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Psychology Test 4 > Test 4 > Flashcards

Test 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

Define personality:

A

unique and relatively stable ways in which people think, feel, and behave

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2
Q

Define character:

A

value judgments of a person’s moral and ethical behavior

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3
Q

Define Temperament:

A

enduring characteristics with which each person is born

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4
Q

What are four types of perspectives in personality studies?

A

Psychoanalytical
Behavioristic
Humanistic
Trait Perspectives

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5
Q

Social Cognitive theory is included in which perspective of personality study?

A

Behavioristic

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6
Q

Who is the founder of the Psychoanalytical approach?

A

Sigmund Freud

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7
Q

How many levels of personality does Freud believe we have?

A

3

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8
Q

What are the three parts of personality according to Freud?

A

Ego
Superego
ID

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9
Q

Freud’s view sees how many levels to the personality?

A

3

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10
Q

What are the three levels of personality?

A

Consciousness
Preconsciousness
Unconsciousness

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11
Q

Which level of consciousness are we unaware of its contents?

A

Unconscious level

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12
Q

The unconscious is a storehouse of what?

A

Repressed impulses
Drives
Conflicts unavailable to the consciousness

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13
Q

Why is the unconscious disguised?

A

to reduce anxiety

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14
Q

how is unconscious material revealed?

A

Dreams
Some certain behaviors
Slip of the tongue

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15
Q

What are the the different type of drive?

A

Eros
Libido
Thanatos

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16
Q

Define Eros:

A

drives people towards acts that are sexual, life-giving, and creative

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17
Q

What does Freud believe all we want to do?

A

have sex

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18
Q

True/False:

Freud believes everything in life has some type of sex drive behind it.

A

true

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19
Q

Define Libido:

A

drives people to experience sensual pleasures

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20
Q

Define Thanatos:

A

drives people toward aggressive and destructive behaviors

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21
Q

What is another name for Thanatos?

A

Death Drive

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22
Q

What is the Id known as?

A

the beast within

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23
Q

Describe the Id?

A

raw
organized
primative

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24
Q

The Id attempts to reduce tension caused by what?

A

the primitive primary drive

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25
Q

The Id operates off of what?

A

pleasure principle

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26
Q

“If it feels good, do it.” Describes what?

A

Pleasure principle

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27
Q

The Id demands what?

A

Instant gratification

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28
Q

Define ego:

A

the “executive” or decision-making part of the personality

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29
Q

Instant gratification in the ego is________

A

not always possible

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30
Q

What does ego balance?

A

basic desires with the objective reality of the outside world

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31
Q

What does ego operate off of?

A

Reality principle

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32
Q

Define reality principle:

A

need to satisfy the demands of the id only in ways that will not lead to negative consequences

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33
Q

Superego strives for_________

A

perfection

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34
Q

Superego is made of_______

A

“right and wrong” as defined by society

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35
Q

The conscience operates when we_______

A

do wrong

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36
Q

Ego-ideal is a picture of__________

A

perfection

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37
Q

Superego operates on what?

A

guilt principle

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38
Q

Is the superego realistic?

A

no

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39
Q

Stage approach to development says childhood is___________

A

important

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40
Q

Stage approach explains what?

A

how expereince during a particular stage predicts personality characteristics in adulthood

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41
Q

Freud said personality (psyche) developed as a result of____________

A

sexual development

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42
Q

Freud’s stages of personality focus on what?

A

sexual gratification

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43
Q

Define fixation:

A

getting stuck to some degree in a stage of Freud’s stages of development

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44
Q

What are the 5 stages of Freud’s Stages of Development?

A 
Oral
Anal
Phallic
Latency
Genital
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45
Q

What age group is in the Oral stage?

A

12-18 months

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46
Q

In the oral stage what causes pleasure?

A

sucking
mouthing
eating
biting

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47
Q

What may lead to fixation during the oral stage?

