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Contrast Media > Test 4 > Flashcards

Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the urinary system include?

A

2 kidneys
2 ureters
bladder
urethra

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2
Q

ductless endocrine glands;
not related to urinary system;
secretes epinephrine and cortical hormones

A

Suprarenal (Adrenal) Glands

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3
Q

Which kidney is lower than the other?

why?

A

Right, because of the liver

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4
Q

Which kidney is slightly longer and more narrow?

A

Left

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5
Q

In relation to the vertebrae, where does the kidney usually extend in a sthenic person?

A

superior border of T-12 to transverse processes of L-3

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6
Q

What is the outer-covering of the kidney, continuous with outer coat of ureter?

A

Renal Capsule

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7
Q

Where is the hilum located?

Why?

A

on the medial border;

to allow the transmission of blood and lymph vessels, nerves, and ureters

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8
Q

What does the hilum extend to form?

A

renal sinus

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9
Q

outer portion of the kidney

A

renal cortex

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10
Q

what are the extensions of renal cortex?

A

renal columns

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11
Q

inner portion of the kindey

A

renal medulla

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12
Q

contains 8-12 renal pyramids, drains toward the renal sinus

A

renal medulla

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13
Q

Approximately how many nephrons does each kidney contain?

A

1 million

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14
Q

essential microscopic components of the kidney, functioning cell of the kidney

A

nephron

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15
Q

nephrons consists of what 2 things?

A

renal corpuscle

renal tubule

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16
Q

renal corpuscle consists of what 2 things?

A

glomerular capsule

glomerulus

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17
Q

formed by tiny branches of renal artery entering the capsule and dividing into capillaries

A

glomerulus

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18
Q

vessel Entering Bowman’s capsule

A

afferent arteriole

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19
Q

vessel Leaving Bowman’s capusle

A

efferent arteriole

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20
Q

3 portions of renal tubule

A

proximal convoluted tubule
loop of Henle
distal convoluted tubule

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21
Q

what does the distal convoluted tubule open into?

A

collecting ducts

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22
Q

3 functions of kidneys

A 
filter blood
maintain electrolyte balance
produce renin (regulates BP)
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23
Q

cup-shaped stems that enclose one or more papilla

A

calyces

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24
Q

#? ______ calyces unite to form __#?__ ____ calyces

A

12-14 minor calyces unite to form 2-3 major calyces

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25
Q

major calyces unite to form ?

A

renal pelvis

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26
Q

where is the renal pelvis located?

A

hilum

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27
Q

where does the renal pelvis transition to the ureter

A

uteteropelvic junction (UPJ)

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28
Q

how long is the ureter?

A

10-12 in.

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29
Q

what long and wide is the kidney?

A

4.5 in. long and 2-3 in. wide

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30
Q

conveys urine from the kidney to the bladder

A

ureters

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31
Q

reservoir for urine

A

urinary bladder

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32
Q

in relation to the pubic symphysis, where is the bladder located?

A

immediately posterior and superior

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33
Q

what is the lowest and most fixed part of the bladder

A

neck

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34
Q

where is the neck of the bladder located in males? females?

A

males=rests on prostate

females=rests on pelvic diaphragm

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35
Q

what is the triangular area of bladder base between UVJ’s and urethra

A

trigone

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36
Q

how much urine can the bladder hold?

A

500 mL

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37
Q

at approximately how many mL do you feel the urge to micturate (pee)

A

250 mL

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38
Q

what conveys urine out of the body?

A

urethra

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39
Q

how long is the urethra in females? males?

A

females=1.5 in.

males=7-8 in.

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40
Q

small glandular body surrounding the proximal part of the male urethra

A

prostate

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41
Q

most common childhood renal cancer

A

Wilm’s

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42
Q

abnormal concretion of mineral salts, often called a stone

A

Calculus

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43
Q

malignant new growth composed of epithelial cells

A

Carcinoma

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44
Q

two renal pelves or ureters from the same kidney

A

Duplicate collecting system

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45
Q

fusion of the kidneys, usually at the lower poles; U shaped kidney

A

Horseshoe Kidney

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46
Q

kidney that fails to ascend and remains in the pelvis

A

Pelvic Kidney

47
Q

inflammation of the bladder; bladder infection

A

Cystitis

48
Q

distention of renal pelves and calyces with urine

A

Hydronephrosis

49
Q

massive enlargement of the kidney with the formation of many cysts

A

Polycystic Kidney

50
Q

increased BP to the kidneys

A

Renal Hypertension

51
Q

ballooning of the lower end of the ureter into the bladder; dilation of terminal ureter in the bladder

A

Ureterocele

52
Q

backward flow of urine from the bladder into the ureters

A

Vesicoureteral Reflux

53
Q

presence of one kidney as a result of renal agenesis, dysplasia, or removal

A

Solitary Kidney

54
Q

calculus filling the entire renal pelvis

A

Staghorn Calculus

55
Q

contrast entering blood flow in normal direction

A

antegrade

56
Q

contrast entering blood flow against normal flow

A

retrograde

57
Q

which study do you puncture directly into renal pelvis for contrast administration

A

percutaneous antegrade urography

58
Q

investigation of the renal pelvis and calyces

A

pyelography

59
Q

what is ureteral compressions used for

A

retard the flow of opacified urine into the bladder to ensure filling of renal pelves and calyces

60
Q

where is the ideal centering placement for the ureteral compressions

A

ASIS

61
Q

what is the respiration phase for examinations of the urinary tract

A

end of expiration

62
Q

exam that demonstrates structures and function of kidneys as contrast follows excretion route and contrast is filtered from blood

A

intravenous (excretory) urography

63
Q

possible contradictions for performing intravenous urography

A

asthma, previous contrast reaction, circulatory or cardio disease, elevated creatinine, sickle cell disease, diabetes, multiple myeloma

64
Q

what must the pt. do before IVU study?

