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EAWS > Test > Flashcards

Test Flashcards

1
Q

How many principle pressure points are on each side of the body?

A

11

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2
Q

What classification of burn causes redness, warmth and mild pain?

A

First Degree Burn

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3
Q

What classification of burn causes red, blistered skin and severe pain?

A

Second Degree Burn

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4
Q

What classification of burn is typically the most painful?

A

Second Degree Burn

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5
Q

What classification of burn destroys tissue, skin and bone?

A

Third Degree Burn

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6
Q

What classification of burn may damage nerve endings?

A

Third Degree Burn

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7
Q

What are the two types of bone fractures?

A

Simple/Compound

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8
Q

What are the three objectives of first aid?

A

Prevent further injury, infection and loss of life

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9
Q

Which of the following is not an objective of first aid?

A

Control Bleeding

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10
Q

First aid is categorized into _____ fundamental elements.

A

Eight

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11
Q

What is NOT a method of controlling bleeding?

A

Ace Bandage

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12
Q

What is a point on the body where a main artery lies near the skin surface and over the bone?

A

Pressure Point

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT a pressure point?

A

Subclavical artery (subclavian)

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14
Q

Which of the following would you use as a last resort to control bleeding?

A

Tourniquet

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15
Q 
What do the following do:
Purple Jersey
Brown Jersey
Yellow Jersey
White Jersey
Green Jersey
A 
Aviation Fuel Crew
Plane Captain
Plane Director
Landing Safety Officer
Helicopter LSE
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16
Q

Windshield static has the potential to build up and hold a _____ volt charge.

A

100,000

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17
Q

What is the minimum number of chains required for an initial tie-down?

A

6

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18
Q

Normal weather tie-down requires _____ chains.

A

9

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19
Q

Normal weather tie-downs are required for winds between _____ and _____ knots.

A

Up to 45 knots

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20
Q

Moderate weather tie-down requires _____ chains.

A

14

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21
Q

Moderate weather tie-downs are required for winds between _____ and _____ knots.

A

46 to 60 knots

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22
Q

Heavy weather tie-down requires_____ chains.

A

20

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23
Q

What are the two types of tie-downs used onboard?

A

TD-1A/TD-1B

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24
Q

Correct installation of a tie-down chain is with the hook facing up.

A

True

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25
Q

Who conducts a pre-move inspection of the brake system and aircraft to ensure it is mechanically sound and ready for movement?

A

Brake Rider

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26
Q

It is the _____ primary responsibility for ensuring that the aircraft is ready to be towed and that there is ample clearance for the aircraft.

A

Safety Observer

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27
Q

FPCON Alpha applies when _____.

A

When there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities.

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28
Q

FPCON Bravo applies when _____.

A

An increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists.

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29
Q

FPCON Charlie applies when _____.

A

An incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action is likely.

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30
Q

The defense readiness condition was developed by the Secretary of Defense.

A

False

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31
Q

Which defense readiness condition (DEFCON) is most severe?

A

1

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32
Q

The _____ is responsible for TAD personnel, manpower management, and manages the SE training and license program.

A

Aircraft Maintenance Officer (AMO)

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33
Q

The _____ is overall responsible for the production and material support of the aviation maintenance department.

A

Maintenance/Material Control Officer (MMCO)

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34
Q

The NAMP was founded on a _____ level maintenance concept.

A

Three

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35
Q

The I-Level mission is to maintain assigned aircraft and aeronautical equipment in a full mission capable status.

A

False

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36
Q

The _____ mission is to maintain assigned aircraft and aeronautical equipment in a full mission capable status.

A

O-Level

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37
Q

Which level of maintenance is performed on material requiring major overhaul or rebuilding of parts, assemblies, subassemblies, and end items?

A

D-Level

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38
Q

_____ and _____ are the two types of maintenance described in the NAMP.

A

Rework and Upkeep

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39
Q

Turnaround

A

Conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft for flight.

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40
Q

Daily

A

Conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth that the turnaround inspection.

