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Patient Care Practice Test #3 > Test 3 Intro To Disease/CPR > Flashcards

Test 3 Intro To Disease/CPR Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of shock?

A

Poor blood delivery to vital organs

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2
Q

What is the code that is used in hospitals when a patient crashes? Also known as the emergency code

A

Code blue is the emergency code

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3
Q

For a sonographer, recognizing the need for _______is the first critical step.

A

Assistance

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4
Q

Sonographers should be able to recognize signs of shock or any abnormal change in the patient’s status, true or false?

A

True

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5
Q

When the sonographer recognizes a patient is deteriorating he or she should call________. Their extension in the hospital should be memorized.

A

MERT

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6
Q

When the sonographer calls the above people, he or she should inform them of their location and the patient’s symptoms, true or false?

A

True

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7
Q

When they arrive, the sonographer should inform them of the location of the ________cart.

A

Crash cart

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8
Q

While waiting for the above people the sonographers should entertain the patient true or false?

A

False. The sonographer should be able to offer first aide take vital signs do CPR and reassure the patient

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9
Q

While waiting for mart, the sonographer should assist in all possible ways and take vital signs on the patient true or false

A

True

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10
Q

If the patient started experiencing chest pain while you were doing the exam, this could be an indication of______

A

PE,MI, or Angina. either way, stop the exam and assess. If need be, put up the bed rails and go call the emergency response team.

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11
Q

If the patient started experiencing slurred speech while you were scanning, this might be indicative of________

A

Reduced blood to the brain, or stroke

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12
Q

If the patient started experiencing dyspnea while you were scanning, you should stop the test, call______,and administer _______.

A

MERT

oxygen

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13
Q

If the patient started vomiting while you were scanning, you should stop the scan and roll the patient ________, or get them into _______so he or she does not aspirate.

A

left or right lateral decubitus if they are laying down supine

Fowler if they are semi recumbent

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14
Q

If the patient told you he or she is feeling nauseated, you should instruct the patient to breathe_______. Have the ________ready in case they vomit, and put that have them put a _______on the face

A

Slowly and deeply through the mouth

Emesis basin

Moist cloth

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15
Q

If the patient told you they feel they might be having a seizure, you should help them lay on the ground, remove harmful objects him around the patient, loosen tight clothing,cushion the patient’s head, and do not attempt to restrain the patient, true or false

A

True

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16
Q

If the patient started having convulsions while you were scanning, you should stop the test, raise the roof side rails of the bed, loosen tight clothing, cushion the patient’s head, and do not attempt to restrain the patient true or false

A

True

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17
Q

Mini stroke is called______. This stands for_______.

A

TIA

transient ischemic attack

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18
Q

The other name for stroke is______.This stands for______.

A

CVA

cardio vascular accident

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19
Q

Stroke results from either stenosis of the carotid artery he or bleeding in the brain, true or false?

A

True

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20
Q

It is important to recognize the symptoms of stroke and call MERT true or false

A

True- stroke is a life-threatening situation

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21
Q

If someone is bleeding externally, you can stop the bleeding by__________.

A

Applying pressure to the artery supplying the area proximal to the injury

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22
Q

Crash cart or code cart in the department is usually placed in a specific location so that everyone knows where it is located. When paramedics or medical emergency response team arrives, you can tell them where it is located or you can bring it to them depending on the departments policy what does the crash cart contain?

A

A defibrillator epinephrine atropine amidarone

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23
Q

A patient who is unconscious is reactive only to painful stimuli, true or false?

A

True

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24
Q

After a head injury, symptoms might progress slowly, so if the patient becomes progressively incoherent, drowsy, irritable, and stuporous these are signs of _________due to bleeding after the head trauma.

A

Intracranial pressure

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25
Q

If a stroke happens due to stenosis whether by plaque or embolus it is called ischemic stroke true or false

A

True

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26
Q

If the stroke happened to rupture of the cerebral artery or rupture of a cerebral aneurysm it is called hemorrhagic stroke, true or false?

A

True

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27
Q

The emergency medical response team’s responsibility is to administer fluids to the shock patient, administer medications, insert in arterial line, perform into Bashan on the patient if there is a need to, and put him or her on a ventilator true or false?

A

True

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28
Q

The safest position for a patient who is unconscious is _____because of the accumulation of _____or ______or _______which will compromise the________.The airway may also be compromised by the _______falling backward, preventing air exchange.

A 
Lateral decube 
saliva 
blood 
vomitus 
patient's airway 
tongue
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29
Q

Plaque in the carotid artery he usually happens due to Atherosclerotic changes in the carotid artery true or false

A

True

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30
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of stroke?

