TEST Flashcards
1
Q
What date is observed as the official anniversary of the Seabees?
A
5 March 1942
2
Q
How many articles are contained in the Code of Conduct?
A
6
3
Q
Who was the first and only Seabee to in history to receive the Medal of Honor?
A
Marvin Shields
4
Q
Plans or Orders that provide the course of action to accomplish a future mission?
A
Operation Plan
5
Q
What plan or order gives the authority to initiate supply, personnel and administration procedures required by a move?
A
Execution Order
6
Q
What center provides the primary centralized control facilities for the Battalion Commander
A
COC
7
Q
What center controls, coordinates, and monitors movement of personnel, supplies, and equipment to an embarkation staging area?
A
MOCC
8
Q
What provides reports provides a monthly statement of a command’s enlisted personnel account?
A
EDVR
9
Q
Whose primary duties include providing advice and expertise in small arms?
A
Military Advisor
10
Q
Who is the legal officer in the Battalion?
A
S-1 Admin Officer
11
Q
Which Company is known as the general construction Company?
A
C- Co
12
Q
The distribution of personnel shortages and excesses is determined by what document?
A
Naval Manning Plan
13
Q
Who prepares operation orders for the Battalion?
A
S-3 Operations Officer
14
Q
Establishing equal opportunity program for each command is the responsibility of WHO?
A
Command Managed Equal Opportunity Officer
15
Q
Which company is known as the Shop and Utilities company?
A
B- Co
16
Q
At what current level does the GFCI trip?
A
3 to 5 mA
17
Q
What OPNAV forms are for Unsafe/Unhealthful working conditions reporting?
A
OPNAV 5100/11
18
Q
Which of the following is/are worn at all construction sites, shop spaces, warehouses, storage yards, industrial areas and other areas designated by the Safety Officer?
A
Steel-toed shoes and hard hat
19
Q
Who chairs the Command’s safety policy committee?
A
Executive Officer
20
Q
Which of the following shop operations has the highest potential for eye hazards?
A
cutting and welding metals
21
Q
Prior to first use, temporary power sources are inspected, certified safe and ___________?
A
Tagged
22
Q
A lockout device can be any device that is designed to secure a switch, valve or similar item in the _________
A
“off” or “safe” position
23
Q
Navy personnel must enter a hearing testing program when they work for an eight-hour period in a designated hazardous noise area above what decibel?
A
84 dB
24
Q
Who is authorized to certify a confined space as safe for personnel to enter?
A
Gas-Free engineer
25
a combination of insert type and circumaural type hearing protective devices are required in areas where noise exceeds what decibel level?
104 dB
26
what is the purpose of a mishap investigation?
to prevent similar mishaps
27
How many times has the Sailors Creed been revised?
2
28
What is the purpose of rolling shoring?
to protect the aircraft cargo floor and parking ramp from damage
29
the AN/PRC-150 has a operating range of?
1000 miles plus
30
what is the appearance of a third degree burn?
white or charred black
31
who is authorized to certify a "Confined Space" as safe for entry?
Gas-free engineer
32
What is the color and length of deep water hose?
dark red
33
what is the security measure designed to protect communication systems against fraudulent transmissions?
Authentication
34
in the acronym KOCOA, which best describes "observations and fields of fire" with respect to the enemy?
possible enemy machine gun emplacements and wide open areas that would be likely used as ambush points
35
what is the DIRLAUTH
direct liaison authorized
36
a GFCI is required for use on power tools?
true
37
what is the number of nerve agent antidote kits (NAAK) that must be given as immediate first aid treatment for buddy aid?
3
38
who is considered to be the father of our highest Navy traditions?
John Paul Jones
39
why is the use of pyrotechnics important for tactical measures?
screens movement, used as warning signals, and illuminates low visibility areas at night
40
which forms are used by tenders and bases as invoices for materials supplied to their supporting units?
NAVSUP 1250-1
41
if a person becomes unconscious due to heat related injury it is ok to carefully and slowly give the injured person water?
false
42
what is the minimum dimensions of each piece of dunnage when used with the 463L pallet?
4x4x88
43
how is the conduit route marked?
use Nav Net in the craft and mark it
44
what is the identification marking for regimental organic CESE?
Triangle shaped, red background with white numerals
45
an NCF publication used by project members as a reference for planning and execution?
Crew Leader Handbook
46
What 2 cranes are on the pier head of ELCAS (M)?