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41
Q

Conditional

A

Unscheduled events required as the result of a specific over limit condition.

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42
Q

Special

A

A scheduled inspection with a prescribed interval other than daily or phase.

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43
Q

The two most critical aspects in naval aviation are the release of an aircraft safe for flight and the acceptance of the aircraft.

A

True

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44
Q

The Monthly Maintenance Plan is prepared and distributed on the _____ of every month.

A

1st

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45
Q

At which level of maintenance can you find Maintenance Control?

A

O-Level

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46
Q

The concept of quality assurance is to prevent the occurrence of defects.

A

False

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47
Q

The achievement of quality assurance depends on _____, _____, and _____.

A

Prevention, Knowledge, Special Skills

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48
Q

The _____ is assigned to production work centers and inspect all work and comply with the required QA inspections during all maintenance actions.

A

CDI

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49
Q

What program is not managed by quality assurance division?

A

SE Training and Licensing Program

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50
Q

Work center audits are conducted _____ to evaluate the overall quality performance of each work center.

A

Semi-annually

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51
Q

NATOPS stands for _____.

A

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization

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52
Q

NATOPS was established by the United States Navy in _____.

A

1961

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53
Q

The US Navy and Marine Corps lost how many aircraft in 1950?

A

776

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54
Q

In what year was the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP) introduced?

A

1959

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55
Q

Warning

A

An operating procedure, practice, or condition that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.

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56
Q

Caution

A

An operating procedure, practice or condition that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.

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57
Q

Note

A

An operating procedure, practice, or condition that must be emphasized.

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58
Q

Shall

A

A procedure that is mandatory.

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59
Q

Should

A

A procedure that is recommended.

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60
Q

May

A

The procedure is optional.

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61
Q

Will

A

Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.

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62
Q

The _____ assigns aircraft markings and side numbers that identify an aircraft.

A

Chief of Naval Operations

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63
Q

Aircraft that have identification markings where the first character is “N through Z? and the second character is “A through Z” belongs to _____.

A

COMNAVAIRPAC

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64
Q

What is the significance of 8 May 1911?

A

Birth of Naval aviation

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65
Q

What was the Navy’s first aircraft carrier?

A

USS Langley

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66
Q

What was the name of the Navy’s first jet powered aircraft?

A

FJ-1 Fury

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67
Q

When was the first take off from a ship?

A

14 November 1910

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68
Q

Coral Sea

A

Broke the Japanese Navy code, was the first carrier to carrier battle. US carrier Lexington was sunk, and Yorktown was damaged.

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69
Q

Midway

A

The turning point of the Pacific war, the US sunk 4 Japanese carriers, Japan lost its bid for control of the Pacific.

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70
Q

Guadacanal

A

After three days of fighting, the Japanese lost 2 cruisers and 6 destroyers. The Juneau was torpedoed.

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71
Q

_____ is the act, or process, of changing place or position.

A

Motion

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72
Q

The rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time is known as _____.

A

Acceleration

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73
Q

_____ is the quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction.

A

Velocity

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74
Q

NIIN stands for _____.

A

National Item Identification Number

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75
Q

How many digits are in a National Stock Number?

A

13

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76
Q

What database does Aviation Supply use to look up parts data for all items carried in the Federal Government Supply System?

A

FEDLOG

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77
Q

CCS has five sections.

A

False

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78
Q

Which is NOT a section of CCS?

A

MDU

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79
Q

Who is administratively responsible for Weapons department personnel?

A

Gun Boss

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80
Q

Who is Operationally responsible for all ordnance throughout the ship?

A

Ordnance Handling Officer (OHO)

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81
Q

What Weapons Division is responsible for Elevators?

A

G-4

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82
Q

What Weapons Division is responsible for Magazines and Bomb Assembly?

A

G-3

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83
Q

What Weapons Division is responsible for magazine Sprinklers and Armory?

A

G-2

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84
Q

What Weapons Division is in charge of Administration/QA/Ordnance Control/Logistics?

A

G-5

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85
Q

Which Laser Guided Bomb is used as a Hard Target Penetrator?