A 
Altered mental state and consciousness.
Unilateral numbness
Pupil dilation or blurred vision
Dysphasia
Dysphagia
Incontinence
Headache
Nausea and vomiting
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31
Q

Diabetic keto acidosis is a condition resulting from__________.

A

Type one diabetes, high glucose and metabolic acidosis

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32
Q

Shock is fatal if not treated, true or false?

A

True

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33
Q

Keto acidosis happens in more patients with type two diabetes true or false

A

False ketoacidosis happens more in patients with type one diabetes

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34
Q

Fasting glucose level is normal what it is between__________.

A

70-100mg/dl

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35
Q

When blood glucose exceeds________, it starts appearing in the urine.

A

180

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36
Q

Insulin is secreted by _______,located in the_______

A

Islets of langerhanz

Tail of the pancreas

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37
Q

The term used for description of above normal glucose level is hypoglycemia, true or false

A

False hypoglycemia refers to below normal glucose level

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38
Q

What is the most serious complication of diabetes?

A

Death. But this is due to higher incidence of retinopathy, myocardial infarction, strokes, PAD, & infections

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39
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis can lead to coma and death if not treated, true or false?

A

True

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40
Q

In all shocks, including septic shock, patients have cold skin true or false?

A

False. Septic shock is known as warm shock

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41
Q

Ketoacidosis happens when muscles cannot use glucose, so the liver breaks down________, forming Keytone bodies

A

Fatty acids

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42
Q

If the diabetic patient started having dry mucosa, rapid and deep breathing, headaches, drowsiness, and confusion abdominal pain nausea and vomiting and _______ all of these are signs and symptoms of impending diabetic coma

A

Fruity breath

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43
Q

Diabetes type one is the non-insulin-dependent diabetes true or false

A

False type one diabetes is insulin dependent

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44
Q

Type two diabetes happens mostly in children, true or false?

A

False type two diabetes happens mainly in adults. Children experience mainly type one diabetes, all the numbers of type two diabetes are rising due to the rise in obesity

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45
Q

Just stational diabetes is usually treated with diet and insulin, not with hypoglycemic drugs do to their effects on the fetus – true or false?

A

True

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46
Q

Diabetics must adhere to the doctors instructions in regards to their medications and meals timing, so that they do not develop hypoglycemia – true or false?

A

True

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47
Q

Diabetics who are going to have an abdomen a ultrasound study and they were requested to be NPO for 6 to 7 hours might develop__________.

A

Hypoglycemia

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48
Q

What should you do if a diabetic patient who has been NPO for several hours mentioned to you that he or she is getting headache nausea or dizziness?

A

Supply quick carbohydrates 3 tablespoons of sugar in juice or water.

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49
Q

Type two diabetes is treated with diet, exercise, hypoglycemic agents, or even insulin true or false?

A

True

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50
Q

Type one diabetes is treated with insulin true or false?

A

True

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51
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycemia are:

A 
Headache 
nausea 
slurred speech 
seizure 
shock 
coma
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52
Q

Symptoms of hyperglycemia are:

A 
Poly urea 
polydipsia 
WeightLoss 
Fatigue
bacterial or fungal infections
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53
Q

If a diabetic patient started showing Tim Tim’s of hypoglycemia, the best management is to add miniature orange juice and have the patient rest true or false?

A

True

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54
Q

Never leave a patient with deteriorated level of consciousness unattended, true or false?

A

True

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55
Q

Always raise the bed side rails when you leave the patient alone to review the images with the radiologist etc, true or false?

A

True

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56
Q

Always raise the side bed rail on the opposite side from where you are scanning true or false?

A

True

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57
Q

General signs and symptoms of shock include: tachycardia, tachypnea, hypertension, altered mental status – true or false?

A

True

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58
Q

In septic shock, ________are chemicals that are considered part of the immune response. They are secreted in response to the presence of bacteria. The increase the capillary permeability and vasodilation.

A

Cytokines

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59
Q

Make sure the bedside rails her up when the patient’s level of consciousness is changed true or false?

A

True

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60
Q

What does PAD stand for?

A

Peripheral arterial disease

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61
Q

If the patient’s level of consciousness deteriorated quickly, and he or she lost their consciousness you have palpitated the carotid artery’s and there is no pulse then you should start________.

A

CPR

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62
Q

In emergency situations, it is imperative that the sonographer act fast, work competently under pressure, speak calmly, and provide emotional support true or false?

A

True

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63
Q

What type of shock is caused by severe allergic reaction to radiographic contrast

A

Anaphylactic shock, or allergic shock a type of vasodilatory shock is the shock caused by allergic reaction’s

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64
Q

When you start working at a hospital, you have to know where the _________card is located in the department.