200 ton
47
what is the ratio of compressions to breaths during cpr?
30:2
48
how many P40G pontoons make up the width of the ELCAS roadway?
2
49
why do you secure a dressing on 3 sides for a sucking chest wound?
allow excessive pressure to be released
50
how many gallons a day can OPDS provide?
1.2 millon
51
What does CBR stand for
Chemical, Biological, Radiological
52
which of the following describes the best position for a dug-in observation post?
minimum position defilade on higher terrain elevations
53
the degree of hazard is expressed by a numerical code 1 thru?
5
54
which of the following forms can be used to request tracer action on shipments sent by insured mail?
DD 1348
55
What is the ONLY section the power module would back into?
Docking Module
56
What is RFF
Request For Force
57
which acronym is used to help small unit leaders estimate current situations in order to accomplish a mission?
METT-T
58
What does UHMW mean?
Ultra High Molecular Weigh
59
What form is submitted when an item is valued at $500 has been received and its shelf life has expired?
SF 364
60
which acronym is used to help leaders distribute target assignment, locate targets and regulate fire power?
SMEAC
61
how many types of shoring are used during embarkation operations?
4
62
which class of messages CAN be handled 3-4 hours or start of business on the following day?
Routine
63
the amount of money estimated for a unit to perform its mission is?
OPTAR
64
what is the cyclic rate of fire for the M2?
450-550 rpm
65
how many sections are used to build the floating causeway?
19
66
the C-5 can carry a maximum of ______ 463L palets?
36
67
what is used to connect the primary parts of the AN/GRA - 39 together
WD1 Wire
68
what is the name of the written publication used to estimate activity mandays?
NAVFAC P-405
69
which night observation device can be used with the MK19?
AN/PVS - 20
70
What are the phases of QC?
Preparatory, Initial, and Follow up
71
When giving self aid how long should you wait if still experiencing the symptoms of a Nerve Agent before administering a second dose
10-15 min between 2nd and 3rd
72
what does ELCAS(M) stand for
Elevated Causeway System Modular
73
what command did SW2 robert d. stethem belong to?
UCT 2
74
the TA-312 telephone apparatus has a range with batteries of?
14-22 miles
75
the injury described as immersion foot can not only affect the feet but also the hands?
true
76
what is the SWL of the warping Tug A Frame?
30,000 lbs
77
how many non-powered causeway sections are needed to deploy the ABLTS system?
1
78
Within a camp latrine must be at what minimum distance from a natural water source?
100 yards
79
which term best describes the term "Blow Back Operation"?
barrel doesn't lock to the bolt and the exploding cartridge starts the bolt moving reward
80
OPDS is installed in water depths between ____ to _____
35 - 200 feet
81
what are the key components of a standard combat load?
Protective, load-carrying, and bivouac
82
What is the final protective fire?
line along which interlocking bands of grazing fire are placed to stop enemy advances
83
what is the maximum allowable height a trajectory can be above the ground in order to achieve grazing fire?
68 inches
84
which of the following statement BEST describes the first step of treatment of a snake bite?
place a constricting band 2-3" above the fang bites
85
on machine gun tripods elevation readings are in what unit of measurement?
mils
86
what are the responsibilities of the S6 department?
Communication
87
which location was the first home of the Seabees?
Davisville, RI
88
how do you treat an abdominal wound when intestines are exposed?
wrap in a moist compress around the intestines
89
what is the purpose of TC-AIMS?
provides transportation agents and deploying units a joint capability to automate the processes of planning, organizing, coordinating and controlling equipment
90
which best describes a category III hazard?
may cause minor injury, minor occupational illness, or minor property damage
91
how long is the Power Module?
87 Feet
92
which of the best describes the M16
gas operated, air cooled, magazine feed, shoulder fired weapon
93
what is the name of the standard government license?
OF 346
94
During what 2 operations did Seabees construct troop bed down facilities, storage areas, EPW camps, and hundreds of miles of roads?
Desert Shield and Desert Storm
95
Which plan or order was used to give advanced notice that a unit is to be moved?
WARNO
96
who gives all the orders to craftmasters while maneuvering the RRDF platform?
Causeway Commander
97
Which class of messages must be handled as fast as humanly possible, objective is less than 10 min
FLASH
98
Class B fire is the burning caused by?
Electrical
99
What best describes the RFF?