A

GBU-24

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86
Q

In what weight class are MK-82 and BLU-111 Bombs?

A

500 LB

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87
Q

In what weight class are MK-83 and BLU-110 Bombs?

A

1000 LB

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88
Q

In what weight class are MK-84 and BLU-109 Bombs?

A

2000 LB

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89
Q

What does JDAM stand for?

A

Joint Direct Attack Munition

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90
Q

Match the JDAM GBU to the right weight class:
GBU-31
GBU-32
GBU-38

A

2000 LB
1000 LB
500 LB

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91
Q

Match the LGB GBU to the right weight class:
GBU-10
GBU-12
GBU-16

A

2000 LB
500 LB
1000 LB

92
Q

Match the following missile guidance term:
Passive
Semi-Active
Active

A

Uses information collected from the target itself.
Uses an outside source to find the weapon.
Uses active detection and tracking methods to destroy its target.

93
Q 
Match the following missile to designator to their name:
Sidewinder
Maverick
Hellfire
Harm
A

AIM-9M
AGM-65
AGM-114B/K
AGM-88

94
Q

What does HERO stand for?

A

Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance

95
Q

What does AWSE stand for?

A

Armament Weapons Support Equipment

96
Q

What weapons stage elevator is used for transporting weapons from second deck to the flight deck?

A

Upper Stage

97
Q

What weapons stage elevator is used for transporting weapons from the weapons magazine to the hangar bay?

A

Lower Stage

98
Q

What does it mean when you see a missile or bomb with a yellow stripe?

A

Contains High Explosives

99
Q

A low collateral bomb body is identified by how many yellow bands?

A

3 yellow bands around the nose and 1 on the tail.

100
Q

What ammunition is fired from the M61A1 and M61A2?

A

20MM

101
Q 
Match the following ammunition color codes with their explosive hazards:
Black
Light Green
Brown
White
A

Armor Piercing
Smoke or “marker”
Rocket motors/low explosives
Illuminating

102
Q 
Match the following ammunition color codes with their explosive hazards:
Light Green
Brown
White
Light Blue
A

Smoke or “marker”
Rocket motors/low explosives
Illuminating
Practice

103
Q

What is the safe working load of the MHU-191/M Munitions Transporter?

A

5000 LB

104
Q

The NSSMS Launchers are located STBD-FWD, PORT-AFT.

A

True

105
Q

THE RAM Launchers are located STBD-FWD, PORT-AFT.

A

False

106
Q

What is the maximum range of an SN/SPS-48 radar?

A

220 NM

107
Q

What is AN/SPS-67?

A

Medium Range Surface Search Radar

108
Q

The antenna of this radar system has a distinct popsicle stick shape.

A

AN/SPQ-9B

109
Q

AN/SPN-43 has a maximum range of approximately _____.

A

50 NM

110
Q

Which program provides the data required for the effective management of SE at all levels of aircraft maintenance?

A

AMMRL

111
Q

CRIPL is a listing of all authorized remain in place items which are published by NAVICP and approved by the TYCOM and COMNAVAIRSYSCOM.

A

True

112
Q

What listing is a detailed statement of the IMAs component repair capability?

A

ICRL

113
Q

Which is NOT a category of HAZMAT?

A

Contained Gasses

114
Q

This unit maintains custody of high-cost AVDLRs that are ordered by the IMA work centers.

A

RAM

115
Q

Supply Response Section is divided up into _____ units.

A

5

116
Q

A term/code used by IMAs when repair is not authorized or when the activity is not capable of accomplishing the repair is what?

A

BCM

117
Q 
Match the following aircraft with the types of engines they utilize:
EA-6B Prowler
H-60 Seahawk
E-2C Hawkeye
F/A-18 Hornet
A

Turbojet
Turboshaft
Turboprop
Turbofan

118
Q

All maintenance performed in NALCOMIS is documented on what?

A

MAF

119
Q

Who acts as the liasion between Production Control, Supply, and the various Maintenance Controls of the embarked squadrons?

