when advertising?
A. "Quiet streets"
B. "Christian home"
C. "Non-smoking"
D. "Desirable neighborhood"
A

B. “Christian home”

If a licensee creates an ad which is explicit in its preference for or limitation of any particular religion, the ad is discriminatory. It is probably safe to say that any advertising that describes the property would be considered acceptable, while advertising that describes buyers could be considered discriminatory, especially if the buyers are from a protected class.

173
Q
An aggrieved party with a Fair Housing violation claim has how long to file a complaint with the Department of Housing and Urban Development?
A. 1 month
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 3 years
A

C. 1 year

If the complaint is not filed within one year, a person may still file a civil suit in a Federal Court.

174
Q

Which transaction requires a securities license?
A. Leasing a commercial building
B. Selling a commercial warehouse
C. Selling shares in Fannie Mae
D. Arranging a sale-leaseback on a commercial property

A

C. Selling shares in Fannie Mae

Even though Fannie Mae is a mortgage-based business, its shares sell just like any other stock and only people with a securities license may offer them for sale.

175
Q
Under which of the following types of liens can both the real property and the personal property of the debtor be sold to pay the debt?
A. Real estate tax lien
B. Mechanic's lien
C. Judgment lien
D. Assessment lien
A

C. Judgment lien

Most liens are against a specific property, such as a primary residence. Thus, a contractor seeking payment for a new deck cannot have a homeowner’s car attached in settlement. A judgment lien, however, is a decision directed by the courts and can apply to whatever assets it deems appropriate.

176
Q
A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is when an owner takes his property off the market for a definite period of time in exchange for some consideration, but he grants the right to purchase the property within that period for a stated price.
A. option
B. contract of sale
C. right of first refusal
D. installment agreement
A

A. option

It’s important to note that options generally give flexibility to only one side of the transaction. For example, let’s say Barney is expecting a big promotion in six months and wants to buy Fred’s house for $300,000 if it comes through. In exchange for keeping his home off the market for six months and agreeing to sell it to Barney for $300,000 at Barney’s option, Barney gives Fred $3,000. The $3,000 is Fred’s to keep no matter what. However, Barney is not obligated to buy Fred’s house; it’s his choice. Further, if he does get the promotion and wants to exercise his option, Fred must sell Barney his home for $300,000, even if market conditions have now made it worth more.

177
Q

A mobility impaired person was renting a unit in an apartment complex. Half the units had been assigned parking spaces near the door; the other half had not. The owner
A. may charge extra money to the handicapped person for providing the parking space near the door.
B. must take a vote of all tenants to see if they want to allow the handicapped person a parking space.
C. must give a parking space near the door to the handicapped person, if one is available and a need is demonstrated.
D. does not have to offer the handicapped person the parking spot near the door.

A

C. must give a parking space near the door to the handicapped person, if one is available and a need is demonstrated.

The “equal access” aspects of fair housing legislation do not necessarily mean equal treatment. “Reasonable accommodation” must also be made to meet the needs of handicapped people, including exceptions to standard policies such as convenient parking and guide dogs.

178
Q

A broker is discussing a new listing with a prospective Mexican-American buyer. The buyer wants to inspect the property immediately, but the owner of the property has instructed the broker, in writing, not to show the house during the owner’s three-week absence. The buyer insists on viewing the property. The broker should
A. show the property to avoid a violation of the Federal Fair Housing Act.
B. request the Real Estate Commission arbitrate the problem.
C. inform the buyer of the seller’s instructions.
D. notify the nearest HUD office.

A

C. inform the buyer of the seller’s instructions.

Following an owner’s lawful instructions is not only allowable, but a responsibility of the licensee. However, if the owner instructed the broker to tell minority buyers that he was out of town when he was not in order to avoid selling to a minority, the broker would be in violation of the law if he acted as the owner requested.

179
Q
55 of 90
All real estate sales must be reported to the Internal Revenue Service after closing. The sale must be reported on
A. a W-2.
B. a Form-2555.
C. a Form-1099.
D. a Form-5305.
A

C. a Form-1099.

The responsibility for filling out and submitting the 1099 generally falls to the person who conducted the closing.

180
Q
In most states, by paying the debt after a foreclosure sale, the mortgagor has the right to regain the property. What is this right called?
A. Equitable right of redemption
B. Right of acceptance
C. Vendee's right of redemption
D. Statutory right of redemption
A

D. Statutory right of redemption

This right of redemption is called “statutory” because it is legally mandated by law, as opposed to a custom lenders could follow or not at their option.

181
Q
A person who has complete control over a parcel of real estate is said to own a
A. leasehold estate.
B. fee simple estate.
C. life estate.
D. defeasible fee estate.
A

B. fee simple estate.

Fee simple estates have the entire bundle of rights for the property so they have complete control.

182
Q
The seller under a land contract is called
A. the grantor.
B. the grantee.
C. the vendor.
D. the vendee.
A

C. the vendor.

The seller of the land is the grantor. They buyer is the grantee.

183
Q
Which of the following is/are considered to be personal property?
A. Wood-burning fireplace
B. Furnace
C. Bathtubs
D. Table Lamps
A

D. Table Lamps

The concept of personal property typically comes into play at the time of sale. Things that are part of the house–bathroom fixtures, fireplaces, carpeting and such–go with the sale. (Unless specifically excluded, as can happen in the case of a dining room chandelier or one or two other objects with which the owners have an emotional attachment.) Furniture, rugs, lamps and other portable items that are not “nailed down” constitute personal property and are not included in the sale.

184
Q
All of the following are physical characteristics of land EXCEPT
A. indestructibility.
B. uniqueness.
C. immobility.
D. scarcity.
A

D. scarcity.

Scarcity is a fundamental economic concept that holds that the rarer and more desirable something is, the more valuable it will be. For example, professional athletes are highly paid because only the smallest percentage of people have the ability to perform at that level. Land is “scarce” because there is a finite amount available and, as Will Rogers once said, “They ain’t making any more of it.”

185
Q
Jack owns a leasehold interest in a property whose owners or tenants agree to use the property on a periodic, non-overlapping basis. With what type of property does Jack have this leasehold interest?
A. A cooperative
B. A time-share
C. A condominium
D. A planned-urban development
A

B. A time-share

Time-shares are most common with vacation and resort properties. Time-share arrangements provide for equal sharing of the property’s expenses among the owners.

186
Q
A portion of Wendell's building was inadvertently built on Ginny's land. This is called an
A. accretion.
B. avulsion.
C. encroachment.
D. easement.
A

C. encroachment.

The principal attributes of an encroachment are: 1) It is accidental and 2) it involves only part of a structure. Typically, the issue would be resolved by selling Wendell an easement or a lease or, if practical, actually moving the structure.

187
Q

The purchase of a ticket for a professional sporting event gives the bearer what?
A. An easement right to park his car
B. A license to enter and claim a seat for the duration of the game
C. Partial ownership in the professional sporting team
D. A license to sell food and beverages at the sporting event

A

B. A license to enter and claim a seat for the duration of the game

Easements grant access, not use. Commercial licenses, such as those required to sell beverages, souvenirs or services, cover extended periods. Although tickets to sporting events, concerts, shows and the like are technically licenses, they differ from most in their degree of restriction. For example, a concert ticket does not give the bearer the right to sit anywhere he or she chooses or wander backstage to meet the performers.

188
Q

If the owner of the dominant tenement becomes the owner of the servient tenement and merges the two properties, what happens?
A. The easement becomes dormant.
B. The easement is unaffected.
C. The easement is terminated.
D. The properties retain their former status.

A

C. The easement is terminated.

“Dominant” and “servient” tenements involve two adjacent properties in which an easement is involved. For example, let’s say Bridle Creek Farms and Barnstable Farms are separate parcels divided by a country lane that provides access to the county road system. The lane is owned by Bridle Creek, but the deeds of both properties stipulate that Barnstable Farms shall have unrestricted access for the purpose of accessing county roads. That access is an easement. Thus, if the owner of Barnstable Farms buys Bridle Creek Farms, the need for the easement disappears.

189
Q
Evan lives in an apartment building. The land and structures are owned by a corporation, with one mortgage loan covering the entire property. Like the other residents, Evan owns stock in the corporation and has a lease on his apartment. This type of ownership is called a(n)
A. condominium.
B. planned unit development.
C. time-share.
D. cooperative.
A

D. cooperative.

This is the distinguishing characteristic that differentiates cooperative from condominium ownership. Although often confused, a condominium owner holds title to his individual unit. A co-op owner, on the other hand, is technically a renter. It’s his stock in the corporation holding title to the property that gives him the right to lease the unit as well as sell that right to another.

