Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Medications that effect that kidneys

A

NSAIDS
COX-Inhibitors
ACE Inhibitors
ARBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Flank pain on patient finding often suggests

A

kidney stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Renal labs

A

urinalysis
serum creatinine
BUN (less)
GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

GFR

A

Most accurate predictor of kidney disease.

Patient is given a marker that will clear through the glomerular system and measured. Done by a nephrologist.

Hardly used- in hospital, estimated GFR is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When should you consider a GFR?

A
  • Extremes of age and body size
  • Severe malnutrition or obesity
  • Disease of skeletal muscle
  • Paraplegia/quadriplegia
  • Vegetarian Diet
  • Rapidly changing kidney function
  • Pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How to diagnose acute renal failure?

A

Serum creatinine

pre-renal - due to n/v and volume depletion
intrarenal - disease process
post-renal - stone, BPH, blocked ureter or urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is creatinine clearance?

A

the measurement used to adjust drug dosages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When do you collect a 24-hr urine?

A

When you want to see more of the whole picture.

Done for:

  • Hematuria
  • Kidney stones
  • Pheochromocytoma (tumor of adrenal glands)
  • Uncontrolled HTN
  • Preeclampsia
  • Kidney disease
  • Multiple myeloma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can be seen on renal ultrasound

A
  • hydronephrosis (swelling of kidney from build up of urine)
  • urine flow
  • differentiates the renal cortex from renal medulla
  • differentiates cysts from masses
  • can see stones

can be done at the bedside and avoids contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what can be seen on a KUB

A

Kidney, ureters, and bladder
-calcifications, stones, neoplasms, tumors, air, soft tissue changes

if the psoas muscle or renal outline is obscured- infection? inflammation? tumor?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CT scan for kidneys

A

watch out on ordering dye

check creatinine, check medications (no metformin), dehydration, allergies, diabetes?, renal disease history, multiple myeloma.

must hydrate before contrast and after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MRA w/o contrast can visualize what?

A
  • renal artery stenosis
  • mapping of vascular anatomy for surgery/procedures
  • assessing previous transplant grafts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MRA w/ gadolinium contrast

A

may cause nephrogenic system fibrosis and renal failure

don’t use on patients in AKI

if used on patient on PD or HD, dialyze immediately after testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Contrast nephropathy

A

Occurs after any test with contrast. Greatest risk in patient with existing renal disease or diabetes.

defined as increases in creatinine >25-50% or by 0.5-1.0mg/dL

rises over 1-2 days, peaks 4-7 days, normalizes 10-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Renal biopsy performed for?

A
  • AKI with no explanation
  • Nephrotic syndrome
  • Persistent proteinuria
  • Hematuria
  • Confirming a disease
  • Transplant rejection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Contraindications to renal biopsy

A
  • Sepsis
  • Uncontrolled HTN
  • Hemorrhagic diathesis
  • Parenchymal infection or malignancy
  • Solitary or horseshoe kidney
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do you look at on the urinalysis to diagnose UTI

A
Nitrites
Leukocyte esterase
WBCs
Casts
Bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Types of UA testing

A

1) Dipstick
2) Microanalysis - more accurate, ID protein problems better
3) 24 hour urine - renal secretion over 24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Urine sample sitting out for >1hr causes:

A
  • Increased acidity
  • Casts dissolve
  • Microorganisms grow
  • Ketones and bilirubin decreases

dehydration, fluid overload, food, and medication can give false results and affect UA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Normal urine acid level

A

4.5-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Normal urine specific gravity

A

1.003 - 1.030

concentrated = >1.020
diluted = <1.005
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Normal protein level in UA

A

150mg/24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Overhydrations effect on protein in urine

A

will decrease protein levels in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dehydration effect on protein in urine

