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TEST Flashcards

1
Q

What date is observed as the official anniversary of the Seabees?

A

5 March 1942

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2
Q

How many articles are contained in the Code of Conduct?

A

6

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3
Q

Who was the first and only Seabee to in history to receive the Medal of Honor?

A

Marvin Shields

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4
Q

Plans or Orders that provide the course of action to accomplish a future mission?

A

Operation Plan

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5
Q

What plan or order gives the authority to initiate supply, personnel and administration procedures required by a move?

A

Execution Order

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6
Q

What center provides the primary centralized control facilities for the Battalion Commander

A

COC

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7
Q

What center controls, coordinates, and monitors movement of personnel, supplies, and equipment to an embarkation staging area?

A

MOCC

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8
Q

What provides reports provides a monthly statement of a command’s enlisted personnel account?

A

EDVR

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9
Q

Whose primary duties include providing advice and expertise in small arms?

A

Military Advisor

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10
Q

Who is the legal officer in the Battalion?

A

S-1 Admin Officer

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11
Q

Which Company is known as the general construction Company?

A

C- Co

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12
Q

The distribution of personnel shortages and excesses is determined by what document?

A

Naval Manning Plan

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13
Q

Who prepares operation orders for the Battalion?

A

S-3 Operations Officer

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14
Q

Establishing equal opportunity program for each command is the responsibility of WHO?

A

Command Managed Equal Opportunity Officer

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15
Q

Which company is known as the Shop and Utilities company?

A

B- Co

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16
Q

At what current level does the GFCI trip?

A

3 to 5 mA

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17
Q

What OPNAV forms are for Unsafe/Unhealthful working conditions reporting?

A

OPNAV 5100/11

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18
Q

Which of the following is/are worn at all construction sites, shop spaces, warehouses, storage yards, industrial areas and other areas designated by the Safety Officer?

A

Steel-toed shoes and hard hat

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19
Q

Who chairs the Command’s safety policy committee?

A

Executive Officer

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20
Q

Which of the following shop operations has the highest potential for eye hazards?

A

cutting and welding metals

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21
Q

Prior to first use, temporary power sources are inspected, certified safe and ___________?

A

Tagged

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22
Q

A lockout device can be any device that is designed to secure a switch, valve or similar item in the _________

A

“off” or “safe” position

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23
Q

Navy personnel must enter a hearing testing program when they work for an eight-hour period in a designated hazardous noise area above what decibel?

A

84 dB

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24
Q

Who is authorized to certify a confined space as safe for personnel to enter?

A

Gas-Free engineer

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25
Q

a combination of insert type and circumaural type hearing protective devices are required in areas where noise exceeds what decibel level?

A

104 dB

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26
Q

what is the purpose of a mishap investigation?

A

to prevent similar mishaps

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27
Q

How many times has the Sailors Creed been revised?

A

2

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28
Q

What is the purpose of rolling shoring?

A

to protect the aircraft cargo floor and parking ramp from damage

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29
Q

the AN/PRC-150 has a operating range of?

A

1000 miles plus

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30
Q

what is the appearance of a third degree burn?

A

white or charred black

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31
Q

who is authorized to certify a “Confined Space” as safe for entry?

A

Gas-free engineer

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32
Q

What is the color and length of deep water hose?

A

dark red

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33
Q

what is the security measure designed to protect communication systems against fraudulent transmissions?

A

Authentication

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34
Q

in the acronym KOCOA, which best describes “observations and fields of fire” with respect to the enemy?

A

possible enemy machine gun emplacements and wide open areas that would be likely used as ambush points

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35
Q

what is the DIRLAUTH

A

direct liaison authorized

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36
Q

a GFCI is required for use on power tools?

A

true

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37
Q

what is the number of nerve agent antidote kits (NAAK) that must be given as immediate first aid treatment for buddy aid?

A

3

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38
Q

who is considered to be the father of our highest Navy traditions?

A

John Paul Jones

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39
Q

why is the use of pyrotechnics important for tactical measures?

