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Hematology > Test 4 > Flashcards

Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about tumor markers?

a. They can be produced by the host as a response to tumors
b. They can be biologic substances synthesized by cancer
c. They can be detected in urine
d. Most tumor markers are inflammatory cytokines

A

Most tumor markers are inflammatory cytokines

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2
Q

(T or F) A genetic mutation can be considered a tumor marker.

A

T

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3
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of an ideal tumor marker?

a. Marker is cancer specific
b. Marker has a long half-life
c. Produced only once the tumor has metastasized
d. Maker stays within the tumor

A

Marker is cancer specific

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4
Q

Which is true when comparing tumor markers for screening purposes to other screening methods (PAP, colonoscopy, mammography)?

a. Tumor marker screening testing is sometimes more accessible for patients with barriers to healthcare
b. Currently available tumor marker testing tends to be more sensitive and specific
c. Tumor marker screening testing is invasive
d. Tumor marker screening testing tends to be more expensive

A

Tumor marker screening testing is sometimes more accessible for patients with barriers to healthcare

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5
Q

Rank the screening tests for colorectal cancer in order of increasing sensitivity and specificity.

a. gFOBT < FIT-DNA < FIT < Cologuard
b. Colonoscopy < FIT-DNA < FIT < gFOBT
c. FIT-DNA < FIT < gFOBT < colonoscopy
d. gFOBT < FIT < FIT-DNA < colonoscopy

A

gFOBT < FIT < FIT-DNA < colonoscopy

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6
Q

Which of the following is true about PSA (Prostate Specific Antigen)?

a. It is only produced when a tumor reaches stage 2
b. Current guidelines recommend PSA testing starting at 50yo
c. It is specific to prostate tumor cells
d. It can become elevated by bike riding

A

It can become elevated by bike riding

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7
Q

Why does ovarian cancer have such poor survival rates?

a. Presentation is vague and is often diagnosed after metastasis has occurred
b. It does not respond well to chemotherapeutic agents
c. It progresses rapidly
d. Females avoid screenings due to discomfort and privacy concerns

A

Presentation is vague and is often diagnosed after metastasis has occurred

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8
Q

Which of the following is true about CA125? (Multiple)

a. It is strongly associated with ovarian cancer
b. It is increased in many cancers
c. It is highly sensitive for early stage disease
d. It is a newly identified biomarker and noes not have much clinical use

A

It is increased in many cancers

It is strongly associated with ovarian cancer

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9
Q

Alpha fetoprotein is used

a. To screen all individuals over the age of 60 for hepatocellular carcinoma
b. To identify individuals at risk for developing hepatitis
c. To screen high risk populations for hepatocellular carcinoma
d. To test for treatment response

A

To screen high risk populations for hepatocellular carcinoma
To test for treatment response

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10
Q

Which grade of tumors grow and spread slowly?

a. All are correct
b. Undifferentiated
c. Well differentiated
d. Poorly differentiated
e. None are correct

A

Well differentiated

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11
Q

(T or F) The grading system for different tumor types is all the same.

A

F

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12
Q

Breast cancer is graded based on which of the following?

a. None are used
b. All are used
c. Mitotic rate
d. Tubule formation
e. Nuclear grade

A

All are used

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13
Q

Which cancer uses the Gleason score for tumor grading?

a. Ovarian cancer
b. Breast cancer
c. Liver cancer
d. Prostate cancer

A

Prostate cancer

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14
Q

(T or F) A prognosis is formed based solely on the tumor’s grade.