A

will increase protein levels in urine

along with contrast dye, stress, infection, and heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Dipstick UA positive for high protein at what level
300-500 mg/day
26
microalbuminuria should be ordered on which patients
diabetic
27
Urine protein 150-300 mg
could be tubular or glomerular, overflow of proteinuria. To determine which, protein electrophoresis should be ordered.
28
>300 mg urine protein
glomerular proteinuria
29
>350mg urine protein
nephrotic syndrome
30
Most common cause for glucose in urine
diabetes less common = fanconi's syndrome and multiple myeloma
31
Ketones are commonly present in what population
pregnant women
32
Nitrites
secreted by gram negative bacteria - indicative of UTI. false negative if patient having UTI with gram positive bacteria or yeast which do not secrete nitrites
33
Leukocyte esterase
2nd most common marker for UTI positive in the presence of WBCs, but can have false positive if urine has been sitting out too long. negative result with clinical signs and symptoms would prompt you to follow up with microscopic analysis and culture
34
RBC presence in urine
hematuria requires follow up. damage to the kidney or stone = darker bladder cancer = bright red
35
WBC presence in urine
pyuria is associated with infection (>10 WBCS/mm3) can also be indicative of non-infectious causes- stone, tumor, foreign bodies. WBCs can lysis if sitting out too long Casts of WBCs represent pyelonephritis
36
RBC casts
indicated bleeding in the kidneys- usually glomerulus or tubule. Often glomerulonephritis
37
Bacterial casts
indicates acute pyelonephritis
38
Epithelial casts
can be benign- associated with tubular necrosis
39
Bacteria in urinalysis
>100,000 is usually significant urine can be colonized and not infected
40
Causes of delirium and confusion
a medical condition, substance intoxication, withdrawal, or medication side effect characterized by disturbances of consciousness with reduced ability to focus, sustain, or shift attention
41
Triad of acute bacterial meningitis
Fever >38 degrees C Nuchal rigidity AMS (Hypothermia in a small percentage)
42
Lumbar puncture results for bacterial meningitis
- WBCS : 1,000-5,000 cells/mL (percentage of neutrophils usually >80%) - Protein : >200mg/dL - Glucose : <40 mg/dL
43
Lab work to obtain for meningitis
CBC, blood cultures, lumbar puncture (crucial), and consider CT if a mass or high ICP suspected
44
Clinical features of bells palsy
- sudden onset of unilateral facial paralysis - eyebrow or mouth drooping - inability to close eye - altered or loss of taste on 2/3 of tongue - altered lacrimal and salivary galnd secretions
45
Tests for bells palsy
CT, MRI, serological test for Lyme disease
46
Diagnosing carpal tunnel
- Nocturnal pain or paresthesia in the distribution of the median nerve - Nerve conduction studies (NCS) - Electromyography (EMG) = used to exclude other conditions such as neuropathy - Pain or paresthesia in first three digits and the radial half of the fourth digit
47
Guillain Barre clinical features
progressive, mostly symmetric muscle weakness with absent or depressed deep tendon reflexes - can progress to complete paralysis with severe respiratory muscle weakness requiring ventilator
48
Guillain Barre assessment
weakness usually starts in the legs facial palsy oropharyngeal weakness oculomotor weakness decreased or absent reflexes in arms or legs
49
Diagnosing Guillain Barre
Electrodiagnostic studies is useful in confirming diagnosis and classifying which type Lumbar puncture (in all patients) - increased CSF protein with normal WBCs Albuminocytological dissociation in first week and >75% in 3 weeks HIV would be alternative diagnosis but WBC count >50
50
Tension headache
most common headache type
51
Signs of non-emergent headache
- age <50 yrs - history of similar headaches and features are typical - no abnormal neurological findings - no concerning change in usual headache presentation - no high risk comorbidities - no new finding on history or exam
52
"SNOOP" red flags for headaches
S - systemic symptoms N - neurological symptoms O - onset is new (>50yr) or sudden (thunderclap) O - other associated conditions or features P - previous headache history progressing or changing
53
Diagnostics for headache
MRI is preferred for headache
54
parkinsons affects which age group
progressive neurodegenerative disease uncommon <40 years old commonly >60 years with median being 70
55
manifestations of parkinsons
1) craniofacial - masked facial expression, hypophonia 2) visual - eyelid drooping 3) musculoskeletal - stooped posture, micrographic (handwriting becomes smaller as writing continues) 4) gait - shuffling, short steps, freezing, etc 5) nonmotor - psychosis, depression, anxiety, fatigue, sleep changes, pain and sensory disturbances
