test Flashcards

1
Q

When setting the Bank rate, the Monetary Policy Committee uses?

A

14-day gilt repos to meet its annual inflation target of 2% CPI. Correct. 14 day gilt repos are used to meet the CPI target.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

or a large company, the risk of a terrorist incident occurring is an example of:?

A

A. business continuity risk. Correct. This may make it difficult for the business to continue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

One of the main advantages of using a bank as an intermediary is that the discrepancy between timescales can be eliminated. This is referred to as:

A

maturity transformation. Correct. Eliminating timescale discrepancies is known as maturity transformation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which type of investment normally pay interest?

A

Corporate bonds. Correct. Corporate bonds pay regular interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

firm can benefit from taking complaints seriously because:

A

complaints can provide feedback on how the company can improve its processes. Correct. Firms should look at the root cause of the complaints it receives and seek to improve processes where appropriate, to reduce the number of future complaints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who has a similar role at a unit trust to the role of a depositary at an OEIC?

A

The correct answer is: Trustee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

For what minimum period must an authorised firm keep a record of the advice given relating to a stakeholder pension?

A

5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A complaint made by an eligible complainant to an authorised firm can be referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service by the complainant, if it has not been satisfactorily resolved by the firm within:

A

The correct answer is: eight weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following arrangements will immediately and substantially reduce the amount of inheritance tax due on an estate?

A

The correct answer is: Discounted gift trust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The requirement for a firm to have adequate risk management systems forms part of which of the FCA’s Principles for Businesses?

A

The correct answer is: Management and control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is not a form of risk sharing?

A

self insurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Under anti-money-laundering legislation, records of identification obtained from individuals must be held for a minimum of:

A

The correct answer is: five years from the end of a customer relationship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which state benefits is not taxable?

A

The correct answer is: Attendance Allowance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The risk that a firm will not have the immediate resources to meet obligations as they fall due is known as:

A

The correct answer is: liquidity risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When prices of goods in general have fallen over a sustained period, this is known as:

A

The correct answer is: deflation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For a life policy, when should a suitability report normally be given to a customer?

A

The correct answer is: Before the contract is concluded.

17
Q

Which types of pension scheme are regulated by the Pensions Regulator?

A

The correct answer is: Occupational schemes and group personal or stakeholder schemes only.

18
Q

What is the maximum inheritance tax exit charge on a ‘relevant property trust’?

A

6%

19
Q

Which of the following cannot be reduced by diversification?

A

The correct answer is: Systematic risk.

20
Q

Which of the following risks can an investor usually avoid by trading only in the shares of larger established companies?

A

The correct answer is: Liquidity risk.

21
Q

Excluding state benefits, the maximum benefit payable from an income protection insurance policy, as a percentage of pre-disability earnings is typically:

A

The correct answer is: 50 - 60%.

22
Q

Which type of Will cannot be revoked after the death of the first party?

A

The correct answer is: Mutual.

23
Q

What is the latest point in the sales process that a key features document for a personal pension should be given to a client?

A

The correct answer is: Before the application form is signed.

24
Q

avi is being assessed to see if he meets the ‘fit and proper’ test requirements. Part of the test involves assessing his complaints record. This would be primarily to assess his:

A

The correct answer is: honesty, integrity and reputation.

25
Q

Param and Priti have £250,000 in a bank account as a result of selling the family home last month. If the bank became insolvent today and they had to make a claim to the Financial Services Compensation Scheme, subject to appropriate proof they would receive total compensation of:

A

They would benefit from the FSCS temporary high balance rules and receive £250,000.

26
Q

Within what timescale must the FCA respond to a ‘super-complaint’ from a designated consumer body, setting out how it proposes to deal with the complaint?

A

90 days

27
Q

Which of the following statements is true with regard to execution-only business?

A

The adviser’s duty of care to explain fully the nature of the product or investment and the risks involved does not apply.

28
Q

Which type of EU legislation is not immediately binding but requires each member state to enact its provisions through national legislation?

A

The correct answer is: Directive.

29
Q

Investment bonds are?

A

Single premium life policies

30
Q

FOS complain to FCA

A

6 Months

31
Q

Counter party risk

A

Financial intermary as they are acting as the intermary

32
Q

Eligible jobholder are what age

A

22 and state pension age

33
Q

To get a state pension what must you have made

A

NI contributions

34
Q

Deferring state pension…. Expand

A

1% for every 9 weeks deferment