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Air Warfare Test > Test > Flashcards

Test Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three objectives of first aid?

A

Prevent further injury, infections, and the loss of life.

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2
Q

A point on the body where a main artery lies near the skin surface and over a bone is called?

A

Pressure point

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3
Q

The pressure point radial/Ulnar artery can be found where on the body?

A

Wrist

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4
Q

Burns where tissues are destroyed, skin and bone is severe cases, however severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed is classified as?

A

Third degree

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5
Q

The result from bacteria multiplying in the blood and releasing toxins. Common causes of this are pneumonia, intra-abdominal infections such as a ruptured appendix and meningitis is called?

A

Septic shock

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6
Q

What step of ORM involves conducting follow up evaluations of the controls to ensure they remain in place and have the desired effect?

A

Supervise

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7
Q

Under what classification of mishap results in the total cost of reportable material property damage of $2,000,000 or more; or an injury or occupational illness resulting in a fatality or permanent disability?

A

Class A

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8
Q

The following are chemical agents EXCEPT:

A

Anthrax

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9
Q

What is used to detect the presence of liquid chemical agents by turning a red to reddish but it does not detect chemical agent vapors?

A

M9 Chemical Agent Detector paper

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10
Q

The basic division in biological agents is between pathogens and what?

A

Toxins

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11
Q

High altitude air burst occurs at altitude in excess of ________ with ionosphere disruption and EMP.

A

100,000 feet

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12
Q

During which MOPP level General Quarter is sound?

A

3

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13
Q

Fires are divided into how many classes?

A
  1. A,G, C, D
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14
Q

Current shipboard equipment what amount of concentrate of AFFF?

A

6%

94% water
6% AFFF

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15
Q

On the airfield threshold marking the stripes are ____ wide by ____ long and designated the landing area.

A

12 feet wide by 150 feet long

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16
Q

Runaways are normally numbered in relation to their ________ rounded off to the nearest _________ degrees.

A

Magnetic heading, 10 degrees

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17
Q

How will you identify the runway if there are two runways whose centerline is parallel?

A

L (left) R (right)

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18
Q

Who’s wears the purple jersey?

A

Aviation Fuel Crew

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19
Q

How can you identify the location of Salt water stations on the flight deck?

A

18 inch wide red stripe with a yellow 3 high “W” stencil in in the center of the stripe on the wheel stop coaling

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20
Q

A Bomb jettison Ramp is designated for what purpose?

A

To eliminate loose ordnance

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21
Q

How can you identify the location of steam smothering on the flight deck?

A

18 inch black stripe with a 3 inch white “STREAM” stenciled in the center of the stripe on the wheel stop coaming

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22
Q

How many chains are required during normal weather to tie down of an aircraft?

A

9

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23
Q

When the wind across the flight deck is above 60 knots, it is considered _____ weather.

A

Heavy

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24
Q

When directing fixed wing aircraft the only mandatory signal much be observe regardless of aircraft type is ___________?

A

Emergency stop

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25
Q

What two signals that cannot be changed due to platform variations for rotary wing operations?

A

Wave off and hold

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26
Q

During towing of an aircraft what is the towing speed?

A

Not to exceed 5 mph or the speed of the slowest walker

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27
Q

What scale of threat determines the conditions for defense of the United States homeland and assets abroad?

A

THREATCON

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28
Q

What Force Protection condition applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exist and warrants a routine security posture?

A

FPCON NORMAL

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29
Q

Which FPCON, when sustain for a prolonged period may affect operational capability and relations and with local authority?

A

FPCON BRAVO

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30
Q

Which Defense Condition (DEFCON) is the least severe?

A

DEFCON 5

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31
Q

Which DEFCON is set for normal peace time?

A

DEFCON 5

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32
Q

Who is responsible for preparing and publishing the Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP)?

A

The Maintenance / Material Control Officer

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33
Q

Which maintenance level is performed by an operating unit on a day-by-day basis in support of its own operations?

A

O level

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34
Q

What are the two type of maintenance described in the NAMP?

A

Rework and Upkeep

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35
Q

What type of upkeep inspection/Maintenance is conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth that the turn around inspection?