A

Overindulgence or deprivation

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48
Q

What are the danger zones in the Oral stage?

A

feeding
pacifiers
weaning

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49
Q

What age group is in the anal stage?

A

1 or 1 1/2 to 3

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50
Q

Where is pleasure derived from in the anal stage?

A

expelling and withholding feces

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51
Q

What stage is it best to do toilet training?

A

anal

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52
Q

Superego develops in what stage?

A

anal

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53
Q

Slobs or over-neat people could have experienced problems at which of Freud’s stages?

A

anal

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54
Q

What age group is the Phallic stage?

A

3-6

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55
Q

Pleasure is derived from what during the Phallic stage?

A

fondling with the genitals

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56
Q

The phalic stage is a ________ _________ point of development

A

very important

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57
Q

What complex develops during the Phallic stage?

A

Oedipus complex

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58
Q

Define the Oedipus complex:

A

sexual attraction to the parent of the opposite sex and jealousy of the other parent

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59
Q

Castration Anxiety and Penis envy occur during what stage?

A

Phallic

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60
Q

Define castration anxiety:

A

fear of loosing the penis

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61
Q

Define penis envy:

A

the want to have a penis

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62
Q

Define identification:

A

defense mechanism used to combat anxiety

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63
Q

In the Phallic stage identification is used as a result of _____

A

penis envy

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64
Q

Gender-role socialization happens in what stage?

A

phallic

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65
Q

The latency stage consist of what age group?

A

6-puberty

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66
Q

Latency stage contains no what?

A

interest in sexuality

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67
Q

Psychic energy is diverted to what during the latency stage?

A

education and other pursuits

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68
Q

What age group makes up the genital group?

A

adolescence-death

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69
Q

What type of relationships are established during this stage?

A

mature sexual relationships

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70
Q

Define defense mechanisms:

A

unconscious strategies to reduce neurotic anxiety

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71
Q

Define anxiety:

A

intense negative emotional experience

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72
Q

During anxiety the id does what?

A

threaten to become uncontrollable

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73
Q

Define denial:

A

refusal to recognize or acknowledge a threatening situation

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74
Q

Define repression:

A

pushing threatening or conflicting events or situations out of conscious memory

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75
Q

Define rationalization:

A

making up acceptable excuses for unacceptable behavior

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76
Q

Define projection;

A

placing one’s own unacceptable thoughts onto others, as if the thoughts belong to them

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77
Q

Define reaction formula:

A

forming an emotional reaction or attitude that is the opposite of one’s threatening or unacceptable actual thoughts

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78
Q

Define displacement:

A

expressing feelings that would be threatning if directed at the real target onto a less threatening substitute target

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79
Q

define regression:

A

falling back on childlike patterns as a way of coping with stressful situations

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80
Q

Define compensation:

A

trying to make up for areas in which a lack is perceived by becoming superior in some areas

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81
Q

Define sublimation:

A

turning socially unacceptable urges into socially acceptable behaviors

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82
Q

Freud’s theory on personality is impossible to ______

A

disprove

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83
Q

Current research has found support for what 2 parts of Freud’s theory?

A

defense mechanisms

unconsciousness influencing conscious behaviors

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84
Q

Some of Freud’s theory cannot be________

A

scientifically researched

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85
Q

Neo-Freudians were:

A

trained by Freud, but rejected some major points

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86
Q

Neo-Freudians had a greater emphasis on what?

A

ego

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87
Q

Neo-Freudians had less emphasis on what?

A

sex

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88
Q

Neo-Freudians gave more attention to what?

A

social factors on personality development

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89
Q

How long does personality development go on?

A

the entire lifespan

90
Q

Who were 5 popular Neo-Freudians?

A 
Jung
Adler
Erikson
Anna Freud
Karen Horney
91
Q

What were 3 things Jung focused on?

A

collective unconsciousness
archetypes
dream analysis

92
Q

Define collective unconsciousness:

A

memories of ancient fears and themes that seem to occur in many cultures

93
Q

Define archetypes:

A

collective, universal human memories

94
Q

What were 2 things Adler focused on?