A

screens movement, used as warning signals, and illuminates low visibility areas at night

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40
Q

which forms are used by tenders and bases as invoices for materials supplied to their supporting units?

A

NAVSUP 1250-1

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41
Q

if a person becomes unconscious due to heat related injury it is ok to carefully and slowly give the injured person water?

A

false

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42
Q

what is the minimum dimensions of each piece of dunnage when used with the 463L pallet?

A

4x4x88

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43
Q

how is the conduit route marked?

A

use Nav Net in the craft and mark it

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44
Q

what is the identification marking for regimental organic CESE?

A

Triangle shaped, red background with white numerals

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45
Q

an NCF publication used by project members as a reference for planning and execution?

A

Crew Leader Handbook

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46
Q

What 2 cranes are on the pier head of ELCAS (M)?

A

200 ton

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47
Q

what is the ratio of compressions to breaths during cpr?

A

30:2

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48
Q

how many P40G pontoons make up the width of the ELCAS roadway?

A

2

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49
Q

why do you secure a dressing on 3 sides for a sucking chest wound?

A

allow excessive pressure to be released

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50
Q

how many gallons a day can OPDS provide?

A

1.2 millon

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51
Q

What does CBR stand for

A

Chemical, Biological, Radiological

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52
Q

which of the following describes the best position for a dug-in observation post?

A

minimum position defilade on higher terrain elevations

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53
Q

the degree of hazard is expressed by a numerical code 1 thru?

A

5

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54
Q

which of the following forms can be used to request tracer action on shipments sent by insured mail?

A

DD 1348

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55
Q

What is the ONLY section the power module would back into?

A

Docking Module

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56
Q

What is RFF

A

Request For Force

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57
Q

which acronym is used to help small unit leaders estimate current situations in order to accomplish a mission?

A

METT-T

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58
Q

What does UHMW mean?

A

Ultra High Molecular Weigh

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59
Q

What form is submitted when an item is valued at $500 has been received and its shelf life has expired?

A

SF 364

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60
Q

which acronym is used to help leaders distribute target assignment, locate targets and regulate fire power?

A

SMEAC

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61
Q

how many types of shoring are used during embarkation operations?

A

4

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62
Q

which class of messages CAN be handled 3-4 hours or start of business on the following day?

A

Routine

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63
Q

the amount of money estimated for a unit to perform its mission is?

A

OPTAR

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64
Q

what is the cyclic rate of fire for the M2?

A

450-550 rpm

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65
Q

how many sections are used to build the floating causeway?

A

19

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66
Q

the C-5 can carry a maximum of ______ 463L palets?

A

36

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67
Q

what is used to connect the primary parts of the AN/GRA - 39 together

A

WD1 Wire

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68
Q

what is the name of the written publication used to estimate activity mandays?

A

NAVFAC P-405

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69
Q

which night observation device can be used with the MK19?

A

AN/PVS - 20

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70
Q

What are the phases of QC?

A

Preparatory, Initial, and Follow up

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71
Q

When giving self aid how long should you wait if still experiencing the symptoms of a Nerve Agent before administering a second dose

A

10-15 min between 2nd and 3rd

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72
Q

what does ELCAS(M) stand for

A

Elevated Causeway System Modular

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73
Q

what command did SW2 robert d. stethem belong to?

A

UCT 2

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74
Q

the TA-312 telephone apparatus has a range with batteries of?

A

14-22 miles

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75
Q

the injury described as immersion foot can not only affect the feet but also the hands?

A

true

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76
Q

what is the SWL of the warping Tug A Frame?

A

30,000 lbs

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77
Q

how many non-powered causeway sections are needed to deploy the ABLTS system?

A

1

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78
Q

Within a camp latrine must be at what minimum distance from a natural water source?

A

100 yards

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79
Q

which term best describes the term “Blow Back Operation”?

A

barrel doesn’t lock to the bolt and the exploding cartridge starts the bolt moving reward

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80
Q

OPDS is installed in water depths between ____ to _____

A

35 - 200 feet

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81
Q

what are the key components of a standard combat load?