A

Crash

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65
Q

The most recent recommendation of the American Heart Association is that _________should be the first step when resuscitating a person with cardiac arrest.

A

CPR

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66
Q

CPR stands for

A

Cardiopulmonary ressutation

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67
Q

CPR Follows the acronym

A

A-airway
C- compressions
B-breaths

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68
Q

When you start working at a hospital you have to know how to administer oxygen from the wall outlet or from the oxygen tank using nasal cannula true or false?

A

False – we will know how to do it however it is not necessary

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69
Q

When you start working at a hospital, you have to know how to use the secretion suction, whether it was a wall outlet suction or a vacuum container, true or false?

A

Balls, we will know how to do it however it is not necessary

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70
Q

What are the four levels of consciousness?

A

Alert and conscious drowsy but responsive unconscious

comatose

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71
Q

The very young and very old are more susceptible to have a septic shock than the general population, true or false?

A

True

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72
Q

Young girls might develop septic shock due to improper use of______.

A

Tampons

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73
Q

Septic shock can lead to septicemia and that true or false?

A

True

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74
Q

Clot in the deep venous system is called ______which stands for______.

A

Dvt

Deep vein thrombosis

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75
Q

If a patient looks as if he or she is fainting, the most important thing to do is to assist them to a safe position true or false

A

True

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76
Q

All these signs and symptoms are of a patient who is painting sweating dizziness feeling warm true or false

A

True

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77
Q

Mention the five types of shock

A 
Hypovolemic
Vasodilatory A-septic
                   B-anaphylactic
Cardiogenic shock
Obstructive shock
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78
Q

A patient who is comatose can react to painful stimuli only true or false

A

False – a patient who is comatose does not respond to ANY stimuli

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79
Q

A patient who is drowsy but responsive can respond to fully to all of your questions even if you whisper to him or her, true or false

A

False. patient who is drowsy but responsive will not originally respond to whispered conversation, but will show increasing responsiveness with normal conversational volume levels.

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80
Q

Possible complications of seizures are respiratory distress aspiration physical trauma true or false

A

True

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81
Q

What does PE stand for

A

Pulmonary embolus

Pleural effusion

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82
Q

History of artificial joint or valve is a risk for septic shock, true or false?

A

True

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83
Q

After an episode of seizure, patient may vomit, so make sure to place the patient in_____.

A

Lateral decubitus

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84
Q

After an episode of seizure, the patient is usually disoriented, so your role is to give emotional support and direct the patient where he or she needs to go true or false?

A

True

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85
Q

Diabetes is a disease characterized by the inability to metabolize____.

A

Glucose

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86
Q

Concussion is

A

Concussion is a brief loss of consciousness after a trauma

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87
Q

Hypovolemic shock is considered hot shock because the body tries to shift most blood from non-vital organs such as the skin and extremities to the vital organs such as brain heart kidneys and liver. True or false

A

False. Although in hypovolemic shock the body does try to shift blood to the vital organs such as the brain heart kidneys and liver it is known as cold shock. Septic shock is considered hot shock

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88
Q

People who have appendicitis might have the appendix rupture, this puts them at a higher risk for____ shock.

A

Septic shock, a type of vasodilatory shock

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89
Q

Hypovolemic shock can happen only when there is loss of blood internally or extern only true or false

A

False. hypovolemic shock can occur with the loss of plasma or through dehydration

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90
Q

Mention four causes of hypovolemic shock

A

Hemorrhage
lacerations
vomiting
diarrhea

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91
Q

Men who have been nine prostatic hypertrophy he and have a urinary catheter for a long time already higher risk of dying of septic shock true or false

A

True

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92
Q

Burns can cause cardiogenic shock, true or false

A

False burns can cause hypovolemic shock due to loss of plasma

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93
Q

Mention three examples of hypovolemic shock that occurred due to loss of fluids-not blood

A

Burns – plasma
Diarrhea – dehydration
Vomiting – dehydration

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94
Q

With hypovolemic shock, there is less fluid in the circulatory system, so ___drops and _______organs don’t get the blood they need to function properly, which leads to shock

A

BP

Vital

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95
Q

Motor vehicle accidents or rough sport can cause organ laceration or rupture. This leads to internal ________which leads to_______.

A

Bleeding

hypovolemic shock

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96
Q

There are two types of vasodilatory shock. Name both

A

Septic shock and anaphylactic shock

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97
Q

In vasodilatory shock, blood vessels dilate, so ______drops leading to in adequate blood to vital organs which leads to shock.

A

Bp

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98
Q

Mention seven risk factors for septic shock

A 
Drug use 
aids 
surgery 
use of tampons 
artificial joint/heart valve 
diabetes 
indwelling catheters
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99
Q

What type of shock is caused by loss of either blood volume or plasma?