190
Q
In a gift of a parcel of real estate, one of the two owners was given an undivided 60 percent interest and the other received an undivided 40 percent interest. The two owners hold their interests as what?
A. Cooperative owners
B. Joint tenants
C. Community property owners
D. Tenants in common
A

D. Tenants in common

In order to create joint tenancy, some form of relationship must exist between the parties involved, whether business, spousal or other. Because their interests were acquired as a gift, the parties in this instance become tenants in common, with all the ownership benefits of joint tenancy, but not the survivorship rights.

191
Q
Which of the following liens does not need to be recorded to be valid?
A. Materialman's lien
B. Real estate tax lien
C. Judgment lien
D. Mechanic's lien
A

B. Real estate tax lien

The requirement for individuals to record liens is due in part to the necessity of correctly identifying the complainant. For example, not just “Jones Contracting,” but the specific Jones Contracting that performed the work and is owed the money. Because they bear the authority of government and are easily identified, liens by taxing authorities do not need to be recorded.

192
Q
The system of ownership of real property in the United States is what?
A. Incorporeal
B. Allodial
C. Command
D. Feudal
A

B. Allodial

“Allodial” is the modern form of ownership and is often contrasted with “feudal” in which land is held on the condition of rent or service due the government. For example, a medieval knight held property subject to coming to his baron’s service when called. Similarly, the baron’s land holdings were conditional on his raising an army and fighting for the king in times of conflict. Failure of any party to “perform as promised” was cause for holdings to be confiscated, often as a preliminary step to more extreme actions.

193
Q

What do liens and easements have in common?
A. Both are encumbrances.
B. Both must be on the public record to be valid.
C. Neither can be done without the consent of the owner.
D. Both are money claims against the property.

A

A. Both are encumbrances.

Liens are, of course, serious in that they indicate the owner has failed to pay a debt secured directly or indirectly by the property. Easements, on the other hand, are generally a practical necessity for most residential properties.

194
Q
A property has a back yard 125 x 150 feet and a side yard of 195 x 25 feet. What is the combined square footage of the side and back yard?
A. 20,395 sq feet
B. 23,625 sq feet
C. 18,750 sq feet
D. 24,375 sq feet
A

B. 23,625 sq feet

Calculate the back yard sq footage (125 x 150 = 18,750 sq feet). Calculate the side yard square footage (195 x 25 = 4,875). Then add those two values (18,750 + 4875 = 23,625 square feet).

195
Q
The sellers listed their property for six months on February 26 for $522,500. They agreed to pay the listing broker a 7% commission at closing on the agreed upon sale price. A buyer made an offer on the property on March 29 for $510,000. The seller countered the offer on April 1 at $517,500, and the buyer accepted the counter offer with the closing to occur on June 15. How much commission did the seller owe the listing broker, and how would it appear on the settlement statement?
A. $18,113. Debit the seller.
B. $35,700. Credit the seller.
C. $36,575. Debit the seller.
D. $36,225. Debit the seller.
A

D. $36,225. Debit the seller.

Commissions are paid based on the actual selling price, not the listing price. Additionally, since the broker represented the sellers in this transaction, the commission is debited from their side of the ledger.

196
Q
On a $500,000 loan the borrower is required to pay two points. How much does the borrower have to pay the lender?
A. $490,000
B. $500,000
C. $510,000
D. $520,000
A

C. $510,000

One point equals one percent; thus two points are two percent of $500,000, or $10,000, which becomes part of the buyer’s total obligation to the lender.

197
Q

The seller and the buyer finally agreed to a purchase price of $203,500 with the closing to occur on June 15. The taxes for the year in the amount of $2,500 have not been paid by the seller. (Taxes are paid in arrears). How much would the tax proration amount to, and how would it appear on a full settlement statement? Base your answer on a 365 day year, and the buyer is responsible for the day of settlement.
A. $1,130.14 debit the seller and credit the buyer
B. $1,130.14 debit the buyer and credit the seller
C. $2,500 credit the seller and debit the buyer
D. Nothing. The seller does not owe since the buyer is buying.

A

A. $1,130.14 debit the seller and credit the buyer

The seller would owe money, and the buyer would receive money, because the seller has not paid the taxes. $2,500 divided by 365 is $6.849315 times the actual days of 165 is $1,130.14.

198
Q

The seller and the buyer agreed to a purchase price of $270,000 with the closing to occur on June 15. The seller’s loan balance after the June 1 payment was $170,000. with an interest rate of 6%.The monthly payment was $1,800 principal and interest. What was the loan balance the day of closing, and how much interest did the seller owe the bank?
A. Loan balance $171,800; interest due $850
B. Loan balance $170,000; interest due $2,550
C. Loan balance $270,000; interest due $862.50
D. Loan balance $170,000; interest due $425

A

D. Loan balance $170,000; interest due $425

Although many types of loans can become more complex in their calculations of remaining principal and interest at a particular point in time, in this case the interest portion of the payment is calculated simply by multiplying $170,000 by 6% and dividing by twelve. That results in monthly interest of $850, with half that amount, or $425 added to the principal payment at closing.

199
Q

To create a joint tenancy relationship in the ownership of real estate, there must be unities of
A. desires, ownership, claim of right, and possession.
B. title, interest, liens, and survivorship.
C. possession, time, interest, and title.
D. ownership, possession, heirs, and title.

A

C. possession, time, interest, and title.

This essentially means that all parties to the agreement share equally in all aspects of the property, including the length of time it’s been held. That means if one party sells or transfers interest in a joint tenancy relationship, his or her place is taken by another in the same capacity.

200
Q
In general, the Foreign Investment in Real Property Tax Act (FIRPTA) requires a buyer to withhold estimated taxes equal to \_\_\_\_ of the sale price in any sale or exchange of property owned by a foreigner (not a US citizen).
A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 15%
D. 20%
A

C. 15%

Congress passed the Foreign Investment in Real Property Tax Act (FIRPTA) to eliminate the problem of collecting delinquent taxes from foreigners who owned and sold property in the US and left the country without paying the taxes due on the sale. The IRS currently keeps this 15% to ensure that any capital gains on the sale are paid.

201
Q
A defaulting borrower who faces foreclosure may avoid court actions and costs by voluntarily deeding the property to the mortgagee.  This is accomplished with a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which transfers legal title to the lienholder.
A. short sale
B. deficiency judgment
C. deed in lieu of foreclosure
D. caveat emptor
A

C. deed in lieu of foreclosure

With the deed in lieu option, a borrower voluntarily deeds collateral property in exchange for a release from all obligations under the mortgage. The transfer, however, does not terminate any existing liens on the property. For this reason, some jurisdictions (e.g., judicial foreclosure states) frown on the usage of deeds in lieu of foreclosure.

202
Q

What is a Schedule of Exceptions on a title policy?
A. Encumbrances
B. Tax liens
C. List of things not insured in the policy
D. Defects

A

C. List of things not insured in the policy

Almost no title insurance policy protects against all conceivable events. As the name suggests, the Schedule of Exceptions is a specific list of items not covered and can include things such as unrecorded mechanic’s liens, assessments, water rights and mining claims.

203
Q
The covenant in a deed which states that the grantor is the owner and has the right to convey the title is called
A. covenant of power.
B. covenant of warranty forever.
C. covenant of seisin.
D. covenant against encumbrances.
A

C. covenant of seisin.

Another outgrowth of the feudal system, “seisen” derives from the French meaning to “sit upon or own” and gives owners the right to sell or transfer property at will.

204
Q

The recording of a deed
A. is all that is required to transfer the title to real estate.
B. gives constructive notice of the ownership of real property.
C. insures the interest in a parcel of real estate.
D. warrants the title to real property.

A

B. gives constructive notice of the ownership of real property.

Recording a deed does not convey, insure or warrant ownership. However, it does protect the owner’s interest in a property by serving notice that the recorded owner is the only recognized holder of title. This places a larger burden of proof and process on someone trying to assert a prior ownership interest and/or claiming a deedholder’s title is clouded.

205
Q
Which of the following provides a buyer with the best assurance of clear, marketable title?
A. Certificate of title
B. Title insurance
C. Abstract of title
D. General warranty deed
A

B. Title insurance

Title insurance provides the best assurance of marketable title.