A

Daily

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36
Q

Rework is a more intensive type of maintenance therefore it is performed at what level?

A

D level

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37
Q

Which fixed wing aircraft is a Tactical Electronic Warfare airplane?

A

E-2C

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38
Q

What does IMRL stand for?

A

Individual Material Readiness List

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39
Q

Which law of motion states, “to every action there is always an equal and Opposite reaction: or the mutual actions of two bodies upon each other are always equal and directed to contrary parts”?

A

Newton’s Third Law

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40
Q

What is the carrier battle group inner antisubmarine-zone helicopter?

A

SH-60

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41
Q

What is the imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft?

A

Vertical Axis

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42
Q

Pinkie is a term used for what?

A

A term used to describe a landing made during twilight.

43
Q

The F/A-18 Hornet is what type of aircraft?

A

All-weather fighter and attack aircraft

44
Q

Who determines the case launch and recovery of all embarked aircraft?

A

Air boss

45
Q

What is the name of ship Eugene Fly first take off from?

A

USS BIRMINGHAM

46
Q

On the 20th June 1913 _______, piloting the B-2 at 1600 feet over the water near Annapolis, Maryland, was thrown from the plane and fell to his death. This was the first fatality of Naval Aviation.

A

Ensign William D. Billings key

47
Q

When first Navy jet made its first carrier landing and on what ship?

A

10 March 1948; USS Boxer (CV21)

48
Q

During the battle of Midway the U.S. had _____ carrier and no battleship.

A

3

49
Q

What is the act, or process, of changing place or position?

A

Motion

50
Q

What describe quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction?

A

Velocity

51
Q

What describes the ability to project from the sea as the essential combat element of the Maritime strategy?

A

Power Projection

52
Q

During the battle of Midway the U.S. had ________ carrier and no battleship.

A

3

53
Q

What war was a strategic setback for the Japanese who never again threatened Australia?

A

Guadalcanal

54
Q

What is the act, or process, of changing place or position?

A

Motion

55
Q

What describe quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction?

A

Velocity

56
Q

What describes the ability to project from the sea as the essential combat element of the Maritime strategy?

A

Power Projection

57
Q

What letter identifies Tactical Electronic Warfare Squadron?

A

VAQ

58
Q

What are the general steps of spill response?

A

All of the above;

Discovery
Notification
Evaluation

59
Q

What type of hangar is primarily provided for U.S. Marine Corps aviation?

A

Type 2

60
Q

What are the major hazards of jet engine exhaust on the flight deck?

A

Both A and B;

High temperature
Velocity of the exhaust gases exiting the tailpipe

61
Q

Which flight division is responsible for the handling on all aircraft on the flight deck?

A

V-1 Flight Deck Directors

62
Q

What is the color jersey wear on the flight deck by aircraft handling officer and plane directors?

A

Yellow

63
Q

Carrier Air Traffic Control Center is comprised of how many interdependent work centers?

A

2

64
Q

Who is responsible for the control of departing aircraft during Case 1,2 and 3 departure?

A

Departure control

65
Q

Which centers mission is to keep the commanding officer apprised of the overall tactical situation and recommend courses of action as appropriate?

A

Combat Direction Center (CDC)

66
Q

Which radar enables carrier pilots to perform instrument approaches under either manual or automatic control?

A

AN/ SPN 46

67
Q

What phrase describes when a pilot report indicating that the visual landing aid is in sight?

A

BALL

68
Q

What fixed wing squadron transports personnel and supplies for carrier onboard delivery?

A

Aircraft Logistic Support (VR)

69
Q

How many types of hangars use in Naval Aviation?

A

3

70
Q

Type 3 hangar module that is principally designed for land based patrol and large transport aircraft is _____ feet deep by ______ feet wide.

A

165 feet deep and 165 feet wide

71
Q

During approach control, control is provided between handoff from Marshall and transfer of control to whom, during Case 2?

A

Pri-fly

72
Q

What are the two independent work centers that make up Carrier Air Traffic Control Centers?

A

Air Operations and Carrier Control Approach

73
Q

What color Jersey does the Aircraft handling Crew wear on the flight deck?

A

Blue

74
Q

First general precaution on the flight deck that you must observe is to _______.