A

Striving for superioty

Inferiority complex

95
Q

What did Erikson focus on?

A

Psychosocial stages of development (8 stages)

96
Q

Anna Freud and Karen Horney focused on what?

A

social and cultural factors

97
Q

Behaviorist define personality as what?

A

set of learned responses or habits

98
Q

Define Habits:

A

sets of well-learned responses that have become automatic

99
Q

Define social cognitive learning:

A

other people’s behavior and one’s own expectancies are important in development of personality

100
Q

Learning approach to personality includes:

A

anticipating
Judging
memory
imitation of models

101
Q

Cognitive learning consist of what 3 things:

A

locus of control
self-efficacy
Reciprocal Detrminism

102
Q

Define locus of control:

A

tendency for people to assume that they either have control or do not have control

103
Q

Define self-efficacy

A

person’s expectancy of how effective their efforts to accomplish a goal will be

104
Q

Define Reciprocal Determinism:

A

give-and-take relationship

105
Q

What does the Humanistis approach to personality say?

A

people are basically good, and tend to grow to higher levels of functioning

106
Q

What is the “third force” in the humanistic view?

A

focus on what makes humans unique

107
Q

Abraham Maslow theorized what?

A

self-actualization

108
Q

Define self-actualization:

A

striving for fullfillment

109
Q

What did Carl Rogers theorize?

A

fully functioning person

110
Q

“fully functioning person” has_________

A

unconditional positive regard

111
Q

A “fully functioning person” is___.

A

in touch with their own feelings and abilities and are able to trust their innermost urges and intuitions.

112
Q

Ancient philosophers believed in what and how many?

A

humors; 4

113
Q

Define humors:

A

bodily fluids that control personality by their relative abundance

114
Q

What are the 4 humors?

A

blood
black bile
Phlegm
Yellow Bile

115
Q

Define temperament:

A

basic, inherited personality dispositions that are apparent in early childhood and establishes the tempo and mood of an individual’s behavior

116
Q

Define trait:

A

consistent, enduring way of thinking, feeling, or behaving

117
Q

Trait theories attempt to do what?

A

predict future behavior by describing the characteristics that makes up a person’s personality

118
Q

Define surface traits:

A

personality traits easily seen by others

119
Q

Define source traits:

A

traits that underlie surface traits

120
Q

Introversion is a result of what?

A

shynes

121
Q

How are trait theories different than other theories?

A

they describe, but don’t explain why.

122
Q

What are the “5 big traits”?

A 
openness to experience
Conscientiousness 
extroversion
Agreeableness
Neuroticism
123
Q

What is a mnemonic to remember the big 5 traits?

A

OCEAN

124
Q

What type of research supports the Big 5 traits?

A

Cross-cultural research

125
Q

Define trait-situation interaction:

A

assumption that the particular circumstances of any given situation will influence the way in which a trait is expressed

126
Q

Biological approach to personality believes what?

A

important components of personality are inherited

127
Q

Define behavior genetics:

A

a field of study of the relationship between heredity and personality

128
Q

Biological theories of personality have ______ implications.

A

important

129
Q

Gene studies in behavior genetics__________

A

yield estimates only

130
Q

Nature vs. Nurture plays a big role in what theory of personality?

A

Biological theory

131
Q

What are 4 ways to assess personality?

A

Interview
Projective test
Behavioral assessment
Self-Report

132
Q

Define Halo effect:

A

first impressions has a huge impact on how people take you

133
Q

Interviews consist of what?

A

questions

134
Q

Who is more likely to use interviews?

A

Psychoanalysts

Humanistic Therapist

135
Q

What does Projective test consist of?

A

looking at ink blots

136
Q

Who is more likely to use projective test?

A

psychoanalysts

137
Q

What does a behavioral assessment consist of?