A

MMCO

120
Q

Which unit under Supply Response Section is responsible for processing and expediting high priority parts?

A

PMU

121
Q

There are _____ categories of HAZMAT.

A

6

122
Q 
Match the following units with their appropriate sections:
TRU
SSU
RCU
AWP
A

SRS
CCS
SRS
CCS

123
Q

SRS is responsible for which of the following?

A

Processing customer requirements and providing follow ups and status as required.

124
Q

_____ are used to decrease wing lift by destroying the smooth flow of air over the wings surfaces.

A

Spoiler

125
Q

_____ causes extra lift by lengthening the top section of the wing.

A

Flap

126
Q

_____ provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions.

A

NALCOMIS

127
Q

_____ must be in control of the maintenance to ensure successful operation or repair of critical assets.

A

Maintenance/Production Control

128
Q

Match the core capabilities:
Forward Presence
Sea Control
Power Protection

A

Establishes maritime forces in regions throughout the world.
Protects the ability to operate freely at sea.
The essential combat element of the maritime strategy.

129
Q 
Match the platform:
Helicopter Sea Combat
Tactical Electronic Warfare
Aircraft Logistics Support
Helicopter Maritime Strike
Patrol
Fleet Composite
A

Perform rescue, logistics, MCM, and combat search and rescue missions.
Exploit, suppress, degrade and deceive enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems.
Transport of personnel and supplies.
Anti-submarine and anti-surface warfare, also handles logistics and rescue.
Anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, reconnaissance and mining.
Provide air services for the fleet such as simulations and target towing.

130
Q

MOVLAS is the backup to which system?

A

Fesnal Lens Optical Landing System

131
Q

What are 3 hazards on the flight deck?

A

Jet Blast, Rotor Wash, Prop Arcs

132
Q

Aft Spotter and ISIS Computer Operator are stations manned in _____?

A

PRI-FLY

133
Q

What is the primary job of the Crash Crew?

A

To save lives

134
Q

How can you identify the LSE?

A

Green jersey with red cranial

135
Q

Who is responsible for the operation of the ship’s ALRE and VLA?

A

Catapult and Arresting Gear Officer

136
Q

The rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time is called _____.

A

Speed

137
Q

An object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion until acted upon by an outside force is an example of Newton’s _____ law.

A

First

138
Q

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction is Newton’s _____ law.

A

Third

139
Q

Newton’s _____ law of motion states that if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by and external force, the change of motion will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved.

A

Second

140
Q

Bernoulli’s principle states that when a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction, the speed of the fluid decreases and the pressure increases.

A

False

141
Q

What are the three axis of an aircraft?

A

Longitudinal, Lateral, Vertical

142
Q

The aircraft’s _____ controls the vertical axis (yaw).

A

Rudder

143
Q 
Match four types of shock:
Septic shock
Anaphylactic shock
Hypovolemic shock
Neurogenic shock
A

Bacteria multiplying in the blood and releasing toxins.
A severe hypersensitivity or allergic reaction.
Caused by severe blood and fluid loss.
Caused by a spinal chord injury.

144
Q

ORM is a systematic decision making process used to _____.

A

Identify and manage hazards.

145
Q

What are the five steps of ORM?

A 
Identify hazards
Assess hazards
Make risk decisions
Implement controls
Supervise
146
Q

Match the three types of mishaps:
Class A mishap
Class B mishap
Class C mishap

A

Property damage $2M or more; or an injury resulting in a fatality or permanent total disability.
Property damage $500,000 or more but less than $2M; or an injury resulting in permanent partial disability.
Property damage is $50,000 or more, but less than $500,000; a non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift.

147
Q

If a mishap occurs totaling $450,000 in property damage and an injury resulting in a permanently disabled arm, what class would it be categorized as?

A

Class B

148
Q

PPE is the _____ line of defense.

A

Last

149
Q

What are the two types of bone fractures?

A

Open/Closed
Simple/Compound
Both A and B

150
Q

Heat _____ is a heat related injury causing the skin to become cool, moist, and clammy and the pupils dilated?