A

F

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15
Q

Which of the following is true about staging?

a. Description of the tumor is based on how abnormal the cells appear
b. Its a description of the degree of disease spread at diagnosis
c. It indicates how likely the cancer is to grow and spread
d. It provides a prognosis for the patient

A

Its a description of the degree of disease spread at diagnosis

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16
Q

Which of the following is used to determine stage of cancer?

a. Tumor size
b. Grade
c. Tumor spread
d. Tissue differentiation

A

Tumor size

Tumor spread

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17
Q

Which of the following is incorrect about the TNM staging?

a. T refers to the extent of the primary tumor
b. N refers to lymph node involvement
c. M refers to distant metastases
d. TNM staging is the only staging system

A

TNM staging is the only staging system

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18
Q

At which point in the workup can cancer be pathologically staged?

a. During history
b. With blood work
c. Surgical removal
d. Any time during the patient’s care

A

Surgical removal

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19
Q

Which of the following refers to the stage where abnormal cells are present, but only found in the original layer of cells

a. T0
b. Tis
c. Tx
d. T3

A

Tis

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20
Q

Which of the following refers to the stage with no regional lymph node involvement

a. N0
b. T0
c. Nx
d. Tx

A

N0

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21
Q

Which of the following refers to the stage of metastasis?

a. Mx
b. M0
c. M1
d. M5

A

M1

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22
Q

Which of the following variables do NOT affect staging?

a. Cell type
b. Tumor location
c. Mitotic rate
d. Tumor markers

A

Mitotic rate

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23
Q

What does the “y” before a TNM notation indicate?

a. Youth patients (<18 yo)
b. Restaging after a recurrence
c. Restaging after a neoadjuvant therapy
d. Youth patients (<5yo)

A

Restaging after a neoadjuvant therapy

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24
Q

What stage is used to indicate locally advanced tumor?

a. I
b. II
c. IV
d. III
e. 0

A

II and III

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25
Q

What stage is used to indicate cancer spread to distant sites or with concerning features?

a. I
b. III
c. 0
d. IV
e. II

A

IV

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26
Q

Stage prognosis is expressed through

a. QALYs
b. Months to live
c. Survival rates
d. DALYs

A

Survival rates

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27
Q

Survival rates

a. Give doctors an idea of who to treat and who not to treat
b. Give a general idea of how likely treatment will be successful
c. Give patients an idea of how long they have left to live
d. Give an accurate prediction of how successful treatment will be

A

Give a general idea of how likely treatment will be successful

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28
Q

Which of the following factors affect prognosis?

a. All of these can affect prognosis
b. Overall health and wellness
c. Age of diagnosis
d. Type of cancer

A

All of these can affect prognosis

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29
Q

Over what period of time to epithelial cancers develop?

a. Several months
b. Several days
c. Several years
d. None of these are correct (there is really no way of knowing)

A

Several years

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30
Q

What type of surgery is most frequently used to identify metastatic disease in gallbladder cancer?

a. Staging laparoscopy
b. Cholecystectomy
c. Cholecystitis

A

Staging laparoscopy

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31
Q

What stage are most gallbladder cancers at diagnosis?

a. T1
b. T4
c. T2
d. T3

A

T2

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32
Q

Which of the following staging systems is used in multiple myeloma?

a. All of these are used
b. TNM
c. None of these are used
d. International staging system (ISS)
e. Durie-Salmon Staging system

A

International staging system (ISS)

Durie-Salmon Staging system

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33
Q

How is the dynamic risk stratification system used?

a. Reclassify prognosis at each follow up
b. Reclassify stage at each follow up
c. Reclassify grade at each follow up
d. Determine patient’s risk for developing thyroid cancer

A

Reclassify stage at each follow up

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34
Q

Which of the following cancer types in not typically able to be staged?

a. Glioblastoma
b. Gallbladder cancer
c. Gastric cancer
d. All cancers can be staged

A

Glioblastoma

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35
Q

What is the median survival for people diagnosed with liver cancer?

a. 6-20 years
b. 20-30 months
c. 2-3 years
d. 6-20 months

A

6-20 months

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36
Q

What stage of liver cancer is associated with the best 5-year survival rate?

a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage 0
d. Stage III

A

Stage I

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37
Q

What types of staging are utilized in lung cancer?

a. Surgical
b. None of these
c. All of these
d. Autopsy
e. Clinical

A

All of these

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38
Q

Which of the following is NOT a clinical finding suggestive of metastatic disease?