A

Protective, load-carrying, and bivouac

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82
Q

What is the final protective fire?

A

line along which interlocking bands of grazing fire are placed to stop enemy advances

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83
Q

what is the maximum allowable height a trajectory can be above the ground in order to achieve grazing fire?

A

68 inches

84
Q

which of the following statement BEST describes the first step of treatment of a snake bite?

A

place a constricting band 2-3” above the fang bites

85
Q

on machine gun tripods elevation readings are in what unit of measurement?

A

mils

86
Q

what are the responsibilities of the S6 department?

A

Communication

87
Q

which location was the first home of the Seabees?

A

Davisville, RI

88
Q

how do you treat an abdominal wound when intestines are exposed?

A

wrap in a moist compress around the intestines

89
Q

what is the purpose of TC-AIMS?

A

provides transportation agents and deploying units a joint capability to automate the processes of planning, organizing, coordinating and controlling equipment

90
Q

which best describes a category III hazard?

A

may cause minor injury, minor occupational illness, or minor property damage

91
Q

how long is the Power Module?

A

87 Feet

92
Q

which of the best describes the M16

A

gas operated, air cooled, magazine feed, shoulder fired weapon

93
Q

what is the name of the standard government license?

A

OF 346

94
Q

During what 2 operations did Seabees construct troop bed down facilities, storage areas, EPW camps, and hundreds of miles of roads?

A

Desert Shield and Desert Storm

95
Q

Which plan or order was used to give advanced notice that a unit is to be moved?

A

WARNO

96
Q

who gives all the orders to craftmasters while maneuvering the RRDF platform?

A

Causeway Commander

97
Q

Which class of messages must be handled as fast as humanly possible, objective is less than 10 min

A

FLASH

98
Q

Class B fire is the burning caused by?

A

Electrical

99
Q

What best describes the RFF?

A

Combatant commander’s request for Seabee engineering support

100
Q

The AN/PRC-150 is primarily used for what type of communication?

A

digital data

101
Q

Ensures material receipt, issue, storage, accounting and submission of reports?

A

ARP
Greens Issue /infantry gear/special clothing
MLO
All of the Above

102
Q

what is the acronym CINCLANTFLT?

A

Commander in Chief Atlantic Fleet Forces

103
Q

which best describes the purpose of supplementary wire?

A

hides the make up of tactical wire

104
Q

the SB-22 telephone switchboard has how many lines?

A

12

105
Q

what best describes a near mishap?

A

when injury or damages were avoided merely by chance or circumstance

106
Q

in what year was the civil engineer corp officially named and authorized?

A

1942

107
Q

in the acronym KOCOA which best describes “observations and fields of fire” for defensive units?

A

proper machine gun emplacements acquired by favorable terrain, shelter, and cover, which would allow the best visibility possible

108
Q

When under an NBC attack when do you give the warning?

A

after you don your mask

109
Q

who conducts the traffic court in this battalion?

A

A6

110
Q

the OE-254’s antenna elements allow it to tune to frequencies between ____ and ____ MHz without manually adjusting either the groundplane or radiating element’s length?

A

30 and 88 MHz

111
Q

the AN/GRA-39 has how many primary points?

A

2

112
Q

which best describes the Military Grid Reference System

A

the grid zone designator, the 100,000 meter square identification, and the 4 to 8 digit coordinate

113
Q

the c-130 can carry ___ 463L pallets, ____ on the cargo floor and ____ on the cargo ramp?

A

6, 5, 1

114
Q

the Safety Officer enforces the Commanding Officer’s safety policies and procedures?

A

TRUE

115
Q

what company is responsible for vertical construction

A

Charlie

116
Q

what is the allowable chain load of a C-5 aircraft?

A

150,000 lbs

117
Q

how long will a JSLIST suit protect you in a contaminated environment?

A

24hr

118
Q

___________ is responsible for morale/welfare, training and readiness of the men and women assigned to the company?

A

Company Commander

119
Q

What is the identification marking for NMCB organic CESE?