A

Exhaustion

151
Q

Heat _____ is a heat related injury causing the skin to be hot and/or dry, uneven pupil dilation, and a weak, rapid pulse?

A

Stroke

152
Q

What is NOT one of the three types of cold weather injuries?

A

Surface Frostbite

153
Q

Match the three types of cold weather injuries:
Hypothermia
Superficial frostbite
Deep frostbite

A

A general cooling of the body caused by exposure to low or rapidly falling temperature.
When ice crystals are forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
Develops when ice crystals are forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.

154
Q

_____ is a life-threatening medical condition where the body suffers from insufficient blood flow throughout the body.

A

Shock

155
Q

Bacteria and viruses are examples of pathogens.

A

True

156
Q

Biological agents are broken into what divisions?

A

Pathogens and toxins

157
Q

What is the primary way to limit the chemical and biological warfare impact?

A

Training and Awareness

158
Q

What type of canister is used with the MCU-2P gas mask?

A

C-2

159
Q 
Match the five types of nuclear explosions:
High Altitude Burst
Air Burst
Surface Burst
Shallow Underwater Burst
Deep Underwater Burst
A

Occurs in excess of 100,000’ with ionosphere disruptions and EMP.
The fireball does not reach the surface. Vacuum created collects debris resulting in severe radiation fallout.
Fireball touches the surface which results in severe ratioactive fallout.
Small fireball and blast wave causes large waves and water contamination.
Yields the greatest water contamination.

160
Q

What are the two types of shipboard shielding stations?

A

Ready shelter and Deep shelter

161
Q

The DT-60 dosimeter determines the total amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer is exposed in the zero to _____ roentgens.

A

600

162
Q

Nerve agents are _____ casualty agents that disrupt nerve impulses to the body while damaging body functions rather than tissue.

A

Liquid

163
Q

Nerve agents are casualty agents that _____.

A

Disrupt nerve impulses to the body

164
Q

What are two examples of blood agents?

A

Hydrogen Cyanide (AC), Cyanogen Chloride (CK)

165
Q

M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper detects what type of chemical agents?

A

Liquid chemical agents

166
Q

Atropine/2-PAM-chloride is used for _____ agent casualties.

A

Nerve

167
Q

What are the auto-injectors issued for use in combating nerve agent casualties?

A

Atropine/2-PAM-Chloride

168
Q

The use of agents to cause disease, sickness or death to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combatant forces is _____.

A

Biological Warfare

169
Q

Who is responsible for the supervision and handling of embarked aircraft on the flight deck and hangar deck?

A

Aircraft Handling Officer

170
Q

VLA is part of which division?

A

V-2

171
Q

What color jerseys do LOX personnel wear?

A

White

172
Q

Who wears a white jersey with no cranial?

A

LSO

173
Q

What system is used by the pilot to bring the aircraft down a glide slope to the deck using a cross deck pendant pattern?

A

FLOLS

174
Q

What division of Air Department includes Flight Deck Repair and the Quality Surveillance Lab?

A

V-4

175
Q

What two work centers comprise CATCC?

A

Air Ops and CCA

176
Q

What does ILARTS stand for?

A

Integrated Launch and Recovery Television System

177
Q

MOVLAS stands for Manually Operated Virtual Landing Aid System.

A

False

178
Q

Operation of aircraft elevators and hangar bay doors falls under the responsibility of which division?

A

V-3

179
Q

What are stations manned in Flight Deck Control?

A

Dog, Assistant Flight Deck Officer, Fuels Rep

180
Q

What type of system is the MK-7 arresting engine?

A

Hydro-pneumatic

181
Q

What color jerseys will GSE Troubleshooters wear?

A

Green

182
Q

Air Admin and Tower personnel are part of which division?

A

V-5

183
Q

Who determines the case launch and recovery of all aircraft embarked on the aircraft carrier?

A

Air Officer

184
Q

Who establishes the air plan?

A

Strike Ops

185
Q

CT’s typically work in which CVIC division?

A

OS

186
Q

AN/SPN 46 is also known as _____.