a. Lymphadenopathy
b. Fever
c. Weight Loss
d. Bone tenderness

A

Fever

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39
Q

At what stage of pancreatic cancer growth is it determined to be unresectable?

a. Invasion into the superior mesenteric artery
b. Invasion into local tissue
c. In situ

A

Invasion into the superior mesenteric artery

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40
Q

Which percentage of patients with pancreatic cancer are candidates for pancreatectomy?

a. 30-35%
b. 15-20%
c. 20-25%
d. 25-30%

A

15-20%

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41
Q

What is the most valuable prognostic factor for pancreatic cancer?

a. Tumor size
b. Nodal status
c. Metastasis status
d. Tumor staging

A

Tumor staging

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42
Q

(T or F) The FIGO and AJCC staging systems for ovarian cancer focus on different items and should be used in different patient populations.

A

F

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43
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about Leser Trelat?

a. It appears as sudden, diffuse seborrheic keratosis
b. It can be indicative of a benign process
c. It can be associated with gastrointestinal malignancy
d. It is pathognomonic for gastric cancer

A

It is pathognomonic for gastric cancer

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44
Q

Which of the following is true concerning CA 19-9?

a. It is used as a screening tool for pancreatic cancer
b. It has no association with prognosis
c. It has high specificity and sensitivity for pancreatic cancer
d. It is used as a monitoring tool during chemotherapy

A

It has high specificity and sensitivity for pancreatic cancer

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45
Q

What is the main difference between a gFOBT and a FIT bowel test?

a. gFOBT is more expensive
b. gFOBT requires bowel prep
c. FIT requires medication and food restriction
d. FIT is a more sensitive exam with improved patient compliance

A

FIT is a more sensitive exam with improved patient compliance

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46
Q

What is a commonly used method to improve biopsies?

a. Fast your patient for 24 hours leading up to the procedure
b. Always have the patient under anesthesia
c. Use endoscopic ultrasound guided biopsy
d. Circle the lesion before performing surgery

A

Use endoscopic ultrasound guided biopsy

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47
Q

Which of the following is not a good candidate for biopsy?

a. Individuals with a history of autoimmune disease
b. Children under the age of 3
c. An individual fit for surgery with likely malignancy and retractable lesion
d. An elderly individual with a poor prognosis

A

An individual fit for surgery with likely malignancy and retractable lesion

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48
Q

The majority of neoplasms in the gallbladder are:

a. Lymphoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Sarcoma

A

Adenocarcinoma

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49
Q

X-rays are a _________________ modality.

a. No risk
b. Low risk
c. High risk
d. Moderate risk

A

Low risk

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50
Q

An endoscopy

a. Refers to insertion via a small surgical cut
b. Is ideal for visualization of gastric cancer
c. Helps to visualize external tissue
d. Uses a barium contrast dye

A

Is ideal for visualization of gastric cancer

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51
Q

When is it appropriate to use a PILLCAM2?

a. In patients older than 75 who can not tolerate colonoscopy
b. When a patient has had an incomplete colonoscopy
c. When an intestinal obstruction prevents a colonoscopy
d. After a colonoscopy is completed and further tumor assessment is warranted

A

When a patient has had an incomplete colonoscopy

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52
Q

Which of the following criteria suggests a malignancy during endoscopy?

a. Adhered
b. Movable
c. Smooth
d. Soft
e. Firm
f. Friable
g. Inflamed
h. Ulceration
i. Rough

A

Adhered
Firm
Friable
Ulceration

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53
Q

What is the benefit of laparoscopy?

a. Ability to directly visualize tissue
b. No risk of complications
c. Less invasive than most imaging techniques

A

Ability to directly visualize tissue

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54
Q

What is the preferred imaging for a patient with unexplained jaundice?

a. MRI of the abdomen
b. Transabdominal ultrasound
c. X-ray
d. CT scan

A

Transabdominal ultrasound

55
Q

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is useful if there is suspicion of:

a. Pancreatic cancer
b. Hepatitis
c. Intestinal obstruction
d. Choledochlithiasis