A

Beware of propellers

75
Q

Which division is responsible for the communication of aircraft launch, recovery, tower communications and all administrative duties within Air department?

A

V-5

Admin and tower

76
Q

___________ coordination with all warfare commanders to establish a viable air plan for battle group functions.

A

Strike Operations

77
Q

_________ imposes restrictions on the use of electronic system to deny information to the enemy for determining the location of the Carrier.

A

EMCON

78
Q

What phrase describes the ship’s magnetic heading during flight operations?

A

Base recovery course

79
Q

What describes the command vertical approach path for letdown during recovery operations provided by FLOLS and air traffic control systems (PALS and ICLS), expressed in degrees above the True Horizontal Plane (THP)?

A

Glide slope

80
Q

What describes the Daily schedule of carrier operations, published by the Operations Department?

A

Green sheet

81
Q

What describes Helicopter in flight refueling of helicopters from a surface vessel?

A

HIFR

82
Q

What describes helicopter used to transport chaplains to ships in company with the carrier?

A

Holy Helo

83
Q

What describes a depiction of airspace constraints for each 24- hour period of flight operations?

A

Hot Sheet

84
Q

What describes when an aircraft’s hook ships over the arresting gear cables, resulting in a Bolter?

A

Hook skip

85
Q

What describes the ship’s true heading during flight operations?

A

Fox Corpen

86
Q

What describes a pilot coded report indicating aircraft mission readiness?

A

KILO report

87
Q

What describes a controller request to a pilot for the aircraft’s TACAN radial and DME distance from the carrier?

A

Mark Your Father

88
Q

What describes a term referring to the ship?

A

Mother

89
Q

What describes an aircraft unable to transmit by radio?

A

NORDO

90
Q

What describes a term for fuel or a tanker aircraft?

A

TEXACO

91
Q

What describes aircraft is out of ordnance?

A

WINCHESTER

92
Q

What describes a term used to direct a helicopter to come close aboard?

A

Snuggle UP

93
Q

What describes a homing system that uses active detection and tracking methods to destroy its target? The missile tracks the target from a system contained in the missile itself.

A

Active

94
Q

What describes a homing system, that uses an outside source to find the weapons? The mistake gets its target illumination from an external source, such as the transmitter carried on the launching aircraft?

A

Semi Active

95
Q

What describes a homing system, that uses information collected from the target itself? Examples homing include homing on the source of infrared Ray from the target. (Such as hot exhaust of a jet aircraft)?

A

Passive

96
Q

What describes a lines laid out on the flight deck to indicate the aircraft recovery area?

A

Foul line

97
Q

What center (s) is the single contact point where organizational and Intermediate level maintenance activities place requirements for material and equipment to support weapons system maintenance. SSC/ASD is comrades of two sections, Supply Response Section (SRS) and Component control section (CCS)?

A

Not sure. Component Control section (CCS) or CDC

98
Q

What center is comprised of five units and is the single point of contact for processing customer requirements and providing follow-up and status as required.

A

Supply Response Center (SRS)

99
Q

What section is comprised of four units responsible for repairable management and accounting of all assets stored in the LRCA pool storage areas as well as items in the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) repair cycle and retrograde being processed for shipment to designated overhaul points?

A

Component Control Section (CCS)

100
Q

What describes a list of materials required for aircraft maintenance activities to provide the aviation ship or air station with a tailored list of material that can be used as a stocking guide?

A

Aviation Consolidated Allowance List (AVCAL)

101
Q

What units received all requests for material requirements, prepares documentation, and maintains files and requests and provides status to customers?

A

Requisition Control Unit (RCU)

102
Q

What unit verifies requisitions data (part number, stock numbers, references, and technical data)? Researches for suitable substitute, interchangeable and alternate stock numbers?

A

Technical research unit (TRU)

103
Q

What unit processes and expedites all high priority requirements. Distributes daily status listings and reconciles outstanding requisitions between supply and maintenance activities?

A

Program Management Unit (PMU)

104
Q

What picks up and delivers material from storage locations and delivers it to the customer?

A

Material Delivery Unit (MDU)

Air Warfare Test (1 decks)

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