A

PALS

187
Q

Angels 6 is _____?

A

6000 feet

188
Q

“Clara” and “Ball” are associated with _____.

A

Visual Landing Aid

189
Q

Air flow disturbances on and about the carrier are called _____.

A

Burble

190
Q

What is a term used for a first-tour pilot on his initial carrier deployment?

A

Nugget

191
Q

Where is the first aircraft in marshal stack placed?

A

21 NM at 6000 feet

192
Q

During Case II Approach Control hands off to _____?

A

PRI-FLY

193
Q

Who is primarily responsible for the aircraft glide slope and lineup performance?

A

Final Control

194
Q

Who is in control of departing aircraft during Case II operations?

A

Departure Control

195
Q

Final Control is a position manned in _____?

A

CCA

196
Q

Marshal Control hands off to _____ during Case I operations?

A

PRI-FLY

197
Q

Approach Control is responsible for monitoring the location and package status of tanker aircraft.

A

False

198
Q

What Case of operations are when the ceiling and visibility in the carrier control zone are no lower than 1000’ and 5 NM respectively?

A

II

199
Q

Production Control is part of which division?

A

IM-1

200
Q

What does PR stand for?

A

Aircrew Survival Equipmentman

201
Q

What does AT stand for?

A

Aviation Electronics Technician

202
Q

What does AZ stand for?

A

Aviation Maintenance Administrationman

203
Q

Squadrons perform what level of maintenance?

A

O-Level

204
Q

The first three digits of a JCN are known as what?

A

Organization code

205
Q

What are the 5 basic section of a jet engine?

A

Intake, Compression, Combustion, Turbine, Exhaust

206
Q

The magnetic bearing and distance to the carrier is known as _____.

A

Pigeons

207
Q

What does CDC stand for?

A

Combat Direction Center

208
Q

Which are stations manned in Air Ops?

A

Assistant Air Operations Officer, Land/Launch Record Keeper

209
Q

Tally-Ho is a pilot report indicating a target has been engaged.

A

False

210
Q

What does NALCOMIS stand for?

A

Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System

211
Q

What does AIMD stand for?

A

Aircraft Intermediate Maintenance Department

212
Q

Which level of inspectors are in the work centers?

A

CDI

213
Q

AIMD is comprised of how many divisions?

A

4

214
Q

A management tool used to coordinate the use of systems and equipment in Chemical or Biological environments is

A

Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP)

215
Q 
MOPP Level 0
MOPP Level 1
MOPP Level 2
MOPP Level 3
MOPP Level 4
A

Issue IPE, accessible within 5 minutes.
JSLIST, MASK, Gloves readily accessible.
Mask carried decontamination supplies stage.
GQ, install filters, don over-boots.
Don mask/hood, gloves, Circle William, countermeasure washdown.

216
Q

_____ is the primary duty of the firefighter.

A

Saving lives

217
Q

What are the three sides of the fire triangle?

A

Oxygen, heat, fuel

218
Q

When fighting a class C fire, how far away must the firefighter be when using H2O in a fog pattern?

A

Four feet

219
Q

What is the current water to AFFF mixture for shipboard use?

A

94% water/6% AFFF

220
Q

When properly applied, what has the ability to cool aircraft and ordinance?

A

Water (H2O)

221
Q

What firefighting agent will not prevent reflash if an ignition source is present?

A

Potassium Bicarbonate (PKP)

222
Q

Carbon Dioxide suppresses fire by _____.

A

Displacing the oxygen

223
Q

The airfield rotating beacon is used to identify the airport’s location?

A

True

224
Q

Airfield rotating beacons on military airfields use _____ white light(s) and _____ green light(s)?

A

Two, one

225
Q

Parallel stripes on the ends of the runways are known as _____.

A

Threshold Markings

226
Q

Threshold markings are _____ wide by _____ long.

A

12 feet, 150 feet

227
Q

What barrier is designed to stop tricycle landing gear equipped aircraft not equipped with tailhooks?

A

MA-2

EAWS (1 decks)

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