206
Q

The market data approach allows
A. buyers to buy based on their emotion.
B. buyers to research local businesses before purchasing a home.
C. buyers to buy by comparing one house to another.
D. buyers to know what the neighborhood of a house is like.

A

C. buyers to buy by comparing one house to another.

The market data approach allows buyers to compare different properties to determine which best meets their needs in terms of price, features, quality, condition, and other factors.

207
Q
Looking at shopping centers in the appraisal process, the social fiber of the community and distances from schools is called
A. neighborhood analysis.
B. market data approach.
C. site analysis.
D. social analysis.
A

A. neighborhood analysis.

This involves more than just driving around. It is a formal process of identifying, measuring and analyzing the influences that help determine a neighborhood’s vitality and desirability.

208
Q
Mrs. Jones, an appraiser, is appraising a single family residence for which she has located six comparable properties, all sold within the past six months. The subject property is rented for $1,500 per month. It is a custom-built home, approximately three years old. Mrs. Jones would probably give the most weight in her final estimate of value to which of the following appraisal methods?
A. Cost approach
B. Sales comparison approach
C. Income approach
D. Gross rent multiplier
A

B. Sales comparison approach

The sales comparison approach would be used because it is the most reliable indicator of a home’s true value. Since it is a single family residence rather than a multi-unit investment property, the fact that it is rented, as well as the amount of rent, is irrelevant to the calculations.

209
Q

Which is the best example of functional obsolescence?
A. A residential home built next to a factory
B. Peeling paint
C. A house with no electricity or running water
D. A residential home with central air conditioning

A

C. A house with no electricity or running water

“Functional obsolescence” typically shows itself in one of two forms: first, in poor initial design, as in this case; second, when the features and design of the home have become outdated compared with competing properties.

210
Q
The first step in an appraisal is
A. a market data comparison.
B. to define the problem.
C. a neighborhood analysis.
D. to gather information.
A

B. to define the problem.

Appraisers can legitimately come up with different values for the same property depending on the purpose of the appraisal. For example, an appraisal for a second mortgage generally would be more conservative than one for a competitive market analysis for the purpose of selling the home. Additionally, an appraisal for insurance purposes focuses more on the costs of replacing the structure rather than what the house, land and intangibles, such as curb appeal, would be worth on the open market.

211
Q

An appraiser is usually paid
A. a fee based on a percentage of the appraised value.
B. a fee based on the amount of time and effort.
C. a fee agreed upon after the appraisal is completed.
D. a standard fee agreed upon by the National Appraisal Association.

A

B. a fee based on the amount of time and effort.

There are two fundamental reasons for the “time and effort” rather than valuation method. First is the fact that the differences between any two properties make it impossible to relate the complexity of the task to the value of the property. A high-end property could be a relative “no brainer” while a particular mid-market home could have dozens of variables to be analyzed. The second reason is that basing fees on value places an obvious incentive on appraisers to estimate high, thus distorting reality. It is a violation of the appraiser’s Uniform Standards to charge a fee based upon a percentage of value.

212
Q
The appraisal approach most likely to be used in valuing a public library building would be the
A. sales comparison.
B. cost.
C. income.
D. residual.
A

B. cost.

The cost method is most often used for buildings where actual income or comparative commercial value are unavailable–such as schools and libraries.

213
Q

Physical deterioration is considered curable whenever
A. it is caused by lack of maintenance.
B. it does not result in loss of economic utility.
C. it costs less to correct than the resulting value increase.
D. it can be repaired regardless of the cost.

A

C. it costs less to correct than the resulting value increase.

For example, let’s say an older office building needs to update electric and add bathrooms, repartition offices and fire safety features to meet code for resale. The cost to complete the work is estimated at $2.2 million. However, the building is fully paid for and can easily be sold for $4 million. In this case, curing the defects makes sense. However, if those numbers were reversed, as is often the case, demolishing the building and starting over with a new structure or different use (e.g., retail space, a parking garage, etc.) would be the wiser choice.

214
Q

The economic life of an investment can be described as
A. the remaining chronological life of the improvements.
B. the time over which value generated exceeds cost of operation.
C. the time when yield is attributable to the land itself.
D. the actual age of the property.

A

B. the time over which value generated exceeds cost of operation.

Just like cars, buildings and their systems deteriorate over time and require repairs. Additionally, code changes can trigger expensive upgrades. At some point, those repairs begin to exceed the income generated and the building has reached the end of its economic life.

215
Q
Discrimination is prohibited in lending practices under
A. ECOA.
B. RESPA.
C. Truth in Lending Act.
D. FNMA.
A

A. ECOA.

Passed in 1992, the Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits a broad spectrum of discriminatory lending practices, including the granting or denial of credit or the costs associated with borrowing based on race, gender, marital status, source of income (e.g., public assistance) and other factors.

216
Q
Which type of loan will result in the largest reduction of the principal balance most quickly?
A. 5.5% over 30 years
B. 5.75% over 20 years
C. 6% over 15 years
D. 7% over 20 years
A

C. 6% over 15 years

The shorter the term of a loan, the more quickly principal is paid down and the faster equity builds. A 15-year loan at 6% interest rate would provide the LARGEST and FASTEST reduction in the principal. Interestingly, the payments on a 15-year loan are often not that much higher than the same loan with a 30-year payback.

217
Q
Who is the largest purchaser in the secondary market?
A. Ginnie Mae
B. Fannie Mae
C. FHA
D. Freddie Mac
A

B. Fannie Mae

Fannie Mae stands for the Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA). It was established by the National Housing Act specifically to start the secondary mortgage market, thus attracting more investors and funds to help support home ownership.

218
Q
Who is NOT an originator of primary loans?
A. Savings and loans
B. Credit unions
C. Commercial banks
D. FHA
A

D. FHA

The FHA encourages lenders to make these low-interest, low-down payment loans by insuring them against default. It does not actually lend money itself.

219
Q

An owner was selling his own home. Can he advertise the down payment?
A. No, because it violates RESPA.
B. No, because it violates Regulation Z.
C. Yes–as long as it was listed with a broker.
D. Yes, because it was his own home.

A

D. Yes, because it was his own home.

Broadly speaking, an individual homeowner is free to sell his/her own home as he/she chooses and is not subject to Truth in Lending or real estate practice restrictions.

220
Q
A Savings & Loan institution would be violating the Equal Credit Opportunity Act by denying a loan to Mr. and Mrs. Happy Borrower for which of the following reasons?
A. Low earnings
B. No full-time job(s)
C. Too many loans
D. Minority background
A

D. Minority background

The Equal Credit Opportunity Act, Fair Housing Act, and other anti-discrimination legislation doesn’t force lenders or others to abandon sound business practices (such as denying loans to unqualified borrowers), merely to be fair and equally accessible to all people.

221
Q

The buyer and seller agreed to a purchase price of $310,500. The buyer received an 80% loan. How much was the buyer’s loan and how did it appear on the settlement statement?
A. $310,500. Credit the buyer and debit the seller.
B. $248,400. Debit both the seller and the buyer.
C. $ 248,400. Credit both the seller and the buyer.
D. $ 248,400. Credit the buyer only.

A

D. $ 248,400. Credit the buyer only.

Mortgage monies are credited to the buyer’s side of the ledger as a portion of the funds he or she will use to complete the transaction. Once all the funds have been accounted for, the monies (less appropriate deductions) transfer to the seller.

222
Q

Which of the following is true of a second mortgage?
A. It has priority over a first mortgage.
B. It cannot be used as a security instrument.
C. It is subject to termination with mortgagor notification.
D. It is usually issued at a higher rate of interest.

A

D. It is usually issued at a higher rate of interest.

Second mortgages carry higher risk for lenders because they’re “second” in line after the first mortgage holder. In case of foreclosure, that means the first mortgage holder is paid in full before any remaining monies are distributed. This added exposure typically results in higher interest rates.

223
Q
A borrower bought a $174,000 house with no down payment. The loan was probably
A. a conventional insured loan.
B. a VA loan.
C. an FHA loan.
D. a conventional loan.
A

B. a VA loan.

VA loans are zero-down instruments, while FHA loans permit low down payments in the 5% range.

224
Q
Under an FHA graduated payment mortgage, which of the following fluctuates over the term of the loan?
A. Interest rate
B. Monthly payments
C. Finance charge
D. Annual rate
A

B. Monthly payments

Graduated payment mortgages are aimed particularly at young families who expect to see their earnings rise over the next five to ten years. As such, payments for interest and principal are less than the actual costs in the early years and gradually rise to make up the difference.