A

Hypovolemic shock

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100
Q

History of surgery and abortions are risk factors for septic shock true or false?

A

True

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101
Q

Septic shock’s most positive organisms are

A

Gram-negative bacteria

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102
Q

In treating patients with shock, large amounts of fluids are administered. oxygen administration, possible intubation, and mechanical ventilation may be needed, & in case of septic shock antibiotics are given. true or false

A

True

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103
Q

All allergic reaction’s develop into anaphylactic shock true or false

A

False-Not all allergic reaction’s develop into anaphylactic shock.

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104
Q

In case of an allergic reaction, patients benefit from these medications

A

Benadryl

EpiPen

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105
Q

When the patient starts experiencing dyspnea dysphasia and changing their voice, this means that they have to go to the ER. They can benefit from injecting them selves with an____. This is helpful in saving the patient until he or she reaches a hospital where they can get treated.

A

EpiPen

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106
Q

When the patient who is allergic to a specific material starts having dyspnea, Strider, wheezing, horse voice this means the patient is having signs and symptoms of:

A

An allergic reaction

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107
Q

Allergic reaction symptoms may include sneezing rhinorrhea swollen lips and eyes hives true or false

A

True

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108
Q

In order to avoid an allergic reaction you should check the patient’s chart for allergy usually it shows up in red on the electronic chart. Also, ask the patient if he or she is allergic to latex or any other material true or false

A

True

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109
Q

What is cardiac Tamponade

A

The rabbit accumulation of fluid in the pericardium it restricts normal cardiac function

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110
Q

Patients who have had septic shock might develop skin peeling on their palms or on the soles of their feet 1 to 2 weeks after which resembles a rash true or false

A

True

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111
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

A

A condition where he suddenly we can heart isn’t able to pump enough blood to meet the body’s demands

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112
Q

What are two causes of cardiogenic shock

A

Acute myocardial infarction

Cardiac Tamponade

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113
Q

What are two causes of obstructive shock?

A

Pulmonary embolism tension pneumothorax

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114
Q

Which type of seizure is more common in children?

A

Petite mal seizures are more common in children

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115
Q

Seizures are a symptom rather than a disease true or false

A

True

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116
Q

_______ is the sensation that precedes the onset of epilepsy or migraine

A

Aura

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117
Q

When the kidney is not functioning well due to shock this translates to lower urinary output, true or false?

A

True

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118
Q

MI stands for

A

Myocardial infarction

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119
Q

Angina is chest pain that accompanies lack of blood supply to the heart due to atherosclerosis in the coronary artery he or spasm in the coronary artery, true or false?

A

True

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120
Q

Myocardial infarction is when a portion of the heart dies due to prolonged to lack of blood supply to that portion true or false?

A

True

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121
Q

People who have angina might benefit from nitroglycerin pill place under the tongue, or chewing an aspirin true or false?

A

True- if the angina is stable angina

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122
Q

How do you describe the pain of someone who is having a heart attack?

A

Squeezing
pressure
heaviness

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123
Q

What is the difference between stable and unstable angina?

A

Stable angina occurs when the heart works harder.

Unstable angina is a medical emergency and symptom of myocardial infarction

124
Q

The most common complication of mile cardio infarction is CHF which stands for

A

Congestive heart failure

125
Q

People who have cardiogenic shock might have ________which is a serious type of arrhythmia

A

Ventricular fibrillation

126
Q

Seizures are a symptom of many conditions – for example, epilepsy brain tumor, encephalitis, post natal trauma congenital malformation and electrolyte balance true or false

127
Q

What are the three main types of seizures?

A

Partial/ focal
Petit mal/ absence seizure
Grand mal/ tonic-clonic

128
Q

Tension pneumothorax means:

A

Rapid accumulation of pericardial fluid

129
Q

Tension pneumothorax is life-threatening true or false

130
Q

During a simple partial seizure the patient may retain consciousness true or false?

131
Q

The other name for petite mal is:

A

Absence seizure

132
Q

Symptoms of petite mall or absence seizure are sudden brief loss of consciousness, I flutter with loss of focus, blank expression true or false?

133
Q

Grand mal seizures are very obvious true or false

134
Q

Grand mall seizures have two stages_______ and______

A

Tonic

Clonic

135
Q

_________ is the term used when bacteria is present in the blood

A

Septicemia

136
Q

During the first stage of grand mall seizures, the patient loses ________and the muscles suddenly contract-causing the person to ___________with rigid body, fixture, clenched hands, and extended legs.