A

empty bladder

65
Q

why might a postvoid radiograph be taken after an IVU?

A

check for small tumor masses, or enlarged prostates

66
Q

How long does it take for the greatest concentration of contrast of the kidney to occur (after injection)?

A

15-20 minutes

67
Q

What is the ‘blush’ stage on contrast in the kidney called?

A

nephrogram

68
Q

what size of IR for AP of the urinary system

A

14x17

69
Q

reason to image AP of the urinary system upright?

A

demonstrate opacified bladder and kidney mobility

70
Q

centering point for AP of the urinary system

A

iliac crests

71
Q

besides initial markers, what other marker should be used?

A

time marker

72
Q

for AP oblique urinary system, kidney closest to IR (down side) will be ______ to plane of IR

A

perpendicular

73
Q

for AP oblique urinary system, kidney farthest from IR (up side) will be ______ to plane of IR

A

parallel

74
Q

for AP oblique of urinary system, the MCP should form how many degree of an angle from IR

A

30

75
Q

CR enters where for the AP oblique of urinary system?

A

approx. 2 in. lateral to midline on elevated side at level of iliac crests

76
Q

The right kidney is in this position when a patient is place LPO for an AP projection of the urinary system.

A

parallel

77
Q

the right kidney is in this position when a patient is placed RPO for an AP projection of the urinary system

A

perpendicular

78
Q

This plane should be centered to the midline of the grid for a lateral projection of the urinary system

A

MCP

79
Q

for lateral projection of the urinary system, where should the CR enter?

A

level of iliac crests, perpendicular

80
Q

which projection of the urinary system shows conditions such as rotation or pressure displacement of a kidney and localizes mass/tumors

A

lateral

81
Q

most exams of these organs are done retrograde…hint: lower urinary tract

A

bladder, lower ureters, prostate, urethra

82
Q

AP axial bladder, voiding study, IR must be centered here

A

level of symphysis

83
Q

what degree and direction do you use for PA axial bladder

A

10-15 degrees, cephalic

84
Q

what degree and direction do you use for AP axial of the bladder

A

10-15 degrees, caudad

85
Q

CR point for PA axial bladder

A

1 in. distal to coccyx

86
Q

what collimation field size is used for bladder study

A

10x12

87
Q

how much pt. angulation is requireed for an AP oblique bladder

A

40-60 degrees

88
Q

This can be done on AP oblique bladder images when the neck of the bladder and the proximal urethra is of primary interest

A

10 degree caudal angulation to project pubic bones below

89
Q

which projection of the bladder will demonstrate anterior and posterior walls with base of the bladder

A

lateral

90
Q

anxiety can cause _______, making venipuncture more painful

A

vasoconstriction

91
Q

IV ____ can reduce risk of infection and rate of injection

A

IV filters

92
Q

3 parts of needle

A

hub, cannula/shaft, bevel

93
Q

what is the gauge = to in relation to the needle

A

diameter of needle bore

94
Q

with the gauge, the lower the #, the ____ the diameter

A

larger

95
Q

syringe size should be one size _____ than volume to be injected

A

larger

96
Q

four veins most often used for IV injection

A

anterior forearm
posterior hand
radial aspect of wrist
antecubital space of elbow

97
Q

how far above the injection site should the tourniquet be placed

A

6-8 in.

98
Q

what is the term meaning fluid has entered tissue instead of the vein

A

infiltration (extravasation)

99
Q

Name 2 severe s/s of an allergic reaction to iodinated contrast

A

Laryngeal edema, hypotension, shock, unresponsiveness, convulsions, cardiac arrest, respiratory arrest, arrhythmia

100
Q

A severe hypersensitivity reaction seen with bee stings, latex, and food allergies

A

Anaphlactic shock

101
Q

severe hypersensitivity, that may occur after a single exposure, usually to iodinated contrast media

A

anaphlactoid shock

102
Q

oldest form of contrast, ionizes in a solution, higher likelihood of reactions, inexpensive

A

HOCM = high-osmolar contrast media

103
Q

nonionic form of contrast that dissolves in water but doesn’t dissociate

A

LOCM = low-osmolar contrast media

104
Q

newest, nonionic for of contrast

A

IOCM = iso-osmolar contrast media

105
Q

how long should it take for contrast to be excreted from the body with normal kidney function

A

2 hours

106
Q

Name two drugs that should be available to patients experiencing an anaphlactoid reaction

A

Albuterol, Atropine, Benadryl, Epinephrine, Diazepam, Nitroglycerin

107
Q

what does BUN stand for

A

blood urea nitrogen; hydration status of pts.

108
Q

BUN levels range for an average adult

A

6-20 mg/dL

109
Q

what is creantinine levels determine?

A

proportional to muscle mass; determines renal function

110
Q

Creatinine levels range for average adult

A

0.6-1.3 mg/dL

111
Q

what does GFR stand for?

A

glomerular filtration rate

112
Q

GFR level for normal pt.

A

60+

113
Q

inflammation from extravastion reaches it’s peak w/in how many hours?

A

24-48 hrs.

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