225
Q

The maximum permissible amounts are based on “loan to value ratios”
A. based on sale price or appraised value, whichever is lower.
B. not determined by federal statute in the case of FHA loans.
C. based on the banker’s competitive market analysis.
D. fixed by law for conventional loans.

A

A. based on sale price or appraised value, whichever is lower.

Although various banks, mortgage companies and programs have different LTVs, the lower, more conservative number is used.

226
Q

An owner advertised “beautiful acreage; only $5,000 down; owner will personally finance down payment.” Would this be in violation of the Truth in Lending Act?
A. Yes. Acreage is not exempt from Regulation Z.
B. Yes–since a down payment was stated.
C. No. Owners are not covered by Regulation Z.
D. No. Brokers can advertise the down payment.

A

C. No. Owners are not covered by Regulation Z.

Regulation Z requires disclosure of all financing terms and conditions if an interest rate, downpayment or other enticement is featured in an ad. This does not apply in this case, however, because Regulation Z applies only to institutions, not individuals selling their own property.

227
Q

If a single parent is applying for a real estate loan, when would the fact have to be revealed that part of the parent’s income is from child support?
A. When applying for a VA or FHA loan if the parent’s income is less than $25,000
B. If more than 50% of the parent’s income is from non-wage sources
C. If the parent was relying on the income for repayment of the loan
D. This type of income never needs to be disclosed. It would be a violation of ECOA.

A

C. If the parent was relying on the income for repayment of the loan

Income of any type–whether alimony, child support, freelance work or a second job–only needs to be disclosed if the applicant is relying on it to qualify for the loan.

228
Q
If additional information is not provided, which of the following would be in violation of Truth in Lending?
A. "FHA financing available"
B. "Assumable loan"
C. "No down payment required."
D. "Easy financing terms"
A

C. “No down payment required.”

“No down payment required” triggers the Truth in Lending disclosures because it is a specific statement about only one aspect of the financing. “Easy terms” does not trigger the regulation because it’s non-specific.

229
Q

A buyer wanted to use a promissory note for consideration on the purchase of a property. Can he do this?
A. Yes. The buyer can do as he wishes if the Commission approves the action.
B. Yes. This is acceptable as long as the seller agrees.
C. No. Only money can be used for consideration.
D. No. Only the seller can write a promissory note.

A

B. Yes. This is acceptable as long as the seller agrees.

This is a form of owner financing and is perfectly acceptable, so long as both parties agree to the terms and conditions.

230
Q

Why is the RESPA closing statement allowed to be examined on or before closing?
A. To allow the buyer to see costs at or before closing to see if he/she can get the loan at a cheaper price
B. To make sure the title insurance came from the right company
C. To check for errors
D. To provide for special fees to specific parties for business related to the real estate transaction

A

C. To check for errors

This is not a step that should be dismissed. With the increased volume in home mortgages, the fact is a significant amount of closing statements do contain errors and it’s easer and better to correct them before closing than after.

231
Q
A buyer assumes the mortgage. How is the owner relieved of the liability?
A. Subject to mortgage
B. Novation (or "full assumption)
C. Substitution
D. Graduation
A

B. Novation (or “full assumption)

Essentially, novation means to substitute a new contract for an old one; thus the holder of the original is relieved of his or her responsibilities.

232
Q

The property manager suspects that the tenants in a property are engaging in illegal drug trafficking. What should the property manager do?
A. Cancel the property management agreement
B. Observe the property for 30 days and then tell the owner
C. Notify the owner immediately of the suspicious activity
D. Do not worry. It is the owner’s problem.

A

C. Notify the owner immediately of the suspicious activity

The property manager is the owner’s agent, but not his “proxy.” That is, he must inform the owner but not act on his behalf without authorization. For example, while calling the police to investigate might be appropriate, if the manager’s suspicions were groundless and he called the authorities without authorization, the tenants might be able to sue the owner.

233
Q

When can a landlord evict a disabled blind or disabled tenant from the premises?
A. If the tenant gets a guide dog and the apartment policy does not allow pets
B. If the tenant insists on a handicapped parking place
C. If the tenant makes modifications to his unit at his expense
D. If the tenant has loud parties, makes too much noise, and is constantly disturbing other tenants

A

D. If the tenant has loud parties, makes too much noise, and is constantly disturbing other tenants

The law requires “reasonable accommodation”–for example, allowing a guide dog for a blind person even if there’s a “no pets” policy. However, that does not mean that all rules are suspended. Noise, safety, and “use of premises policies” may still be enforced.

234
Q

Why would a mortgagee require an appraisal on the property?
A. To make sure the buyer did not pay too much
B. To render an opinion of property value
C. To protect the buyer from fraud
D. To assure the property value is sufficient to cover the loan

A

D. To assure the property value is sufficient to cover the loan

Appraisals are third-party valuations of a property based on a wide range of variables. Lenders generally insist on this independent assessment to make sure the value of the property is at least sufficient to pay off the loan amount in case of default. While B is technically correct, D is the better choice.

235
Q

All of the following are duties of the property manager EXCEPT
A. reporting to the owner all notices of building violations.
B. providing upkeep and maintenance on the property.
C. maintaining financial records and accounts.
D. securing tenants of a particular ethnic origin in accordance with the owner’s wishes.

A

D. securing tenants of a particular ethnic origin in accordance with the owner’s wishes.

Except in certain circumstances regarding the rental of space within one’s personal residence or unit, owners, landlords and their agents are not permitted to discriminate against people based on race, gender, creed, handicap and other personal characteristics.

236
Q

Jim Jones, the landlord, rents a property to Tom Smith, a handicapped person. Mr. Smith, with Mr. Jones’ permission, modifies the house to suit his needs. When the lease expires, which of the following requirements would not have to be met by Mr. Smith?
A. Mr. Smith must remove the “grab rails” in the bathroom that were installed for his use.
B. Mr. Smith must raise the kitchen cabinets that were lowered for his use.
C. Mr. Smith must repair the walls where the “grab rails” in the bathroom were removed.
D. Mr. Smith must restore the wide doorways, that were installed for him, to the original size.

A

D. Mr. Smith must restore the wide doorways, that were installed for him, to the original size.

Since the width of the door will not in any way be detrimental to future tenants, there is not a requirement for the original width of the doors to be replaced by the handicapped tenant. All of the other issues must be restored to original status.

237
Q
A real estate licensee has a buyer agency agreement. What is the seller in this situation?
A. A customer
B. A client
C. A fiduciary
D. An agent
A

A. A customer

There’s an important distinction between client and customer. Unless there is a specific agreement to the contrary, licensees represent only one side in a transaction. In this case, it’s the buyer who is the client and it’s the licensee’s obligation to negotiate a deal that’s in that person’s best interests, not the one that’s “fairest” to both parties.

238
Q

A real estate agent should tell the buyer, his customer, which of the following?
A. How the area’s demographics have changed recently
B. The seller’s motivation for marketing his property
C. A pending or recent zoning change
D. The seller is getting a divorce

A

C. A pending or recent zoning change

A zoning change is a “material fact”–something that can have a direct impact on the property’s value or desirability. For example, if the zoning in a middle class neighborhood on the edge of a growing city was changed from residential to mixed use, it means that a number of homes could be turned into businesses, which will make the property less desirable to people seeking a quiet place to raise a family.

239
Q
Broker Nathan works for seller Ted. Nathan should do all of the following except
A. accounting for all monies.
B. maintain confidential information.
C. provide legal advice.
D. be loyal to Ted.
A

C. provide legal advice.

Brokers should not provide legal advice unless they are also a lawyer.

240
Q

Broker Carr, with ABC Real Estate Company, listed the property of a seller. Broker Smith, with XYZ Real Estate Company, called Broker Carr, and disclosed that he was a Buyer Agent. Broker Smith wrote a contract with a buyer for the sale of the property. What, if any, is the relationship between the buyer’s broker, the seller and the listing broker?
A. There is not a relationship between the parties. Broker Carr represents the Seller and Broker Smith represents the Buyer.
B. Customer
C. Agency
D. Dual agency

A

A. There is not a relationship between the parties. Broker Carr represents the Seller and Broker Smith represents the Buyer.

Since each broker represents separate sides in the transaction, no relationship exists.