56
diagnosing parkinsons
based on clinical symptoms - tremor - bradykinesia (slow movements) - rigidity - postural instability
57
seizure definition
electric hyper-synchronization in the neuronal networks in the cerebral cortex for a first seizure, goal is to determine if it was a seizure and determine if it is correctable or could be epilepsy
58
define symptomatic seizure
those that occur in the setting of acute medical illness (hypoglycemia or hyponatremia) or neurological illness/injury (stroke, TBI, meningitis, encephalopathy)
59
diagnosing a seizure
history, physical, neurological exam along with tests that identify the cause lab studies (CBC, CMP, electrolytes, kidney and liver function) urinalysis and toxicology screen
60
Preferred testing to diagnose seizure
MRI with or without contrast secondary = CT EEG is important when impaired sensorium is persistent Lumbar puncture if process may be infectious in nature EKG?
61
Why is determining type of stroke important
acute ischemic strokes are candidates for IV thrombolytics or thrombectomy bleeds are not
62
imaging for stroke
**Noncontrast CT guide acute therapy
63
tests for stroke
glucose, CBC (note the platelets), troponin, PT/INR, PTT, clotting factors and Xa. serum electrolytes, LFTs, toxicology screen, etoh level, pregnancy test, ABG, CXR, EEG if seizures are suspected
64
what are most subarachnoid hemorrhages caused from?
rupture of saccular aneurysm
65
symptoms of subarachnoid hemorrhages
sudden, severe headache "worst in my life"
66
testing for subarachnoid hemorrhages
1) noncontrast CT 2) lumbar puncture if CT normal but still suspecting SAH. Lumbar puncture will have elevated opening pressure and elevated RBC count in all tubes
67
Gold standard for treating cerebral aneurysm
Formal 4 Vessel cerebral angiogram to coil the aneurysm
68
what is NPH?
normal pressure hydrocephalus. enlarged ventricle size with normal pressure found in lumbar puncture. NOT obstructive or non-communicating hydrocephalus which block the CSF
69
classic triad of NPH
1) Cognitive impairment (dementia) 2) Gait disturbances (THE predominant finding) 3) urinary incontinence (or hesitancy)
70
is NPH reversible?
yes, with ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt
71
what can occur if NPH is not identified quickly?
patients develop 1) alzheimers disease 2) neurodegenerative dementia within several years of shunt placement
72
causes of secondary NPH
- subarachnoid hemorrhage | - meningitis
73
how to diagnose NPH
early identification of classic triad 1) cognitive impairment 2) gait disturbances ***** (is more prominent early on and should be the predominant clinical finding) 3) urinary incontinence or hesitancy
74
first test for NPH
***MRI = essential first test for NPH, indicating ventricular megalyopathy with no evidence of CSF obstruction good prognosis = enlarged subarachnoid space with hydrocephalus poor prognosis = extensive white matter disease and cortical atrophy
75
After MRI, how do you test and treat NPH?
1) Lumbar Puncture - LP helps identify patient that will respond positively to a shunt placement. If test results are positive, this indicates a shunt should be placed. 2) VP shunt - placed if patient has clinical symptoms, MRI, and positive LP test
76
What is NEXUS?
National Emergency X-Radiography Utilization Study a set of validated criteria used to decide which trauma patients do not require cervical spine imaging.
77
What is the NEXUS criteria?
Trauma patients who do not require cervical spine imaging require all of the following: - alert and stable - no focal neurologic deficit - no altered level of consciousness - not intoxicated - no midline spinal tenderness - no distracting injury
78
What is the Canadian C-Spine Rules?
a set of guidelines that help a clinician decide if cervical spine imaging is not appropriate for a trauma patient in the emergency department. The patient must be alert and stable. There are 3 rules with high risk criteria and low risk criteria
79
What is the high risk criteria for Canadian C-Spine Rules?
is there any high-risk factor present that requires cervical spine imaging? 1) ≥65 years 2) a dangerous mechanism: fall from elevation >3 ft (or 5 stairs), axial load to the head, high-speed motor vehicle collision (e.g. >100 km/hr or ~60 mph, rollover, ejection), motorized recreational vehicles, bicycle collision 3) paresthesias in extremities If any high-risk factor is present, then cervical spine imaging is warranted.
80
What is the low risk criteria for Canadian C-Spine Rules?