A

Consciousness

fall down

137
Q

During the second phase of grand mal seizures the muscles go into rhythmic contractions, alternating _______and_______.

A

Flexing tonic

Relaxing clonic

138
Q

Other symptoms that can accompany grand mal seizures are:

A

Frothing at the mouth

biting the tongue

urinary or fecal incontinence

139
Q

DVT is a medical emergency true or false?

140
Q

PE leads to hypoxemia which is a life-threatening condition true or false

141
Q

DVT’s most serious complication is________.

A

Pulmonary embolus which leads to hypoxemia and stroke

142
Q

People who are on drugs are at higher risk for developing septic shock than others true or false?

143
Q

In all shocks, blood vessels constrict-except in ________and _______where blood vessels dilate.

A

Anaphylactic and septic shock

144
Q

In cardiogenic shock, blood pressure drops because the heart contractibility is compromised, true or false?

145
Q

And septic and anaphylactic shock blood pressure drops because the blood vessels dilate true or false

146
Q

In hypovolemic shock, blood pressure drops because there’s not enough volume in the blood vessels true or false?

147
Q

Bacterial endotoxins are responsible for septic shock true or false?

148
Q

Besides chest pain dyspnea, hypotension, hemoptysis is one of the symptoms of PE true or false?

A

True it is one of the distinct symptoms of PE

149
Q

__________ therapy is used in cases of heart attack and pulmonary embolism

A

Thrombolytic

150
Q

Most hospitals use latex blue gloves nowadays true or false

151
Q

However not all sterile gloves are late text free true or false

152
Q

Before procedures, for example ultrasound guided biopsy he, ask the patient if he or she is on blood thinners true or false?

153
Q

Before procedures, ask the patient if he or she is allergic to anything, true or false?

154
Q

Vertigo means

155
Q

Syncope means

156
Q

Signs and symptoms of fainting include dizziness feeling warm sweating hypotension and maybe come on conscious true or false

157
Q

CPR is most beneficial if performed within 10 seconds of cardiac arrest, true or false

A

True – the sooner the better

158
Q

Brain damage can occur after _____minutes of cardiac arrest

159
Q

Death can occur after _______minutes of cardiac arrest

160
Q

CPR is performed even if the patient is DNR true or false

A

False if the patient is DNR it means do not resuscitate

161
Q

What does DNR stand for

A

Do not resuscitate

162
Q

Punctured lungs, lacerated liver, fractured ribs might happen if CPR was not performed correctly, true or false?

163
Q

You can perform CPR on the mattress true or false?

A

False you must perform CPR against a hard surface like the floor

164
Q

CPR is cycles of _____and________

A

30 compressions

2 breaths

165
Q

If you are alone and have access to a telephone, call 911 before you begin CPR true or false?

166
Q

The acronym used by the American heart Association for CPR is_____

A

CAB

Compressions
Airway
Breathing

167
Q

In order for compressions to be effective, you have to push on the chest at least 5 inches true or false

A

False it needs to be 2 inches or 5 cm

168
Q

The number of compressions is ________

169
Q

The rate of compressions should be about 100 compressions per minute true or false

A

True according to the video, however the American Heart Association is now recommending 120 compressions per minute.

170
Q

Giving enough time for_______ is very important, as it means the blood is allowed to fly back to the heart.

171
Q

Chest compressions and ________time should be equal

A

Recoil time

172
Q

Arm should be bent when you are performing compressions, true or false?

A

False the arms should be straight when performing compressions

173
Q

Your shoulders should be at the level of your hands when you were doing compressions true or false?

A

Falls the shoulders should be as far away from the hands as possible- as the arms are kept straight

174
Q

The rule used to maintain open airways is head______,chin_________.

175
Q

Checking if the patient is breathing should not take more than 5 to 10 seconds during CPR because the priority is for compressions true or false?

176
Q

When you’re doing mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, you should pinch the nostril shot true or false?

177
Q

_________Breaths are given after you perform 30 compressions

178
Q

When you give breath to the patient whether it is mouth to mouth or with Ambu bag make sure the patient’s chest is________.

179
Q

___________ are available to prevent direct contact with the patient’s mouth during CPR. When they are used make sure that they form a _________over the patient’s nose and mouth

A

Barrier methods

tight seal

180
Q

If the person has not begun moving after ______cycles of CPR, administer_________ using________.

A

Five
shock
AED

181
Q

CPR can be performed on adults, children, and infants, true or false

182
Q

What is a syndrome

A

A syndrome is a collection of signs and symptoms often affecting more than one organ and characterize a particular disease

183
Q

Scleroderma is one of the degenerative diseases true or false?

184
Q

What is etiology?