241
Q
Some expenses paid at closing must be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ between the buyer and the seller. The most common items that fall into this category include taxes, insurance, and utilities.
A. prorated
B. separated
C. disclosed
D. depreciated
A

A. prorated

Any item that is prorated is shown on the settlement statement as a debit to one party and a credit to the other party for the same amount.

242
Q

The federal anti-discriminatory laws apply to which of the following?
A. A broker selling a single-family home
B. A private club not open to the general public
C. Office building sales
D. The rental of industrial property

A

A. A broker selling a single-family home

Civil rights laws apply to owners of residential property, rental units, hotels and virtually any other building offering housing or accommodations to the general public.

243
Q

The local utility company dug up Charlotte’s garden to install a natural gas line. The company claimed it had a valid easement and proved it through the county records. Charlotte claimed the easement was not valid because she did not know about it. The easement
A. was valid even though the owner did not know about it.
B. was an appurtenant easement owned by the utility company.
C. was not valid because it had not been used during the entire time that Charlotte owned the property.
D. was not valid because Charlotte was not informed of its existence when she purchased the property.

A

A. was valid even though the owner did not know about it.

Easements grant only access, not ownership, use or occupancy rights. Further, that access is generally for the benefit of the property owner, such as maintaining utilities or sidewalks. As such, they “attach” to a deed or lease and remain in effect, until specifically lifted. This type of easement is known as an easement-in-gross.

244
Q
The rights of the owner of property located along the banks of a river are called
A. littoral rights.
B. prior appropriation rights.
C. riparian rights.
D. hereditament rights.
A

“Littoral” and “prior appropriation” are different kinds of water rights: in the first case, navigation rights to an ocean or other large body of water; in the second, the right to use a water source for irrigation. A hereditament is any inheritable property.

245
Q
A mechanic's lien would be properly classified as a(n)
A. equitable lien.
B. voluntary lien.
C. general lien.
D. statutory lien.
A

D. statutory lien.

A “statutory lien” is one that arises out of specific law (otherwise known as statutes). By contrast, an “equitable lien” has its roots in common law or custom. A “voluntary lien” is one entered with the property owner’s knowledge and consent, such as a mortgage. A “general lien” grants a creditor the right to file a claim against all of a debtor’s assets, not just a particular property. Liens are often categorized as more than one type. A mechanic’s lien is statutory AND involuntary, for example.

246
Q

Which is true about restrictive covenants?
A. They are placed by private parties in a deed.
B. They are placed by government agencies in a deed.
C. They are voidable by successive owners.
D. They are a form of tax shelter.

A

A. They are placed by private parties in a deed.

Restrictive covenants are most commonly associated with subdivisions and community management associations and are intended to maintain consistency within the neighborhood. While viewed as a benefit by most, they do limit the owner’s use of the property and are binding on future owners.

247
Q
Broker Kiki is trying to sell a unique $15,000,000 mansion in South Beach. What advertising medium would probably be the best option for Kiki to sell this particular property?
A. A magazine ad
B. A billboard ad
C. A telephone directory ad
D. A radio ad
A

A. A magazine ad

A magazine ad, although significantly more expensive than newspaper advertising, could be just what a firm needs to attract wealthy clients to their upscale offerings. Or a specialty magazine could be the appropriate venue for a particularly unique property. Alternatively, advertising on social media can allow relatively inexpensive, targeted marketing.

248
Q
What type of a listing agreement allows the owner to appoint an exclusive agent to sell his property, but retains the right to sell the property himself?
A. Open
B. Exclusive right to sell
C. Multiple listing
D. Exclusive agency
A

D. Exclusive agency

Open listings mean that if the owner or any other broker or salesperson produces the buyer, the broker will lose his or her commission. Exclusive Right to Sell gives the broker his or her commission regardless of who actually sells the property, even if it is the owner. Exclusive Agency allows the seller to appoint an exclusive agent, but retain the right to sell the property himself.

249
Q
The illegal practice of directing minorities to areas populated by the same race or religion is called
A. steering.
B. blockbusting.
C. redlining.
D. panic peddling.
A

A. steering.

“Steering” is driving people towards particular neighborhoods, and is the correct answer to this question. On the other hand, “blockbusting” is the opposite side of the same coin. Synonymous with “panic peddling,” it refers to trying to generate panic selling in a neighborhood dominated by one race or ethnic group by representing that another group is about to start moving in.

250
Q
Which of the following closing costs is typically paid by the buyer?
A. Private mortgage insurance (PMI)
B. Broker's commission
C. Satisfy existing liens
D. A flip tax
A

A. Private mortgage insurance (PMI)

A buyer has to pay private mortgage insurance if they did not have a 20%+ down payment (unless they have a VA or FHA loan). The others are paid by the seller.

251
Q
Which of the following is a closing expense typically paid by the seller?
A. The broker's commission
B. Inspections
C. The mortgage recording Fees 
D. The recording of the deed
A

A. The broker’s commission

The seller pays from the broker’s commission. All the other expenses are the buyer’s.

252
Q

An agent of the seller would suggest that the buyer hire an inspector from an outside service in all of the following cases EXCEPT
A. when they smell gas in the basement.
B. when there is a slow drain in the toilet.
C. when a hinge is off the door.
D. when there is sawdust in the kitchen cabinets.

A

C. when a hinge is off the door.

Home inspectors are hired to find significant and often hidden property defects, such as signs of a leaking roof, termites, foundation cracking and so forth. Hinges and other “wear and tear” items are obvious and not among the reasons for hiring an inspector.

253
Q
Seller Jolita lists her house with Broker Fred. Fred then buys Jolita's house and collects the agreed-upon commission. This is an example of
A. commingling monies.
B. a Regulation Z violation.
C. truth in marketing.
D. self-dealing.
A

D. self-dealing.

Fred is taking advantage of his position to collect a commission. Self-dealing qualifies as intentional misrepresentation.

254
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the culmination of the real estate transaction.
A. title closing
B. inspection
C. signing of the sales contract
D. default of the mortgage
A

A. title closing

At the title closing: the buyer completes his or her financing arrangements (referred to as closing the loan), the seller transfers the title, and both the buyer and seller pay the necessary taxes, fees and other charges.

255
Q

Carl Chauvinist, the owner of an apartment complex, lives in one unit of a triplex and routinely refuses to rent either of the other two units to a female. Can he do this?
A. Yes. He may do this if he does not use a broker or discriminate in advertising.
B. Yes. He may do this if he doesn’t ask the tenant’s age.
C. No. Carl can never discriminate on sex.
D. No. Carl must live in a single family home to discriminate.

A

A. Yes. He may do this if he does not use a broker or discriminate in advertising.

Although laws vary by state as to number of units that fall under this type of provision, if a person owns and lives in a unit, he or she is entitled to practice a certain measure of discrimination. The view is that a person’s dwelling (which includes units such as duplexes and triplexes) enjoys a degree of “sanctity” and the person may choose whom he or she brings into their “home.” Therefore, the owner could claim an exemption from federal Fair Housing laws.

256
Q
Homeowner Tanya acquired the ownership of land that was deposited by a river running through her property by
A. reliction.
B. succession.
C. avulsion.
D. accretion.
A

D. accretion.

Accretion means the addition to a parcel of land by sand or soil deposits due to the action of a river or other body of water over time. Avulsion refers to the loss of land as a result of its being washed away by sudden or unexpected action of nature, such as a flash flood that re-routes a river.

257
Q
The Civil Rights Act of 1866 prohibits discrimination in housing based on which of the following reasons?
A. Race
B. Religion
C. Sex
D. Age
A

A. Race

Although surprising to many, the original civil rights legislation was passed in 1866–by one vote over the veto of President Andrew Johnson.

258
Q
A bill of sale is used to transfer the ownership of what?
A. Real property
B. Fixtures
C. Personal property
D. Appurtenances
A

C. Personal property

Personal property differs from “real property” in a number of respects, most importantly its portability. Cars, furniture, clothing, paintings, jewelry, appliances and just about any other non-food item one buys are examples of personal property.

259
Q

Restrictive covenants that run with the land
A. are no longer effective when the title is transferred.
B. apply only until the developer has conveyed the title.
C. can be removed by a court of competent jurisdiction.
D. apply to and bind all successive owners of the property.

A

D. apply to and bind all successive owners of the property.

Often put in place to maintain the consistency and desirability of a neighborhood, restrictive covenants have withstood court tests and prohibit all future owners from certain actions or modifications of their property, such as adding out-buildings or creating additions above a certain height, putting up lights to illuminate a sports court, changing the architectural style of a home and so forth.