A

Diamond shaped, red background, with white numerals

120
Q

what did the seabees construct once they hit the ground in vietnam?

A

expeditionary airfield

121
Q

what is the modern day CEC responsible for?

A

Planning and construction
Public works functions at Navy and Marine Corps bases worldwide
for leading the NCF
all of the above

122
Q

what is the maximum effective range of the M203 on an area target?

A

350m

123
Q

how long is a secret clearance good for?

A

10 yrs

124
Q

________ provide specific training and safety information for specific hazards evolutions and activities.. usually prior to exercises and after catastrophic mishaps?

A

Safety stand downs

125
Q

What degree or angle is the beach ramp set at?

A

10 Degrees

126
Q

the J-1077 Junction Box can consolidate up to how many pairs of WD-1 wire?

A

26

127
Q

which best describes local direction and control movements or maneuvers to accomplish mission?

A

TACON

128
Q

which of the following is NOT a step of ORM?

A

completing the job

129
Q

conduit is to be installed in what conditions

A

250 ft water over sand, mud, coral or rock bottom

130
Q

TA-1 telephone apparatus has a operating range of?

A

2-4 miles

131
Q

how many general classes of fire are there?

A

4

132
Q

what acronym aids troops in summarizing enemy disposition?

A

SALUTE

133
Q

what is a military crest?

A

the highest point taken on a hill or mountain without being silhouetted by the skyline

134
Q

what factors determine route classification and conditions for convoys?

A

traffic flow, weather, enemy activity, latest intel, choke points, ect.

135
Q

which best describes DIRLAUTH?

A

granting a subordinate the ability to coordinate an action within or outside the command

136
Q

what is the purpose of the side connection?

A

connection CMS together side to side & connection DM to CM side to side

137
Q

how many seabees make up a full squad?

A

none of the above

138
Q

how do you determine your pace count?

A

walk 100 meters and count every left step taken

139
Q

which acronym is used to help leaders determine enemy capabilities?

A

DRAW-D

140
Q

WD-1 wire has a maximum tensile strength of?

A

200lbs

141
Q

what forms do chemical agents come in?

A

vapors, solids, liquids and gas

142
Q

which best describes a Hazardous condition?

A

a condition which of allowed to go unchecked or uncorrected has the potential to cause a mishap

143
Q

what size NATO round is fired from the M16

A

5.56 mm

144
Q

which describes the mission of the NECC?

A

provides rapid deployable agile expeditionary forces made up of active duty and reserve mission specialist

145
Q

the amount of money estimated for a unit to perform its mission is referred to as the

A

OPTAR

146
Q

what is the maximum range of the 240B

A

3725m

147
Q

what does NECC stand for?

A

naval expeditionary combat command

148
Q

fire hazard is described as the ability of the material to burn when exposed to a heat source

A

true

149
Q

which best describes a superficial injury

A

shallow cuts on the face or head

150
Q

which of the following qualities do NOT represent characteristics of the naval force?

A

fearlessness

151
Q

what rates are merged together to form an EQCM

A

EO, CM

152
Q

what is the cyclic rate of fire for the 240B

A

650-950 rpm

153
Q

on which date were the seabees officially given their name

A

5 march 1942

154
Q

what is GVW

A

the weight of all axel

155
Q

what is MOPP 0

A

IPE available for immediate donning protective mask with filter available

156
Q

how many sections does it take to assemble INLS RRDF

A

9

157
Q

which of the following forms is used to document the report of survey and certify the survey process when property is gained or lost by the government

A

DD 200

158
Q

who validates all equipment under the preventive maintenance system (PMS) program

A

PM/COSBAL coordinator

159
Q

WD-1 wire is comprise of what material

A

copper & steel

160
Q

what does OPDS stand for

A

offshore petroleum discharge system

161
Q

what year was the sailors creed introduced

A

1993

162
Q

the AN/PRC-119F man pack radio is powered by what type of battery

A

LI battery 12V

163
Q

what 2 navy ships are named in honor of seabees

A

USS Shields & USS Stethem

164
Q

how many steps are there in ORM?