is there any low-risk factor present? 1) simple rear-end motor vehicle collision (excludes being hit by a high-speed vehicle, a large vehicle (e.g. bus) or rollover) 2) sitting position in emergency department 3) ambulatory at any time since the injury 4) delayed onset of neck pain 5) absence of midline C-spine tenderness If the patient does not meet the criteria of a low-risk injury, then cervical spine imaging is warranted.
81
What if patient meets low risk criteria for Canadian C-Spine Rules?
If the patient meets the criteria of a low-risk injury, then one should assess on physical exam whether the patient can rotate the neck 45°. if low-risk injury and the patient can rotate the neck 45° = no cervical spine imaging required if low-risk injury and the patient cannot rotate the neck 45° = then cervical spine imaging is warranted
82
Scholarly article results comparing NEXUS and CCS Rules
This study showed that the two guidelines have the same sensitivity for evaluating which trauma patients need to undergo radiography. It seems that the NEXUS guidelines have the same effectiveness as CCR for determining which trauma patients need to undergo radiography. NEXUS also perform better than CCR guidelines in terms of ruling out which cases need no further radiologic investigation.
83
shoulder pain can be what two things?
1) intrinsic - specific to the shoulder | 2) referred - from neck, chest, abdomen
84
if shoulder pain has been present for less than two weeks consider what diagnoses?
trauma, fracture, dislocation, fall this is acute pain
85
what do you consider with chronic shoulder pain consider what diagnoses?
- rotated cuff injury - impingement syndrome - nerve impinged - adhesive capsulitis - osteoarthritis
86
if shoulder pain is referred what diagnoses do you consider?
- neural impingement at cervical spine - peripheral nerve entrapment (distal to spine) - diaphragmatic irritation (spleen laceration, infection, perforated viscous, ruptured ectopic pregnancy)
87
Which articular surface of shoulder is often associated with arthritis?
glenohumeral
88
If you can perform active and passive range of motion in the shoulder, you know that the diagnosis is not what?
related to the bones (i.e. fractures)
89
What is a Kehrs sign?
left shoulder pain felt when patient is lying flat and legs are elevated. indicative of spleen injury- referred pain
90
If capillary refill is delayed, this is indicative of what?
impingement injury
91
diagnostic tests for shoulder injury
1) shoulder series xrays (many views), but obtain at minimum 2 views 2) MRI - visualize better but not definitive 3) US - equal to MRI 4) a lidocaine test would determine if the patient would respond to injection of steroids
92
labs for diagnosing shoulder injury
CBC = look for infection | Sedimentation rate = look for inflammation
93
possible differentials for hand injury
1) degenerative arthritis (OA) 2) inflammatory arthritis (RA, psoriatic arthritis, lupus, gout) 3) joint infection/viral illness (parvovirus, lyme, septic joint, strep) 4) carpal tunnel
94
morning stiffness lasting more than 60 minutes is indicative of what
an inflammatory process
95
the metacarpal joints and wrists are painful in which disease
rheumatoid arthritis RA is usually symmetrical presenting RA affects more knuckles and wrists
96
distal interphalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints are painful in which disease
osteoarthritis OA is usually asymmetrical presenting OA affects more finger tips and distal end of hand
97
Rheumatoid arthritis clinical presentation
- symmetrical hand pain - hair loss - chest pain - fever, weight loss, fatigue - can form in any joint but mostly hands, feet, wrists, spines, knees, jaws - joint is usually warm
98
Systemic Lupus clinical presentation
hand pain PLUS - hair loss - chest pain - fever, weight loss, fatigue - abdominal pain - N/V/D - personality changes - **malar rash "butterfly rash" on cheeks, and photosensitive rashes "I'm allergic to the sun"
99
Reiter's Disease clinical presentation
hand pain PLUS - conjunctivitis - urethral discharge - urethritis
100
Lyme disease clinical presentation
hand pain PLUS - annular red plaque - neurological issues
101
Psoriatic arthritis clinical presentation
Hand pain PLUS | -psoriatic plaques on the hands
102
Uveitis, temporal arteritis clinical presentation
hand pain PLUS | -eye pain and vision loss
103
Sjorgen's clinical presentation
Hand pain PLUS | -dry mouth
104
Parovirus B19 (Fifths disease)
usually in children - painful joints - mild rash, "slap cheek rash"
105
Diagnostics for hand issues
1) xrays - look for joint disease and arthritis 2) rheumatoid factor - positive in 85% w/ RA, but nonspecific to RA and also false negatives can occur 3) anti-citrullinated protein antibody test (CCP) - specific to RA, present in 50-80% 4) antinuclear antibodies - present in RA and systemic lupus 5) C-reactive protein (CRP) - nonspecific indicating inflammation 6) Sed rate - nonspecific indicating inflammation