260
Q

The right to control one’s property includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. the right to invite people on the property.
B. the right to exclude the utilities meter reader.
C. the right to erect “no trespassing” signs.
D. the right to enjoy pride of ownership.

A

B. the right to exclude the utilities meter reader.

This right to enter and work on a property is granted to utility companies (water, sewer, gas and electric) as well as telephone and cable companies. Essentially, if a company provides a service and owns the equipment (e.g., phone and cable lines), they are usually granted an easement.

261
Q
Which of the following types of ownership CANNOT be created by operation of law, but must be created by the parties' express intent?
A. Community property
B. Tenancy in common
C. Condominium ownership
D. Tenancy by the entireties
A

D. Tenancy by the entireties

Tenancy by the entireties is a form of ownership that husbands and wives can choose or create by deciding to do so and declaring it as such in contracts and deeds. Tenancy in common is put in motion by state law. Community Property is a law of ownership that exists in Arizona, California, Idaho, Louisiana, Nevada, New Mexico, Texas, Washington and some other states. Tenancy by the Entireties is an estate that is recognized in some states between husband and wife, who have equal right of possession and enjoyment during their joint lives and with the right of survivorship–that is when one dies, the property goes to the surviving tenant. (In many states, if couples do not specify “Joint Tenancy,” this form of ownership will be automatically assumed.) Tenancy in Common is a type of joint ownership by parties NOT married, that allows a person to sell his share or leave it in a will without the consent of the other owners. If a person dies without a will, his share goes to his heirs, not to the other owners.

262
Q
Personal property includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. chattels.
B. fructus industriales.
C. emblements.
D. fixtures.
A

D. fixtures.

“Chattel” is a legal term that means personal property. Emblements and fructus industriales refer to profit from crops that are grown as a result of a person’s labor, such as corn, as opposed to those that occur naturally, such as grass or minerals. By the custom of English common law, they are considered personal property. By contrast, a fixture is considered attached to a property and thus part of the structure.

263
Q
Jim and Sandy are next-door neighbors. Sandy tells Jim that he can store his camper in her yard for a few weeks until she needs the space. Sandy did not charge Jim rent for the use of her yard. Sandy has given Jim a(n) what?
A. Easement appurtenant
B. Easement by necessity
C. Estate in land
D. License
A

D. License

Granting the use of property for a defined period for a specific purpose is almost always a form of licensing. Easements grant only access, not ownership, use or occupancy rights. Further, that access is generally for the benefit of the property owner, such as maintaining utilities or sidewalks.

264
Q
Anna owns 50 acres of land with 500 feet of frontage on a desirable recreational lake. She wishes to subdivide the parcel into salable lots, but she wants to retain control over the lake frontage while allowing lot owners to have access to the lake. Which of the following types of access rights would provide the greatest protection for a prospective purchaser?
A. An easement in gross
B. An appurtenant easement
C. An easement by necessity
D. A license
A

B. An appurtenant easement

Appurtenant easements afford the most protection since they are generally a permanent feature of the property. Thus, in the case of sale, the lake access passes to any new owners. By contrast, an “easement in gross” is between two individuals, which would severely limit the attractiveness and value of the property if the original owner wished to sell.

265
Q

Sam and Nancy bought a store building and took title as joint tenants. Nancy died testate. Sam now owns the store
A. as a joint tenant with rights of survivorship.
B. in severalty.
C. as a tenant in common with Nancy’s heirs.
D. in trust.

A

B. in severalty.

Joint tenancy means that two parties have an undivided interest in a particular property and, upon the death of one party, full ownership automatically goes to the survivor. Despite the way it sounds, “in severalty” means as sole owner.

266
Q

Tom leases store space to Kim for a restaurant, and Kim installs her ovens, booths, counters, and other equipment. When do these items become real property?
A. When they are installed
B. When Kim defaults on her rental payments
C. When the lease takes effect
D. When the lease expires, if the items are not taken by the tenant

A

D. When the lease expires, if the items are not taken by the tenant

Kim is free to move these fixtures at the end of her lease. However, if she chooses to leave them behind, they are considered a permanent part of the structure (just like a dining room chandelier in a home) and revert to Tom.

267
Q

Jim, Manny, and Harry are joint tenants owning a parcel of land. Harry conveys his interest to his long-time friend Wendell. After the conveyance, Jim and Manny
A. become tenants in common.
B. continue to be joint tenants with Harry.
C. become joint tenants with Wendell.
D. remain joint tenants owning a two-thirds interest.

A

D. remain joint tenants owning a two-thirds interest.

Because joint tenancy must be declared, Jim and Manny remain joint tenants with a two-thirds interest while Wendell, because of his passive acquisition of his share of the property, becomes a tenant in common with Jim and Manny. The difference between the two forms is that Jim and Manny’s share retains the right of survivorship provisions but Wendell’s does not. Note that some states have laws that supercede the answer to this question.

268
Q

The buyer of an apartment complex is told that the refrigerator in one of the apartments goes with the sale. After taking title, he discovered that the refrigerator belonged to the tenant. Which is true about this situation?
A. Since the refrigerator was in the apartment, it automatically belongs to the new owner.
B. The refrigerator is the personal property of the tenant. The seller had no right to offer it to the buyer.
C. The refrigerator was plugged into the wall and that makes it real property.
D. The tenant will have to get permission from the new owner to remove the refrigerator.

A

B. The refrigerator is the personal property of the tenant. The seller had no right to offer it to the buyer.

Plugging in an appliance does not constitute installation. Thus it is personal property that belongs to the tenant.

269
Q
The word "improvement" would refer to all of the following EXCEPT
A. streets.
B. a sanitary sewer system.
C. trade fixtures.
D. the foundation.
A

C. trade fixtures.

The term “trade fixture” refers to an item installed by a tenant in a rented commercial property that he or she removes at the end of the occupancy.

270
Q
The word "improvement" would refer to all of the following EXCEPT
A. streets.
B. a sanitary sewer system.
C. chattel
D. the foundation.
A

C. chattel

The term “chattel” refers to personal property.

271
Q
A house sold for $420,000. The buyer made a 20% down payment. Monthly interest on the loan was $1,400. What was the interest rate on the loan?
A. 4%
B. 7%
C. 5%
D. 9%
A

C. 5%

With a 20% down payment of $84,000, the buyer had a mortgage of $336,000. Since interest is expressed in annual terms, multiply the monthly payment of $1,400 times twelve. That yields an annual interest cost of $16,800, divided by the principal balance of $336,000, yields an annual rate of 5%.

272
Q
A square is 1/8 of a mile by 1/8 of a mile. How many acres is this?
A. 10 acres
B. 20 acres
C. 40 acres
D. 160 acres
A

A. 10 acres

One-eighth of a mile square is the same as 10 acres. Multiply 1/8 X 1/8 = 1/64 divided into 640 acres = 10 acres

273
Q
On an 8% straight loan of $6,071, the borrower paid total interest of $1,700. How long did he have the loan?
A. 30 months
B. 36 months
C. 42 months
D. 48 months
A

C. 42 months

Eight percent of $6,071 is $486 per year or $40.50 per month. $1,700 divided by $40.50 means the borrower held the loan for forty-two months.

274
Q
The Pickets are purchasing a home for $780,000 and the lender is giving them a 90% loan at 5% interest, plus a 2% loan origination fee. How much is the loan origination fee?
A. $14,040
B. $15,600
C. $16,500
D. $70,200
A

A. $14,040

A loan for 90% of the $780,000 purchase price results in a $702,000 mortgage. Since the origination fee is based on the amount of the mortgage, not the price of the home, the fee is 2% of $702,000 or $14,040.

275
Q
A tenant leased 3,000 square feet at $10 per square foot and 8% of gross income. The total annual rent she paid was $60,000. What was the gross income on which she paid percentage rent?
A. $120,000
B. $160,000
C. $300,000
D. $375,000
A

D. $375,000

At $10 per square foot, the tenant’s base rent is $30,000. Since the total rent was $60,000, that means the remaining $30,000 was due to the gross sales percentage. Since that figure is 8%, simply divide $30,000 by .08 to arrive at $375,000.

276
Q
The primary purpose of a deed is to
A. prove ownership.
B. transfer title.
C. give constructive notice.
D. prevent adverse possession.
A

B. transfer title.

A deed is the instrument by which ownership of a property is transferred from one person to another, while a title is evidence of that ownership.