A

Study of all factors causing a disease

185
Q

This Bestos exposure has been linked to ________,which is a malignant cancer of the_________.

A

Mesothelioma

lungs

186
Q

When treatment, or a procedure causes a disease or condition, this is called_________.

187
Q

Disease of undetermined cause is called

A

Idiopathic

188
Q

In acute disease, the body recovers it tell me a stasis quickly, true or false?

189
Q

Ultraviolet radiation exposure increases the chance of__________.

A

Skin cancer

190
Q

What is pathophysiology?

A

Pathophysiology is the physical process associated with the disease

191
Q

What is pathogenesis?

A

Pathogenesis indicates the changes in the tissue affected by the disease

192
Q

What is epidemic?

A

An epidemic is an outbreak of disease spreading through one or more populations at a time

193
Q

Antioxidant such as vitamins a CE beta-carotene might slow the process of aging by preventing _________from oxidizing sensitive biological molecules or reducing their formation

A

Free radicals

194
Q

Mention seven diseases that are more associated with aging

A 
Diabetes type two 
cancer 
increased blood pressure benign prostatic hypertrophy 
Atherosclerosis 
osteoporosis 
hearing loss
195
Q

Mentioned seven diseases that are more common in adolescence

A 
Obesity
eating disorders mononucleosis 
spinal curvatures
testicular cancer 
chromosomal abnormality's 
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
196
Q

What are the four signs and symptoms of inflammation

A

Redness
pain
Warmth
swelling

197
Q

Acne vulgaris and juvenile rheumatoid arthritis are more common in the elderly then in adolescence true or false

198
Q

What is epidemiology?

A

Epidemiology is the study of the occurrence, distribution, and transmission of diseases in humans

199
Q

Communicable diseases I diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another, true or false

200
Q

Cushing’s Marphran’s downs
turner
Klinefelter’s are all___________

A

Congenital genetic syndromes

201
Q

Kwashiorkor is deficiency in protein intake true or false

202
Q

Skin problem is a benign growth caused by a human papilloma virus true or false?

203
Q

What are the two major organizations responsible for disease data collection?

A

The WHO

the CDC

204
Q

Exposure to specific dyes increases the likelihood of_________

A

Bladder cancer. The dyes are called tannins

205
Q

Ebola is an endemic epidemic or pandemic?

A

Ebola is an epidemic

206
Q

__________ is the most common type of bladder cancer.

A

Urethral carcinoma

207
Q

Mention five benign tumors that arise from connective tissue

A 
Lipoma
osteoma 
chondroma 
fibroma  
hemangioma
208
Q

What is apoptosis

A

Predetermined cell death in its genes

209
Q

Benign prostatic hypertrophy is more common in men less than 50 years old, true or false?

A

False benign prostatic hypertrophy is more common in men over 50 years old

210
Q

What is a pandemic

A

A pandemic is an epidemic affecting large geographical regions

211
Q

Scoliosis and lordosis are more common in children less than eight years old true or false

A

True- scoliosis and lordosis are more common in juveniles

212
Q

What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?

A

Incidence indicates the number of new cases associated with a particular population within a given time.
Prevalence is the number of new and old cases within a population and within a time.

213
Q

Patients with acne who are treated with radiation in the past developed _______cancer.

214
Q

Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease are auto immune diseases true or false?

215
Q

Mention five sarcomas

A 
Sarcomas-cancer that originates in fat or bone tissue. examples are: osteosarcoma 
liposarcoma 
fibrosarcoma 
leiomyosarcoma 
chondrosarcoma
216
Q

Mention four types of cancer that arise from the epithelial tissue

A

Cancers that arise from epithelial tissue are known as carcinomas.
examples are:
basal or Squamus cell carcinoma melanoma
adenocarcinoma
large or small cell carcinoma of the lung

217
Q

Mention five types of adenocarcinoma

A 
Adenocarcinoma is cancer that arises from glandular epithelium tissue.
Examples are:
Lung
breast
pancreatic 
ovarian
Colon
218
Q

Cancer that arises from the glandular epithelium is called_________

A

Adenocarcinoma

219
Q

What is endemic

A

An endemic is a disease native to a local region

220
Q

Lyme disease is epidemic in southern Maine true or false?

A

False. Lyme disease is endemic to southern Maine- meaning native.

221
Q

Marasmus is severe weight loss true or false?

222
Q

Mesothelioma is a benign disease true or false?

A

False mesothelioma is a deadly disease of the lungs

223
Q

What is remission?

A

Remission is a time during a serious illness or a patient’s health improves should remission become permanent it is said the patient has been cured

224
Q

Carcinoma is malignant tumor arising from epithelial tissue true or false

225
Q

What is prognosis?