A

Pancreatic cancer

Choledochlithiasis

56
Q

What is the only method of breast cancer imaging that has been consistently been found to decrease breast cancer related mortality?

a. Breast ultrasound
b. Mammography
c. Clinical breast exam
d. Breast MRI

A

Mammography

57
Q

The three types of screen film mammography are screening, diagnostic and:

a. Therapeutic
b. Surveillance
c. Post-operative
d. Observational

A

Surveillance

58
Q

What is the most consistent mammographic feature of malignancy?

a. Cluster micro-calcification
b. Asymmetry
c. Density
d. Spiculated focal mass

A

Spiculated focal mass

59
Q

Patients with breast implants:

a. Are not able to receive mammography
b. Can expect mammography tests to have lower sensitivity but higher specificity
c. Do not require screening mammography after surgery

A

Can expect mammography tests to have lower sensitivity but higher specificity

60
Q

(T or F) Mammography is not typically performed on patients with breast reconstruction post-mastectomy.

A

T

61
Q

When is male mammography performed?

a. If a patient presents with a mass and pain
b. If the individual tests positive for the BRCA gene
c. Routinely every 10 years
d. If the individual has a family history of breast cancer

A

If a patient presents with a mass and pain

62
Q

What is the breast cancer screening recommendation for females with average risk?

a. Every 5 years starting from 50 to 75 years old
b. Every 2 years from 50-74 years old
c. Every 2 years starting at age 40 onward
d. Every year starting at age 50 onward

A

Every 2 years from 50-74 years old

63
Q

The amount of radiation from mammography is equal to:

a. 1 year of background radiation
b. 3 months of background radiation
c. 1 month of background radiation
d. 6 months of background radiation

A

3 months of background radiation

64
Q

What is the largest contraindication to using an MRI?

a. Age under 10
b. Diagnosed malignancy
c. Metal in the body
d. Allergy to contrast dye

A

Metal in the body

65
Q

A functional MRI (fMRI) measures:

a. Moving tissue
b. Anomalies in activity
c. Blood flow
d. Anomalies in tissue structure

A

Anomalies in activity

66
Q

MRI has ________ potential effect from radiation than a CT scan.

a. More
b. Less

A

Less

67
Q

Standard practice is most patients with stage II, III or IV Colorectal cancer (CRC) undergo chest, abdomen and pelvic CT”

a. Following resection
b. Both are true
c. Neither are true
d. Prior to resection

A

Both are true

68
Q

When is an abdominal CT the preferred imaging?

a. In a patient with RUQ pain radiating to the right shoulder
b. In a patient with epigastric pain and weight loss without jaundice
c. In a patient with a history of jaundice and pruritus
d. In a patient with lower abdominal pain and constipation

A

In a patient with epigastric pain and weight loss without jaundice

69
Q

How is a PET scan generally used?

a. To access for metastasis
b. To diagnose suspected malignancy
c. To determine the location of a primary tumor
d. To assess for osteoporosis

A

To access for metastasis

70
Q

Which cancer has the highest risk of developing associated with a genetic alteration?

a. Breast
b. Gastric
c. Colon
d. Prostate

A

Colon

71
Q

(T or F) Acquired (somatic) mutations can be passed onto offspring.

A

F

72
Q

(T or F) Germline mutations are present in every cell in the body

A

T

73
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of hereditary cancer?

a. High rates of metastasis
b. High risk of multiple primary cancers
c. Early identification and prevention is key
d. Multiple family members affected

A

High rates of metastasis

74
Q

Genetic testing

a. Identifies genes susceptible to cancer
b. Is referred when an individual has more than one primary cancer
c. Looks for one mutation at a time
d. Can only be done with blood samples

A

Is referred when an individual has more than one primary cancer

75
Q

Males with BRCA 1 and 2 mutations have an established association of developing

a. Breast cancer
b. Prostate cancer
c. Pancreatic cancer
d. Colon cancer
e. Testicular cancer