277
Q

A special warranty deed differs from a general warranty deed in that the grantor’s covenant in the special warranty deed
A. applies only to a definite limited time.
B. covers the time back to the original title.
C. is implied and is not written in full.
D. protects all subsequent owners of the property.

A

A. applies only to a definite limited time.

The more common deed in most states is the general warranty, because it establishes the ownership trail and validity of title going back to the original recorded ownership (for example, the purchase of Manhattan Island and all subsequent divisions, subdivisions and resales). Under a special warranty deed, an owner transfers property guaranteeing the quality of title only during the period of his or her ownership, leaving subsequent buyers vulnerable to prior claims.

278
Q

When the grantor does not wish to convey certain property rights, he or she
A. must note the exceptions after the closing.
B. may not do so, since the deed conveys the entire premises.
C. may note the exceptions in the deed of conveyance.
D. must convey the entire premises and have the grantee reconvey the rights to be retained by the grantor.

A

C. may note the exceptions in the deed of conveyance.

Most commonly known as “restrictive covenants,” such deed restrictions are often used to maintain the consistency of a neighborhood by, for example, stipulating that only traditional home style so f a particular size and painted in traditional colors may be constructed and occupied within the subdivision. These are encumbrances on the property since they limit current and future owners in how they use the property.

279
Q
When a claim is settled by a title insurance company, the company acquires all rights and claims of the insured against any other person who is responsible for the loss. This is known as what?
A. Caveat emptor
B. Surety bonding
C. Subordination
D. Subrogation
A

D. Subrogation

For example, let’s say Amanda buys a property and the seller provides a general warranty deed stipulating clear title. However, that turns out not to be the case and a third party provides a valid claim to a share of the property. Since Amada took out title insurance, the title insurance company negotiates and pays a settlement with the claimant on Amanda’s behalf. Amanda’s right to sue the seller then transfers to the title insurance company, which will take action to recover the amount they paid on Amanda’s behalf.

280
Q
Which of the following would be used to clear a defect from the title records?
A. A lis pendens
B. An estoppel certificate
C. A suit to quiet title
D. A writ of attachment
A

C. A suit to quiet title

A owner might bring a “quiet title” action to correct a minor mistake in the property description or to remove an easement that’s been unused for years. Additionally, they are used when a third party tries to asset some right to the property through a dubious claim. The suit “quiets the mouth” of that person and establishes a clear title.

281
Q
When the preliminary title report reveals the existence of an easement on the property, it indicates that the easement is a(n)
A. lien.
B. encumbrance.
C. encroachment.
D. tenement.
A

B. encumbrance.

Anything that limits a person’s use of a property is an encumbrance. Easements limit use in that they generally prohibit any kind of permanent structure on the area in question. For example, if a homeowner wanted to build a swimming pool in an area of his back yard and the local sewer company had an easement for pipes running under that area, he would have to find another location for his pool, even if it was not as desirable.

282
Q

H agrees to purchase V’s real estate for $230,000 and deposits $6,900 earnest money with Broker L. However, V is unable to clear the title to the property, and H demands the return of his earnest money as provided in the purchase contract. Broker L should
A. deduct his commission and return the balance to H.
B. deduct his commission and give the balance to V.
C. If both sides agree, return the entire amount to H.
D. give the entire amount to V to dispose of as he decides.

A

C. If both sides agree, return the entire amount to H.

Brokers and salespeople only earn their commission when a transaction closes. Since the transaction was never completed, no commission is owed. Additionally, H is entitled to have all his earnest money returned since it was the seller, not he, who defaulted on the contract. This return requires consent from all principals. Otherwise, the earnest money must be maintained in escrow until a court order dictates where the money should go.

283
Q
The list of previous owners from whom the present real estate owner derives his or her title is known as the
A. chain of title.
B. certificate of title.
C. title insurance policy.
D. abstract of title.
A

A. chain of title.

The “chain” links together the successive owners of a property from the most recent to the original recorded title holder. In addition, it notes other relevant information such as mortgages, judgments, liens, death of title holders, inheritors and so forth.

284
Q

When an appraiser correlates the three approaches into a final estimate, he
A. averages the estimate.
B. accords the greatest weight to the median value.
C. selects the estimate nearest to that desired by the employer.
D. reconciles the differences according to the type of property being appraised and the quantity and quality of data available.

A

D. reconciles the differences according to the type of property being appraised and the quantity and quality of data available.

In order to maintain accuracy and “transparency” of his calculations, an appraiser reconciles differences and does not average comparable sales to arrive at a final value.

285
Q
Apartment buildings in an area were selling for $100,000 and a buyer offered $100,000 for an apartment building. The buyer is operating on the principle of
A. highest and best use.
B. conformity.
C. substitution.
D. increasing returns.
A

C. substitution.

An appraisal principle, “substitution” holds that the maximum value of a property is that price for which a comparable, equally desirable property can be purchased in a timely manner. For example,if two 4-bedroom homes with equal features, age, condition, lot size and desirability are on the market at the same time, buyers would not pay $250,000 for one when the other is available for $240,000. However, if the $240,000 is on the market now, but the owner wants to delay closing for six months while the other is available for immediate occupancy, there may well be buyers willing to pay the premium.

286
Q

When an appraiser uses the phrase “effective age,” she is referring to
A. the number of years since the improvements were made.
B. the age of the property based upon its condition.
C. the estimated total life of an improvement.
D. the number of years during which the property will yield a worthwhile return on the investment made.

A

B. the age of the property based upon its condition.

Effective age is a combination of many factors, including location, quality of construction and maintenance, architectural style, actual age, climate and so forth. A well-built building in a desirable location will have a much longer effective life than a cheaply constructed space in a poorly maintained office park setting.

287
Q

In valuing a single family residence by the sales comparison approach, an appraiser would make adjustments to
A. the comparable properties.
B. the subject property.
C. both the comparable and the subject property.
D. current properties being offered for sale.

A

A. the comparable properties.

The objective of an appraisal is to arrive at a fair estimate of the subject property’s value based on what comparable properties have actually sold for. The most reliable way of achieving this is to make additions and subtractions from the comparables rather than the other way around. In the example of a 3-bredroom ranch, property A might have sold for $225,000, but features a two-car garage instead of the subject property’s 3-car garage. If the value of the extra garage space is $5,500, the first comparable is raised to $230,500. If the next property is identical to the subject, except it had a brand-new, high-end kitchen that added approximately $25,000 to the selling price and the home sold for $257,000, that comparable’s price would be reduced to $232,000.

288
Q

How does one determine the gross rent multiplier?
A. Monthly rent divided by the capitalization rate
B. Property value divided by the monthly rent
C. Property value divided by the net income
D. Property value divided by the gross income

A

B. Property value divided by the monthly rent

This is used as a quick, short-hand “guesstimate” for a property’s approximate value. Far more detailed calculations are necessary to determine a complex property’s market value (e.g., shopping center.)

289
Q

The Rose family owns a home in a semi-rural area, which is about five years old. Recently announced plans for a new regional airport will place their home directly in line with a main runway ending 1 mile before their home. If the airport is constructed, will this diminish the value of the Rose Home?
A. Yes, because of functional obsolescence.
B. Yes, because of economic obsolescence.
C. No, because value would increase due to the location close to the airport.
D. No, because noise from aircraft passing overhead is not recognized as affecting property values.

A

B. Yes, because of economic obsolescence.

Economic obsolescence occurs when factors unrelated to the property itself and outside of the owner’s control diminish its value. A quick way to judge whether or not a property has become economically obsolete is to analyze whether, under the new circumstances, the location would still be chosen as a home site and, if yes, at what value compared with the current property.

290
Q

A feature found in a comparable property that is not present in the subject property will result in
A. a reduction adjustment to the comparable’s selling price.
B. an increase adjustment to the subject property’s selling price.
C. the reduction adjustment to the subject property’s selling price.
D. an increase adjustment to the comparable’s selling price.

A

A. a reduction adjustment to the comparable’s selling price.

It’s important to remember that adjustments are made to the comparable, not the subject property. For example, let’s assume two homes are identical in every respect, except the comparable property has a swimming pool the subject home lacks. If the subject property is on the market for $175,000 and a swimming pool typically adds $8,000 to the selling price of homes in that area, the appraiser would deduct $8,000 from the sale price of the comparable rather than adding it to the subject property to make his comparison.