A

watching the subjects behavior in their natural settings

138
Q

Who is more likely to use behavioral assessments?

A

Behavioral therapist

Social Cognitive Therapist

139
Q

What is a self-report?

A

questonaire that has only yes and no questions

140
Q

Who is more likely to use a self-report?

A

Trait theorists

141
Q

Define eclectic;

A

therapist that use a combination of the methods

142
Q

What is the M.M.P.I.?

A

test honesty

shows ten different types of personality

143
Q

What are 3 major terms used in the legal model of mental disorders?

A

Insanity
Incompetence
Commitment

144
Q

What are 5 major terms used in the medical model of mental disorders?

A 
Illness
Disease
Symptoms
Hospital
Treatment
145
Q

What are three treatment types for mental disorders?

A

Medication
Surgery
Electroshock

146
Q

Define psychological disorder:

A

any pattern of behavior that causes people significant distress, causes them to harm others, or harms their ability to function in daily life.

147
Q

What 4 factors does psychological disorders effect?

A

biological
cognitive
social
behavioral

148
Q

What are 5 symptoms of mental disorders?

A 
Distress
Maladaptiveness
Irrationality
Unpredictability
Unconventional/undesirable behavior
149
Q

Some people’s mental disorders may cause others what?

A

Discomfort due to the bizarre behavior

150
Q

What are 3 major symptoms of mental disorders?

A

Hallucinations
Delusions
Severe Affective Disturbances

151
Q

What is the most widely used system to classify abnormal behavior?

A

DSM System

152
Q

How does the DSM system classify stuff?

A

by mental and behavioral symptoms

153
Q

DSM system describes, but what does it not do?

A

does not attempt to suggest underlying causes of behavior

154
Q

The DSM does what over time?

A

change

155
Q

Define anhedonia:

A

inability to experience pleasure

156
Q

Define anxiety disorder:

A

characterized by anxiety with no obvious external cause that impairs daily functioning

157
Q

How many types of anxiety are there?

A

4

158
Q

Define Phobic disorder:

A

intense irrational fear of specific objects or situations.

159
Q

Phobic disorders are only disruptive if____

A

cannot be avoided

160
Q

Generalization may occur in what sub-type of anxiety disorder?

A

Phobic

161
Q

Define Panic Disorder:

A

characterized by panic attacks, intense anxiety, no indentifiable stimulus

162
Q

Define agoraphobia:

A

fear of having panic attacks

163
Q

Define generizalation anxiety disorder:

A

Long-term persistent anxiety and worry. (Free-floating)

164
Q

What may result from generizalation anxiety disorder?

A

concentration problems

Medical Problems

165
Q

Define Obsessive Compulsive Disorder:

A

obsessions and compulsions that cause extreme axiety when prevented

166
Q

Obsessive Compulsive Diorder behavior may look _________

A

extremely bizarre

167
Q

Define Somatoform Disorder:

A

not psychosomatic illness

Psychological but takes physical form

168
Q

Does somatoform disorders have medical causes?

A

No

169
Q

Define Hypochondriasis;

A

constant fear of illness
proccupation with health
somatoform disorder

170
Q

How hard is hypochondiras to treat?

A

hard

171
Q

Define Conversion Disorder:

A

actual physical symptoms, but no physical cause

somatoform disorder

172
Q

Conversion disorder is often_______

A

very dramatic

173
Q

Conversion disorder follows what type of patterns?

A

unusual patterns

174
Q

“La belle indiference” means what?

A

Beautiful in Difference

175
Q

What is an example of conversion disorder?

A

Glove anesthesia

176
Q

Define dissociative disorder:

A

“fragmentation” of the personality

often bizarre

177
Q

Dissociative Identity Disorder is more commonly known as?

A

Multiple Personality Disorder

178
Q

Define Dissociative Identity Disorder:

A

a person with more than one distinct personality

very rare

179
Q

What are some of the differences in the personalities of a person with DID?