A

5

165
Q

how many iodine tabs are added to one quart canteen when water appears cloudy

A

2

166
Q

the TA-312 telephone apparatus is powered by what

A

2 BA-30 D-cell

167
Q

what is the minimum thickness of rolling shoring?

A

3/4”

168
Q

what does OUB stand for

A

offshore utility boat

169
Q

what does a warping tug have on it that a causeway section powered does not have

A

Coxswain & A-frame

170
Q

what type of CESE is included in a basic allowance of equipment

A

organic

171
Q

what is the bow chute assemble used for?

A

to guide and control the down when going to fast line during deployment and retrieval operations

172
Q

when the power module is assembled with an intermediate section and beach module what is the correct name of the craft?

A

causeway ferry

173
Q

offshore petroleum discharge system (OPDS) can transfer a single product up to what distance?

A

4 miles

174
Q

in what depths can OPDS be installed

A

35-200 ft deep and 240,000 ft from tanker

175
Q

a listing of equipment and its support material which allows a unit to be self-sufficient for 1,800 construction hours or 90 days is found in the?

A

COSAL

176
Q

which of the following forms is submitted to request container-surface shipment of unaccompanied baggage

A

DD 1149

177
Q

within a camp latrines must be ______ distance from the galley

A

100 yards

178
Q

a single hearing protection is required when noise levels exceed

A

84 dB

179
Q

what are the dimensions of an NBC marker?

A

11 1/2 inches on the top by 8 inches on either side

180
Q

elevated causeway system (modular) can be installed in how many days to a total length of 3,000

A

7 days

181
Q

what is C2

A

Command and control

182
Q

the usable dimension of the 463L pallet is

A

104 inches by 84 inches

183
Q

the AN/PRC-119F man pack radio operates on a frequency range of

A

30-87.975 MHZ

184
Q

how many US Navy ships are named after seabees

A

2

185
Q

what is the immediate action taken for a far ambush

A

personnel in kill zone immediately return fire and others maneuver to provide flanking fire

186
Q

the occupational safety and health council is chaired by who

A

XO

187
Q

what is a common or conventional way of orienting a map without the availability of a compass

A

terrain association and prominent land marks

188
Q

what classifications is given to cranes

A

WHE

189
Q

if doubled staked the SB-22 telephone switchboard has how many lines

A

29

190
Q

what frequency band does the AN/PRC-150 operate on

A

HF

191
Q

which operation is the ramp module used for

A

RRDF and floating causeway

192
Q

what is FITCAL

A

feel, inspect, tighten, clean, adjust, lubricate

193
Q

what rates are merged to form CUCM

A

EA, BU, SW

194
Q

within a camp garbage pits must be at what minimum distance from a natural water source

A

100 yards

195
Q

what craft use the ramp module

A

LCU & LCM

196
Q

what non powered INLS sections are used to build RRDF

A

7 CM’s, 1 DM, 1 RM

197
Q

which best describes an advanced base

A

a base located in or near a theater of operations whose primary mission is to support military operations

198
Q

which department is in charge of operations

A

S3

199
Q

the NCF camp maintenance system was specifically designed for what seabee camp operations

A

main body camp

200
Q

what are the parts that make up the ABFC system

A

components, facilities and assemblies

201
Q

while navigating in the field with the intent of maintaining a predetermined azimuth which best describes how you would circumvent an obstacle

A

90 degree turn method, preserving pace count

202
Q

which of these acronyms best describes COCOM

A

provides authoritative direction for all military operations and joint training. organizes and employs commands and forces. assigns command functions to subordinates

203
Q

what is the formula for calculating TM for a 2 axel vehicle

A

(W1xD1) + (W2xD2)

204
Q

who is responsible for the safety and health of all military and civilian personnel in a command

A

CO

205
Q

what acronym aids leaders in the initial six step planning process

A

BAMCIS

206
Q

which of the following documents is used to report a vehicle mishap

A

SF 91

207
Q

what is the muzzle velocity of the M16

A

3250 fps

SCW Test (2 decks)

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