A

a. Breast cancer
b. Prostate cancer
c. Pancreatic cancer

76
Q

An inherited gene is most likely in a female who has

a. A father with prostate cancer and two sisters with breast cancer
b. Both grandmothers and a mother with breast cancer
c. Several cousins with ovarian and breast cancer
d. A father with colon cancer and a mother with breast cancer

A

a. A father with prostate cancer and two sisters with breast cancer

77
Q

Which BRCA gene mutation has a greater impact on the risk of developing breast cancer?

a. BRCA 2
b. BRCA 1

A

b. BRCA 1

78
Q

Identification and assessment of a genetic mutation through testing aids in cancer treatment when

a. The type of mutation guides the chemotherapeutic efficacy
b. Mutations are associated with metastasis patterns and prophylactic radiation can be performed on the tissue
c. Patients with high-risk mutations refuse treatment
d. Clarifying between primary and secondary cancers

A

The type of mutation guides the chemotherapeutic efficacy

79
Q

(T or F) Colon cancer develops from a single mutation .

A

F

80
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four mismatch repair genes associated with Lynch syndrome?

a. EPCAM
b. MLH1
c. MSH6
d. PMS2

A

EPCAM

81
Q

Lynch syndrome is associated with an increased risk of developing

a. Gastric cancer
b. Prostate cancer
c. Colorectal cancer
d. Endometrial cancer

A

Colorectal cancer

82
Q

Which is not associated with an increased risk of thyroid cancer?

a. KRAS
b. EGFR
c. RAS
d. BRAF

A

KRAS

83
Q

Most gene mutations related to prostate cancer are

a. Acquired
b. Inherited

A

Acquired

84
Q

Which of the following is associated with the greatest risk of pancreatic cancer?

a. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
b. History of breast and ovarian cancer
c. Lynch syndrome
d. Hereditary pancreatitis

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

85
Q

Which mutation has the largest impact on the risk for stomach cancer?

a. GS
b. MSI
c. EBV
d. CIN

A

CIN

86
Q

Which type of melanoma has the highest frequency of occurrence?

a. CSD (chronic sun-induced damage)
b. Acral
c. Mucosal
d. Non-CSD (chronic sun induced damage)

A

Non-CSD (chronic sun induced damage)

87
Q

EGFR appears in _________% of non-small-cell lung carcinomas?

a. 50%
b. 10-20%
c. 2-5%
d. 70-80%

A

10-20%

88
Q

How are genetic tests generally taken for lung cancer?

a. From salivary samples
b. From biopsy samples
c. From urine samples
d. From blood samples

A

From biopsy samples

89
Q

What genetic mutation is most associated with lung cancer?

a. KRAS
b. EGFR
c. ALK
d. Unknown

A

Unknown

90
Q

MTHFR 677TT genotype is related to a 2-fold increased risk of

a. AMP
b. ALL
c. CLL
d. CML

A

ALL

91
Q

(T or F) The “Philadelphia chromosome” present in CML is a germline mutation.

A

F

92
Q

(T or F) JAK2 mutation is mostly found in essential thrombocytosis and rarely found in polycythemia vera.

A

F

93
Q

(T or F) MTHFR is highly associated with a number of diseases and is often tested for in clinical practice.

A

F

94
Q

What is the ultimate goal of germline testing?

a. To identify at risk individuals
b. To assist with diagnosis
c. To determine who will develop cancer
d. To understand cancer epidemiology

A

To identify at risk individuals

95
Q

Which of the following is NOT a situation which ASCO recommends genetic testing?

a. A personal or family suggests a genetic cause of cancer
b. A test will clearly show a specific genetic change
c. The results will help with a diagnosis of with the management of a condition
d. An individual has concerns about passing on a germline mutation

A

An individual has concerns about passing on a germline mutation

96
Q

When should genetic counseling occur?

a. Both before and after genetic testing
b. Before genetic testing
c. Whenever a patient has questions
d. After genetic testing

A

Both before and after genetic testing

97
Q

(T or F) Providing a family pedigree is a component of the pre-test genetic counseling.