A

The probability or likelihood of recovery or a good outcome

226
Q

What is the difference between morbidity and mortality?

A

Were but he indicates disease rates within a group.

Mortality indicates relative number of deaths for a particular disease with in a group

227
Q

Benign tumors do not spread, they grow slowly, and their cells are very well differentiated true or false?

228
Q

Benign tumor of the brain or the heart can be fatal because it disrupts the normal function of a vital organ true or false?

229
Q

Sir, is malignant tumor arising from the connective tissue, true or false?

230
Q

What does the term complications mean?

A

Complications means new or secondary additional problems that arise after the original disease

231
Q

Malignant tumors can metastasize through ______or _______to distant organs

A

The lymphatic system

Blood cells

232
Q

When malignant tumors spread to adjacent tissue this is called________

A

Invasion- metastasis

233
Q

Infection always involves inflammation true or false?

234
Q

Inflammation always involves infection true or false?

A

False information does not always involve infection however infection always involves inflammation

235
Q

Mention five examples of screening tests that are used as tools prevention of disease

A 
Pap smears
Breast self exam
Mammograms
Prostate exam
PSA numbers
236
Q

Exposure to ionizing radiation can cause________ in the cell’s DNA – causing gene mutations, cancer or death of cells. That’s why _________women can’t have x-ray, CT, or mammogram done.

A

Ionization

Pregnant

237
Q

The decreased _______of cervical cancer is due to the human papilloma virus vaccination and to Pap smear tests

238
Q

Single gene disorders follow up Mendelian inheritance patterns, true or false?

239
Q

What are the three skin cancers that might develop from long periods of exposure to sunlight or to tanning lamps or beds?

A

Basal or
Squamous cell skin carcinoma’s

Melanoma

240
Q

AIDS patients are at a risk of developing_______ sarcoma.

241
Q

What is mortality?

A

the number of deaths in a population from a particular disease

242
Q

People who I have BRCA1 and or BRCA 2 mutated have decreased risk of breast and ovarian cancer true or false?

A

False people who have a mutated BRCA1 and or BRCA2 have an increased risk of breast and ovarian cancer

243
Q

In turner syndrome, girls only have one sex chromosome X true or false?

244
Q

Exposure to infrared radiation may cause permanent I damage, true or false?

245
Q

Ashkenazi Jews are more susceptible to breast, ovarian, and prostate cancer’s true or false?

246
Q

Autosomal dominant disorder means that even if you inherit the trait from one parent only you will still have the disease true or false?

247
Q

Autosomal recessive disorder means that you have to inherit the trait from both parents to have the disease true or false?

A

True. Should you only carry the trait from one parent, you will not have the disease but you will be called a carrier

248
Q

Petaluma is malignant tumor of the skin true or false

A

False. Papilloma is a benign tumor of the skin caused by the HPV virus

249
Q

Autosomal recessive disorder means if you inherit the treat from only one parent you will be a carrier of the disease, but will not have the disease true or false?

250
Q

Having a trait on both genes from the dad and the mom is called homozygous treat true or false?

251
Q

Heterozygous genes in regards to a specific disease trait means one gene is normal and the other is abnormal true or false?

252
Q

What are symptoms and what are signs

A

Signs are objective abnormalities that can be seen or measured.
Symptoms – subjective abnormalities felt by the patient.

253
Q

Testicular cancer is more common in men over 40 years old, true or false?

A

False. Testicular cancer is more common in men under 40 years old.

254
Q

Patients who underwent splenectomy for example after a motor vehicle accident or a sports are susceptible to develop infections with________and_______.

A

Strep pneumonia

Meningitis

255
Q

What are five auto immune diseases?

A 
Lupus
Rheumatoid arthritis
Hashimoto's Disease
Graves Disease
Scleroderma
256
Q

Example of benign germ cell tumor is a

A

Cystic teratoma

257
Q

In down syndrome, patients have three sets of chromosomes number 18 true or false?

A

False. In down syndrome there at three sets of chromosomes on number 21

258
Q

Multiple melanoma is a benign tumor, true or false

A

False multiple melanoma is a stage III cancer

259
Q

Melanoma is a malignant tumor of the skin arising from_________, cells that produce melanin, the pigment responsible for skin color

A

Melanocytes

260
Q

Give two examples of carcinogens

A

Smoking

Tannins – dyes

261
Q

Mention three diseases that are considered multi factorial disorders meaning both genetics and environmental factors are involved

A

Lung cancer
Letter cancer
Mesothelioma

262
Q

Germ cell tumor’s can be a nine or malignant, true or false?

263
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is an acute disease or false?

A

False rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic disease

264
Q

What is prodromal period? Give one example of a disease that has a prodromal period.