Combatant commander's request for Seabee engineering support
100
The AN/PRC-150 is primarily used for what type of communication?
digital data
101
Ensures material receipt, issue, storage, accounting and submission of reports?
ARP
Greens Issue /infantry gear/special clothing
MLO
***All of the Above***
102
what is the acronym CINCLANTFLT?
Commander in Chief Atlantic Fleet Forces
103
which best describes the purpose of supplementary wire?
hides the make up of tactical wire
104
the SB-22 telephone switchboard has how many lines?
12
105
what best describes a near mishap?
when injury or damages were avoided merely by chance or circumstance
106
in what year was the civil engineer corp officially named and authorized?
1942
107
in the acronym KOCOA which best describes "observations and fields of fire" for defensive units?
proper machine gun emplacements acquired by favorable terrain, shelter, and cover, which would allow the best visibility possible
108
When under an NBC attack when do you give the warning?
after you don your mask
109
who conducts the traffic court in this battalion?
A6
110
the OE-254's antenna elements allow it to tune to frequencies between ____ and ____ MHz without manually adjusting either the groundplane or radiating element's length?
30 and 88 MHz
111
the AN/GRA-39 has how many primary points?
2
112
which best describes the Military Grid Reference System
the grid zone designator, the 100,000 meter square identification, and the 4 to 8 digit coordinate
113
the c-130 can carry ___ 463L pallets, ____ on the cargo floor and ____ on the cargo ramp?
6, 5, 1
114
the Safety Officer enforces the Commanding Officer's safety policies and procedures?
TRUE
115
what company is responsible for vertical construction
Charlie
116
what is the allowable chain load of a C-5 aircraft?
150,000 lbs
117
how long will a JSLIST suit protect you in a contaminated environment?
24hr
118
___________ is responsible for morale/welfare, training and readiness of the men and women assigned to the company?
Company Commander
119
What is the identification marking for NMCB organic CESE?
Diamond shaped, red background, with white numerals
120
what did the seabees construct once they hit the ground in vietnam?
expeditionary airfield
121
what is the modern day CEC responsible for?
Planning and construction
Public works functions at Navy and Marine Corps bases worldwide
for leading the NCF
***all of the above***
122
what is the maximum effective range of the M203 on an area target?
350m
123
how long is a secret clearance good for?
10 yrs
124
________ provide specific training and safety information for specific hazards evolutions and activities.. usually prior to exercises and after catastrophic mishaps?
Safety stand downs
125
What degree or angle is the beach ramp set at?
10 Degrees
126
the J-1077 Junction Box can consolidate up to how many pairs of WD-1 wire?
26
127
which best describes local direction and control movements or maneuvers to accomplish mission?
TACON
128
which of the following is NOT a step of ORM?
completing the job
129
conduit is to be installed in what conditions
250 ft water over sand, mud, coral or rock bottom
130
TA-1 telephone apparatus has a operating range of?
2-4 miles
131
how many general classes of fire are there?
4
132
what acronym aids troops in summarizing enemy disposition?
SALUTE
133
what is a military crest?
the highest point taken on a hill or mountain without being silhouetted by the skyline
134
what factors determine route classification and conditions for convoys?
traffic flow, weather, enemy activity, latest intel, choke points, ect.
135
which best describes DIRLAUTH?
granting a subordinate the ability to coordinate an action within or outside the command
136
what is the purpose of the side connection?
connection CMS together side to side & connection DM to CM side to side
137
how many seabees make up a full squad?
none of the above
138
how do you determine your pace count?
walk 100 meters and count every left step taken
139
which acronym is used to help leaders determine enemy capabilities?
DRAW-D
140
WD-1 wire has a maximum tensile strength of?
200lbs
141
what forms do chemical agents come in?
vapors, solids, liquids and gas
142
which best describes a Hazardous condition?
a condition which of allowed to go unchecked or uncorrected has the potential to cause a mishap
143
what size NATO round is fired from the M16
5.56 mm
144
which describes the mission of the NECC?
provides rapid deployable agile expeditionary forces made up of active duty and reserve mission specialist
145
the amount of money estimated for a unit to perform its mission is referred to as the
OPTAR
146
what is the maximum range of the 240B
3725m
147
what does NECC stand for?
naval expeditionary combat command
148
fire hazard is described as the ability of the material to burn when exposed to a heat source
true
149
which best describes a superficial injury
shallow cuts on the face or head
150
which of the following qualities do NOT represent characteristics of the naval force?