A

T

98
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the potential results of genetic testing?

a. Positive for mutation
b. Positive for variant of unknown significance
c. Inconclusive
d. Negative for variant of unknown significance

A

Negative for variant of unknown significance

99
Q

A negative result on a genetic test is most helpful when

a. An individual has a past history of cancer
b. An individual does not know their family history
c. Cancer is unresponsive to current treatments
d. There is a known gene mutation in the family

A

There is a known gene mutation in the family

100
Q

(T or F) Cancer cells can develop drug resistance.

A

T

101
Q

What is the target of most antineoplastic medications?

a. RNA replication and cell division
b. DNA replication and cell division
c. cell wall
d. nutrient absorption

A

DNA replication and cell division

102
Q

What is tumor lysis syndrome treated with?

a. Antibiotics and IV fluids
b. Chemotherapeutics
c. Allopurinol and IV fluids
d. Gabapentin

A

Allopurinol and IV fluids

103
Q

Drug resistance and be decreased by using _______________, administered at the _________________ dose possible.

a. Multiple chemotherapeutic drugs; highest
b. Multiple chemotherapeutic drugs; lowest
c. A single chemotherapeutic drug; highest
d. A single chemotherapeutic drug; lowest

A

Multiple chemotherapeutic drugs; highest

104
Q

Which adverse effect is specific to cyclophosphamide?

a. GI upset
b. Fatigue
c. Hemorrhagic cystitis
d. Neurotoxicity

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis

105
Q

Which topoisomerase inhibitor is nicknamed “the red devil”

a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Doxorubicin
c. 5-fluorouracil
d. Doxil

A

Doxorubicin

106
Q

Which of the following is a folate analog that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?

a. 5-fluorouracil
b. Methotrexate
c. Cyclosporin
d. Corticosteroids

A

Methotrexate

107
Q

Which adverse effect is specific to cisplatin?

a. Hemorrhagic cystitis
b. Neurotoxicity
c. Cardiotoxicity
d. GI upset

A

Neurotoxicity

108
Q

(T or F) Homeopathy is safe and effective to use with cancer patients undergoing treatment with chemotherapy drugs.

A

f

109
Q

Which of the following is NOT a role of homeopathy in cancer patient care?

a. Improve response to treatment
b. Increase vitality
c. Treatment of cancer
d. Symptom and side effect palliation

A

Treatment of cancer

110
Q

When using a remedy to address nausea, which of the following remedy and potency would be the most appropriate choice?

a. Tabacum 12C
b. Lycopodium 30 C
c. Cocculus 200C
d. Sepia 30C

A

Tabacum 12C

111
Q

(T or F) Giving a constitutional remedy to a patient will result in more profound responses than treating symptomatically.

A

T

112
Q 
Which of the following is not a keynote of Carbo Vegetabilis?
a. Weakness
b. Bloating and gas
c. Runs hot
d .Air hunger
A

Runs hot

113
Q

When treating a terminal patient who has fears and anxiety around death, what remedy is most considered?

a. Sulphur
b. Arsenicum Album
c. Aconite
d. Phosphorus

A

Arsenicum Album

114
Q

Which of the following is not a keynote of Sulphur?

a. Burning pains
b. Insomnia
c. Symptoms better with heat
d. Egotism and haughtiness

A

Symptoms better with heat

115
Q

Each person has approximately _________ tumors developing within them at any time.

a. 1-2
b. 15-20
c. 2000+
d. 50-100

A

15-20

116
Q

What distinguishes tumor cells from “self”?

a. Tumors do not have the same DNA as “self”
b. Tumors often display the same antigens as microbes
c. Tumors are not distinguished from “self”, which is why they evade the immune system
d. Tumors have mutation producing “neo-antigens” and danger signals

A

Tumors have mutation producing “neo-antigens” and danger signals

117
Q

Macrophages produce which tumor killing cytokines?

a. IL-1
b. GSF
c. TNF-alpha
d. TGF-beta

A

TNF-alpha

118
Q

Which response is specific to tumors?