A

Likes
Dislikes
Memories
Medical Problems

180
Q

Define Dissociative Amnesia:

A

significant, selective memory loss of personal info

181
Q

What type of memory is lost in Dissociative Amnesia?

A

episodic memory

182
Q

Is Dissociative Amnesia physically caused?

A

no

183
Q

Define Dissociative Fugue:

A

when a person suddenly travels away from home and forgets how they got to their destination and forget personal info, even their name

184
Q

Define mood disorders:

A

disturbances in emotional feelings strong enough to interfere with everyday living

185
Q

Moods are _______ lasting than emotions.

A

longer

186
Q

How many people in the U.S. are affected by depression?

A

15 million

187
Q

Depression is also known as?

A

the common cold of psychiatry

188
Q

What percentage of people experience depression sometime during their life?

A

6-10%

189
Q

How many more woman then men experiences depression?

A

twice as many

190
Q

Depression is _______ world wide.

A

increasing

191
Q

Depression is not due to___________

A

any specific stressor

192
Q

How long does a depressed mood have to last before coming clinical depression?

A

2 weeks

193
Q

What type of symptoms does depression have?

A

physical
cognitive
emotional symptoms

194
Q

Define Bipolar disorders:

A

combines depression with upswings into mania

195
Q

When does Bipolar disorder begin?

A

late teens or early twenties

196
Q

Bipolar is caused by a ________

A

genetic link

197
Q

Define adjustment disorder with depressed mood:

A

looks similar to depression
lots of the same symptoms, not as many though
has a cause

198
Q

Define Dysthymia:

A

emotional unhappiness

can function with it normally

199
Q

Defien Cyclothymia:

A

hypomania

similar to bipolar but not as disruptive

200
Q

Define Schizophrenia:

A

thought disorder

means “split mind” between thought and feeling or thought and reality

201
Q

Schizophrenia has ________ symptoms.

A

positive/negative

Negative example: not taking a bath

202
Q

What are 5 symptoms of Schizophrenia?

A 
delusions
word salading
withdrawal
emotional disturbance
Perceptual disorder
203
Q

Decline in functioning may be a result of____

A

Schizophrenia

204
Q

A Schizophrenia process onset means what?

A

Schizophrenia slowly came to light

205
Q

A Schizophrenia reactive onset means what?

A

Schizophrenia comes on all of sudden

means Schizophrenia will be less severe

206
Q

Define a Disorganized (Hebephrenic) Schizophrenia:

A

immature
silly acting
flirtatious
giggle a lot

207
Q

Disorganized (Hebephrenic) Schizophrenia is more likely in________

A

women

208
Q

Define a Catatonic Schizophrenia:

A

changes in psychomotor movement:
some will freeze in mid motion and stay that way for hours and possibly days. then some will fail like a fish, kind of like a seizure

209
Q

Catatonic Schizophrenia is more likely in_____

A

men

210
Q

Define Paranoid Schizophrenia:

A

delusional thoughts

211
Q

Define Undifferentiated Schizophrenia:

A

some of all types of schizophrenia

212
Q

Define Residual Schizophrenia:

A

not a bad case of schizophrenia

213
Q

Define personality disorder:

A

chronic, pervasive, inflexible, and maladaptive pattern of thinking, emotion, social relationships, or impulse control

214
Q

Define antisocial personality disorder:

A

no conscious

215
Q

People with antisocial personality disorder may have__________

A

good or bad social skills

216
Q

People with antisocial personality disorder have a great need for what?

A

excitment

217
Q

People with which personality disorder are more likely to become criminals?

A

antisocial personality disorde

218
Q

Define Borderline Personality disorder:

A

right at having a major mental illness

219
Q

People with Borderline personality disorder are very likely to do what?

A

commit suicide in non lethal ways that look bizarre

220
Q

Define Narcissistic Personality Disorder:

A

self absorbed

Psychology Test 4 (1 decks)

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