fearlessness
151
what rates are merged together to form an EQCM
EO, CM
152
what is the cyclic rate of fire for the 240B
650-950 rpm
153
on which date were the seabees officially given their name
5 march 1942
154
what is GVW
the weight of all axel
155
what is MOPP 0
IPE available for immediate donning protective mask with filter available
156
how many sections does it take to assemble INLS RRDF
9
157
which of the following forms is used to document the report of survey and certify the survey process when property is gained or lost by the government
DD 200
158
who validates all equipment under the preventive maintenance system (PMS) program
PM/COSBAL coordinator
159
WD-1 wire is comprise of what material
copper & steel
160
what does OPDS stand for
offshore petroleum discharge system
161
what year was the sailors creed introduced
1993
162
the AN/PRC-119F man pack radio is powered by what type of battery
LI battery 12V
163
what 2 navy ships are named in honor of seabees
USS Shields & USS Stethem
164
how many steps are there in ORM?
5
165
how many iodine tabs are added to one quart canteen when water appears cloudy
2
166
the TA-312 telephone apparatus is powered by what
2 BA-30 D-cell
167
what is the minimum thickness of rolling shoring?
3/4"
168
what does OUB stand for
offshore utility boat
169
what does a warping tug have on it that a causeway section powered does not have
Coxswain & A-frame
170
what type of CESE is included in a basic allowance of equipment
organic
171
what is the bow chute assemble used for?
to guide and control the down when going to fast line during deployment and retrieval operations
172
when the power module is assembled with an intermediate section and beach module what is the correct name of the craft?
causeway ferry
173
offshore petroleum discharge system (OPDS) can transfer a single product up to what distance?
4 miles
174
in what depths can OPDS be installed
35-200 ft deep and 240,000 ft from tanker
175
a listing of equipment and its support material which allows a unit to be self-sufficient for 1,800 construction hours or 90 days is found in the?
COSAL
176
which of the following forms is submitted to request container-surface shipment of unaccompanied baggage
DD 1149
177
within a camp latrines must be ______ distance from the galley
100 yards
178
a single hearing protection is required when noise levels exceed
84 dB
179
what are the dimensions of an NBC marker?
11 1/2 inches on the top by 8 inches on either side
180
elevated causeway system (modular) can be installed in how many days to a total length of 3,000
7 days
181
what is C2
Command and control
182
the usable dimension of the 463L pallet is
104 inches by 84 inches
183
the AN/PRC-119F man pack radio operates on a frequency range of
30-87.975 MHZ
184
how many US Navy ships are named after seabees
2
185
what is the immediate action taken for a far ambush
personnel in kill zone immediately return fire and others maneuver to provide flanking fire
186
the occupational safety and health council is chaired by who
XO
187
what is a common or conventional way of orienting a map without the availability of a compass
terrain association and prominent land marks
188
what classifications is given to cranes
WHE
189
if doubled staked the SB-22 telephone switchboard has how many lines
29
190
what frequency band does the AN/PRC-150 operate on
HF
191
which operation is the ramp module used for
RRDF and floating causeway
192
what is FITCAL
feel, inspect, tighten, clean, adjust, lubricate
193
what rates are merged to form CUCM
EA, BU, SW
194
within a camp garbage pits must be at what minimum distance from a natural water source
100 yards
195
what craft use the ramp module
LCU & LCM
196
what non powered INLS sections are used to build RRDF
7 CM's, 1 DM, 1 RM
197
which best describes an advanced base
a base located in or near a theater of operations whose primary mission is to support military operations
198
which department is in charge of operations
S3
199
the NCF camp maintenance system was specifically designed for what seabee camp operations
main body camp
200
what are the parts that make up the ABFC system
components, facilities and assemblies
201
while navigating in the field with the intent of maintaining a predetermined azimuth which best describes how you would circumvent an obstacle
90 degree turn method, preserving pace count
202
which of these acronyms best describes COCOM
provides authoritative direction for all military operations and joint training. organizes and employs commands and forces. assigns command functions to subordinates
203
what is the formula for calculating TM for a 2 axel vehicle
(W1xD1) + (W2xD2)
204
who is responsible for the safety and health of all military and civilian personnel in a command
CO
205
what acronym aids leaders in the initial six step planning process
BAMCIS
206
which of the following documents is used to report a vehicle mishap
SF 91
207
what is the muzzle velocity of the M16
3250 fps