a. Th2
b. Treg
c. Th1
d. Th17

A

Th1

119
Q

Which of the following is true about tumor antigens?

a. The immune system has a general response to tumors
b. Tumors change antigens over time
c. Tumors generally present the same type of “malignancy” antigen, regardless of location within the body
d. Tumors have specific and variable antigens

A

Tumors have specific and variable antigens

120
Q

In the experiment presented on cancer immunology, cancer develops in the irradiated mouse but not in the the mouse without radiation exposure. What does this tell us?

a. The tumor was killed by irradiation
b. The tumor injected into the mouse was live, not dead
c. Irradiation likely caused the cancer
d. The immune system plays a significant role in tumor suppression

A

The immune system plays a significant role in tumor suppression

121
Q

Necrosis is:

a. Silent cell death
b. Capable of stimulating an immune response
c. Part of the normal cell cycle
d. An inflammatory cell death

A

An inflammatory cell death

Capable of stimulating an immune response

122
Q

Immune response to tumors is generated in

a. The nearest lymph node
b. The bone marrow
c. The thymus
d. The spleen

A

The nearest lymph node

123
Q

IN regards to cancer, how is IFN-gamma production blocked?

a. The tumor produces TGF-beta
b. Tumor angiogenesis prevents the body from producing other proteins
c. Overproduction of IFN-gamma in the presence of cancer leads to a negative feedback loop
d. The body produces an inflammatory response, shutting down the immune response

A

The tumor produces TGF-beta

124
Q

Which of the following statements about hTERT is FALSE?

a. It allows tumor cells to extend their life cycle longer than healthy cells
b. All tumor cells have this mutation
c. It stands for Human Telepathic Enzymes Reverse Transcriptase
d. Drugs targeting this mutation may impact stem cells

A

It stands for Human Telepathic Enzymes Reverse Transcriptase

125
Q

What is a side-effect of chemotherapeutic agents targeting MAGE-1?

a. Male sterilization
b. Brain damage
c. Vertigo
d. Skin lesions

A

Male sterilization

126
Q

How did Dr. Cooley induce fever?

a. None of these are correct
b. Placed the patient next to a fire
c. Wrapped the patients in blankets
d. Injected dead bacteria into the patient
e. Each of these is correct

A

Each of these is correct

127
Q

Which of the following cytokines is not induced by Cooley’s toxin?

a. IL-5
b. TNF alpha
c. IFN gamma
d. IL-1

A

IL-5

128
Q

What factor limits the use of Dr. Cooley’s method for treating cancer?

a. Not reliable
b. Not safe
c. Not regulatable
d. Not effective against cancer in vivo

A

Not regulatable

129
Q

What is the main concern with injecting tumors with CD86 plasmids?

a. Causing bacterial infections
b. Causing immune suppression
c. Triggering autoimmunity
d. Triggering a cytokine storm

A

Triggering autoimmunity

130
Q

In Ralph Steinman’s method of delivering CD86 to the tumors, at what location were dendritic cells exposed to the tumor cells?

a. In vitro
b. In the lymph nodes
c. In the bone marrow
d. In the spleen

A

In vitro

131
Q

(T or F) Steinman’s method is just as effective as second-line therapy after patients have gone through chemotherapy.

A

F

132
Q

Which of the following receptors do checkpoint inhibitors work on CD-8 T cells?

a. CD28
b. CTLA-4
c. CD4
d. MHC 2

A

CTLA-4

133
Q

What do PD-1 inhibitors do?

a. Block tumors from killing T cells
b. Provide antibodies targeting tumor cells for killing
c. Block tumors from deactivating T cells
d. Prevent tumors from activating T cells

A

Block tumors from killing T cells

134
Q

Which pairing leads to a net positive T cell signal?

a. CD87 and CD28
b. Each of these is true
c. CD87 and CTLA-4
d. MHC and TCR
e. None of these is true

A

CD87 and CD28

Hematology (8 decks)

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