A

Prodromal period is a period With possibly non-positive test results & vague symptoms. Damage from the disease has not yet been done as it has recently been acquired

Hep C

265
Q

What are the two definitions of pathology?

A

Study of disease

Study of disease tissue under a microscope

266
Q

Colon cancer tends to run in families, true or false?

267
Q

______ virus is associated with cervical cancer

268
Q

Malignancy arising from the blood cells are: _________&________.

A

Leukemia

Lymphoma

269
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

Overproduction of cells

270
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

Over generation of abnormal, undifferentiated tumor cells.

271
Q

What is the term used to describe severe loss of appetite and weight in cancer patients?

272
Q

Abnormal jeans that can be involved in cancer are called________.

273
Q

Chemicals that can affect genes causing abnormal cell reproduction are called _________.

A

Carcinogens

274
Q

Two cancers that usually are detected late are ______ and ____.This is due to their presence in areas where they can grow large before they are detected.

A

Ovarian cancer

Pancreatic cancer

275
Q

jaundice can be the symptom of ________cancer when it obstructs the CBD.

A

Pancreatic

276
Q

Hematuria can be a symptom of ______or ______cancer.

A

Kidney

Bladder

277
Q

Postmenopausal bleeding may be associated with endometrial cancer, true or false?

278
Q

Coughing maybe caused by ______cancer.

279
Q

Mention three examples of lumps and the positions they are felt by patients that might turn out to be cancerous

A

Lumps in the thyroid
Lumps in the breast
Lumps on the testes

280
Q

What does recurrence mean?

A

Recurrence is when a disease comes back

281
Q

What are tumor markers?

A

Tumor markers are substances in the body found when cancer is present. Sometimes they are used as monitoring numbers

282
Q

__________ is the removal of small piece of tissue and the process of sending it for histological examination.

A

Tissue biopsy procedure

283
Q

What is PSA?

A

Prostate specific antigen. This is a test used to monitor for cancer markers for men with benign prostatic hypertrophy

284
Q

Staging of cancer use the system called________.

A

TNM- tumor node metastases

285
Q

Staging and grading cancer is very important to decide for the best management, true or false?

286
Q

In order for the position stage cancer, diagnostic imaging modalities are used. For example x-rays in the mammograms, CT, MRI, pet scan, and ultrasound. True or false?

287
Q

In staging cancer, T stands for______, N stands for_______, and M stands for_______.

A

Tumor
Node
Metastases

288
Q

And some types of cancer, T1 might indicate smaller tumors than in other types of cancer, true or false?

289
Q

In-situ cancer has the worst prognosis true or false?

A

False in situ cancer has the best prognosis

290
Q

Stage 2 cancer has a better prognosis then stage 4, true or false?

291
Q

Stage four cancer always indicate distant metastases, true or false?

292
Q

Grading of cancer – what does it mean?

A

Grading of cancer is the appearance of the cancer cells under a microscope.

293
Q

Grade 3 has worse prognosis in grade one, true or false?

294
Q

Cells of cancer in grade 3 look angry or aggressive under the microscope, true or false?

295
Q

Grade III cancer of the same size and lymph nodes status has a substantially higher chance of being able to spread then a grade one cancer, true or false?

296
Q

When performing surgery to resect a tumor, the surgeon make sure that the removed mass has clean margins, true or false?

297
Q

______ or______ happens when microscopic deposits of cancer cells outside the resected area go undetected and these deposits grow into cancer

A

Secondary cancer

Cancer recurrence

298
Q

What is adjuvant treatment

A

Adjuvant treatment is extra treatment after resection to improve cure or survival rates

299
Q

What does adjuvant treatment include?

A

Chemo

radiation

300
Q

Chemotherapy can be used to cheer and control cancer or to shrink the size of cancerous masses so they are easier to resect, true or false?

301
Q

Radiation therapy can be used to cure some types of cancers, for example lung cancer true or false?

302
Q

Hormonal therapy is used in __________cancers.

A

Breast
Prostate
Testicular

303
Q

______ is plastic surgery that is done after mastectomy.

A

Reconstruction

304
Q

________ is used after removal of the cancer is segment of the esophagus to improve the quality of life

A

And esophageal stent

305
Q

There are over 100 types of HPV, some of them cause the regular boards we see on the hands and fingers for example, others can cause sexually transmitted disease is and I link to cervical cancer, true or false?

306
Q

What is the term used for the procedure that’s done on patients who had their colon resected due to colon cancer?

A

Colonostomy

307
Q

What is the term used for the procedure that is done on patient who has had their ileum resected due to Crohn’s disease?

Patient Care Practice Test #3 (1 decks)

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