291
Q
The Adams family purchased the largest and most expensive house in a new subdivision. Five years later, when they were ready to move, they discovered the monetary value of the home had gone up proportionately less than the other houses in the neighborhood. This phenomenon is an example of the principle of
A. diminishing return.
B. balance.
C. regression.
D. substitution.
A

C. regression.

The regression principle is the reason people are cautioned against owning the most expensive house in the neighborhood. It’s an observation of the fact that lower priced homes (and commercial buildings) have a much greater downward pull on the value of higher end properties than the other way around.

292
Q

In doing a market analysis, an appraiser found a recently sold property where the owners had just gone through a divorce. The property had been listed for $260,000 for 3 months but was purchased for $170,000 by one of the spouses. Should the appraiser use this as a comparable?
A. Yes. You would use the actual sale price of $170,000.
B. Yes–because it was a comparable type property.
C. No–because it had only been listed for 3 months.
D. No–because of the divorce it was not an “at arms’ length” transaction.

A

D. No–because of the divorce it was not an “at arms’ length” transaction.

An appraiser should not use this sale as a comparable sale. An “Arm’s length transaction is defined as one in which the parties are dealing from equal bargaining positions. Parties are said to deal “at arm’s length” when each stands on the strict letter of his or her rights and conducts the business in a formal manner without trusting the other’s fairness or integrity and without being subject to the other’s control or dominant influence as would be the case in the divorce.

293
Q
Discrimination is prohibited in lending practices under
A. ECOA.
B. RESPA.
C. Truth in Lending Act.
D. FNMA.
A

A. ECOA.

Passed in 1992, the Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits a broad spectrum of discriminatory lending practices, including the granting or denial of credit or the costs associated with borrowing based on race, gender, marital status, source of income (e.g., public assistance) and other factors.

294
Q
When the lender under a deed of trust requires title insurance, who would be the most likely person to pay for it?
A. The mortgagee
B. The trustee
C. The trustor
D. The beneficiary
A

C. The trustor

“Trustor” is another name for the borrower and “trustee” is a “supposedly” neutral third party who holds naked legal title, the right to foreclose at the instructions of the beneficiary for non-payment of a promissory note. The beneficiary is the lender in a Deed of Trust. Even though it’s the lender who requires the insurance to protect his/her position, it’s the borrower who pays for it.

295
Q

The primary purpose of Truth in Lending is to
A. control interest rates on behalf of the consumer.
B. control the true costs to close a transaction.
C. prevent usury.
D. disclose the true costs of obtaining credit.

A

D. disclose the true costs of obtaining credit.

Truth in Lending, otherwise known as Regulation Z, is intended to do away with deceptive financing tactics, especially those involving hidden costs–for example, advertising a $250 car lease as zero-down and then tacking a $1,200 upfront payment at the time of contract disguised as an “incidental” acquisition fee.

296
Q
A mortgage company makes a number of loans to be assembled into one package and sold to permanent investors. This process is an example of interim financing to the mortgage company and is called
A. blanket financing.
B. package financing.
C. warehousing.
D. discounting.
A

C. warehousing.

Warehousing refers to the process whereby banks and other lenders make mortgage loans to consumers for the purpose of quickly selling those loans on the secondary market. The “warehousing” occurs when individual loans are bundled, often with a common element such as the size of the mortgage or credit worthiness of the borrowers, and sold as a single unit.

297
Q

A partition suit is used for which of the following?
A. Determination of party fences
B. To allow construction of additional bedrooms or bathrooms in a house.
C. To force a division of property without all the owners’ consents
D. To change a tenancy by entireties to some other form of ownership

A

C. To force a division of property without all the owners’ consents

Partition suits are typically pursued when a co-owner of a property wants to sell his or her share and the other owners are opposed. Since it is a legal action involving the courts, it is an expense with often unsatisfactory results.

298
Q
The title to real estate passes when a valid deed is
A.signed and recorded.
B. delivered and accepted.
C. filed and uploaded to the cloud.
D. executed and mailed.
A

B. delivered and accepted.

Fundamentally, real estate transactions only involve two parties–the buyer and the seller. All that’s necessary to create a legal sale is for one party to make an offer the other accepts. Recording, escrow, real estate licensees, mortgage companies and the like facilitate and support the transaction process but are not requirements of a

299
Q

The amount of earnest money deposit is determined by
A. the real estate licensing statutes.
B. an agreement between the parties.
C. the broker’s office policy on such matters.
D. the acceptable minimum of 5 percent of the purchase price.

A

B. an agreement between the parties.

Earnest money is a demonstration of sincerity on the part of the purchaser and provides preliminary evidence that he or she is financially capable of completing the transaction. While it should be substantial enough to meet these two criteria, there is no set or customary amount or percentage.

300
Q
A home improvement company was negotiating with a homeowner to add on two rooms to a home. The company agreed to take a second mortgage as long as the homeowner also included the rest of the property in the loan. The company and the homeowner agreed to a price and the company provided the necessary disclosure form on Monday and the homeowner signed the agreement at noon the following day. Assuming that the week had five business days, until what time could the homeowner rescind the loan?
A. Tuesday, midnight
B. Thursday, midnight
C. Friday, midnight
D. There is no rescission on a house.
A

C. Friday, midnight

Because agreement was reached and SIGNED documents were provided on TUESDAY, Friday midnight ends the THREE-business-day period

301
Q
A buyer bought a property without telling the seller of his intended purpose for the property. The contract contains no contingency clauses and it is a properly executedXXX. After the closing, the buyer is unable to obtain the zoning he needs for his commercial project. What is the contract at this stage?
A. Void
B. Voidable
C. In Breach
D. Enforceable
A

D. Enforceable

Since there were no contingency clauses, and no restrictive covenants of record. If the buyer cannot secure a change of zoning , the contract is perfectly valid as stands and is enforceable between the parties.

302
Q

A broker and seller terminate the listing contract. An offer is received in the mail by the broker after the termination of the listing contract. The offer is for full price and includes all of the terms and conditions of the seller. Why is this NOT a valid contract?
A. There is no consideration involved.
B. No acceptance has been given.
C. No earnest money has been enclosed.
D. There is no current listing agreement.

A

B. No acceptance has been given.

It has not been presented to or accepted by the owner. Remember, contracts aren’t valid until both parties agree. However, even though the listing agreement has expired, the offer should be presented. If it’s accepted and the transaction closes, the broker will generally be entitled to his or her full commission.

303
Q

A breach of contract is a refusal or a failure to comply with the terms of the contract. If the seller breaches the purchase contract, the buyer may do all of the following EXCEPT
A. sue the seller for specific performance.
B. rescind the contract and recover the earnest money.
C. sue the seller for damages.
D.sue the broker for non-performance.

A

D.sue the broker for non-performance.

While brokers and salespeople are responsible for bringing people together, they cannot be expected to know every detail of their circumstances or intent. Thus, if a buyer cannot get clear title or a seller is unexpectedly transferred, it is not the broker’s fault the transaction failed and he or she bears no responsibility or liability.

304
Q

Broker K arrives to present a purchase offer to Mrs. D, an 80 year old invalid who is not always of sound mind, and finds her son and her daughter-in-law present. In the presence of Broker K, both individuals persistently urge D to accept the offer, even though it is much lower than the price she has been asking for her home. If D accepts the offer, she may later claim that
A. broker K should not have brought her such a low offer for her property.
B. she was under undue duress from her son and daughter-in-law, and, therefore, the contract is voidable.
C. broker K defrauded her by allowing her son and daughter-in-law to see the purchase offer he brought to her.
D. her consumer protection rights have been usurped by her son and daughter-in-law.

A

B. she was under undue duress from her son and daughter-in-law, and, therefore, the contract is voidable.

“Duress” is the application of coercion or pressure to influence a person to act in a way contrary to his/her best interests. Further, since voluntary participation is a key condition of any contract, Mrs. D could well be successful in such an action. A voidable contract is one that is able to be voided because Mrs D was under duress or undue influence.

305
Q

A buyer makes an earnest money deposit of $10,000 on a $300,000 property and then withdraws her offer before the seller can accept it. The broker is responsible for disposing of the earnest money by
A. turning it over to the seller.
Bdeducting the commission and giving the balance to the seller.
C. returning it to the buyer.
D. depositing it in his or her trust account.

A

C. returning it to the buyer.

A contract only exists when it is both offered by the buyer and accepted by the seller. Since the second part of this requirement was never fulfilled, the buyer is entitled to have his earnest money returned.