106
Other diagnostic tests for hand issues
CBC - infection CMP - renal, liver problems (medications can cause issues) UA - proteinuria and RBC casts may be positive in Systemic lupus Lyme titer Parovirus antibodies
107
IgM indicates
acute infection still present Ig"M" = think miserable, patient feels miserable
108
IgG indicates
infection is gone and antibodies have developed Ig"G" = gone, infection is gone
109
American College of Rheumatology Classification for RA
Helps diagnose RA - must have 6 out of 10 points to diagnose according to criteria looks at: - Joint involvement (6-10 = RA) - Serology (RF and CCP antibodies) - Acute Phase Reactants (CRP and ESR) - Duration of symptoms (< or > 6wks)
110
How to diagnose carpal tunnel
-history and physical exam history = paresthesia, repetitive motions, weakness or clumsiness of hand, worsening signs and symptoms at night TINEL or PHALEN tests positive
111
how to treat carpal tunnel
1) brace - conservative treatment initially then steroid injections and then electro-diagnostic studies if treatment not working and considering surgery
112
problems rotating the hip and leg shortening indicate probably what?
hip fracture
113
pain in buttock or lower back with hip discomfort usually indicates what
sciatica
114
hip pain and patient has artificial joints, be sure to make sure the patient doesn't have what?
an infection of the artificial joint. Recent viral or bacterial infection can spread to artificial joint
115
paresthesia of hip indicates what
possible pinched nerve
116
diagnostics for hip injury
1) xray - 3 views 2) CT - better definition. add contrast to look at vessels and blood flow 3) MRI 4) compartment pressure measurement
117
labs for hip injury
CBC = infection, inflammation CRP = infection, inflammation Sed Rate = inflammation could rule in gout or RA
118
Contraindications for arthrocentesis or joint aspiration
1) cellulitis - never aspirate through cellulitis | 2) suspected infected joint - done by orthro
119
Diagnostics on aspirate of joint
- cell count, WBCs with differential - gram stain and culture/sensitivity - crystals (gout)
120
Differentials for pediatrics complaining on knee pain
1) osgood-schlatters 2) patellar tendinitis 3) osteochondritis dissecans 4) patellofemoral syndrome
121
Differentials for anterior knee pain
1) osgood-schlatters 2) patellar tendinitis 3) patellofemoral syndrome 4) prepatellar bursitis 5) osteoarthritis
122
Diagnosing patellar tendinitis
-from overuse causing anterior knee pain 1) ultrasound 2) MRI
123
Diagnosing patellofemoral pain syndrome
-pain around patella aggregated by weight bearing activities. MOST COMMON cause of anterior knee pain classic presentation = pain in anterior knee worsening with squatting and descending stairs J-sign = patella jumps laterally when knee is fully extended
124
Diagnosing prepatellar bursitis
"housemaid's knee", occurs from being on their knees a lot 1) must aspirate to determine if aseptic, septic, or crystal-induced (gout) 2) plain xrays to rule out other causes 3) MRI or US
125
Causes of posterior knee pain
1) bakers cyst | 2) posterior cruciate ligament tear
126
Causes of medial knee pain
1) medial meniscus injury 2) medial cruciate ligament tear 3) bursitis
127
Causes of lateral knee pain
1) lateral cruciate ligament tear 2) lateral meniscus injury 3) iliotibial band syndrome
128
McMurray test indicates issue with what
meniscus
129
Lachman test indicates issues with what
ACL
130
Drawer test indicates issues with what
ACL or PCL
131
Varus stress test indicates issues with what
MCL
132
radiating back pain into leg along dermatome indicates what?
possible ruptured disc
133
loss of bowel and bladder with lower back pain indicates what
EMERGENCY Cauda Equina syndrome
134
straight leg raise test
used to determine possible herniated disc + = when leg is elevated, pain is noted when leg is between 30-60 degrees
135
Definitive diagnoses of herniated disc requires which scan
MRI
136
what is nursemaids elbow
a subluxation injury of the radial head usually occurring in children 6mo-5years
137
How to treat nursemaids elbow
reduce the elbow back in to place with supination and then hyperpronation, do not do more than 2-3 times if cannot get it to go back in place. patient shoulder be able to use their arm again within minutes- tell them to give you a "high five" use ibuprofen and rest and ice
138
Education for parents after nursemaid elbow treated
do not pull on childs arm or swing them by arms. monitor for neuromuscular changes in the arm