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FW > Test 3 C-12 AQC > Flashcards

Test 3 C-12 AQC Flashcards

1
Q

Define Performance Based Navigation.

A

An advanced, satellite-enabled form of air navigation that creates precise 3-D flight paths.

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2
Q

Define Area Navigation.

A

RNAV is a key enabler of PBN; it is a set of specifications that define flight paths and validate aircraft position.

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3
Q

All named waypoints in the GPS database are identified with a _______ designation provided by the National Flight Data Center (NFDC).

A

Five-letter

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4
Q

Use of DD Form 1801 (DoD International Flight Plan) or equivalent FAA Form 7233-4 is recommended for domestic IFR flights and required by the FAA for filers desiring assignment of ___________ or other PBN routing.

A

RNAV SIDs and STARs

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5
Q

Two levels of GPS accuracy are available: Standard Positioning Service (SPS) and ___________.

A

Precise Positioning Service (PPS)

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6
Q

Pilots will check GPS NOTAMs and/or Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) prior to flight.

A

True

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7
Q

An area in which ATC may provide random radar vectors during uninterrupted climb from runway to Minimum Vectoring Altitude is called ______________.

A

Diverse Vector Area

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8
Q

A suitable GPS system may also be used as a means to navigate on the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure based on a VOR, TACAN or NDB signal without the need to monitor the underlying NAVAID.

A

False

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9
Q

The C-12U is authorized to perform RNAV(GPS) approach procedures to the _____________ minimums.

A

LNAV

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10
Q

Required Navigation Performance - Authorization Required, or RNP-AR approaches will always have (GPS) in the approach title.

A

False

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11
Q

In the unlikely event of complete radio failure, follow the procedures described in the ___________ for two-way radio communications failure.

A

FIH

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12
Q

The PT6A-42 engine has two igniter plugs which are located at ____________.

A

4 o’clock and 9 o’clock

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13
Q

The outlet pressure at the high-pressure fuel pump is _______.

A

900 - 1100 psi

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14
Q

The torque limiter monitors torquemeter oil pressure, and if the engine produces excessive torque, the limiter bleeds off governing air pressure within the FCU to reduce fuel flow, which in turn ___________.

A

reduces N1 speed

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15
Q

The oil pressure caution range below 21,000 feet is ________.

A

85-100 psi

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16
Q

The max torque percent with less than 1600 propeller RPM is ________.

A

49%

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17
Q

Normal climb and cruise TGT is _______.

A

770 C

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18
Q

All Emergency and Abnormal Operations Procedures can be found in which chapter of the flight manual?

A

Chapter 9

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19
Q

Beta and reverse blade angles are controlled by the ________ in the beta and reverse range.

A

power levers

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20
Q

If the primary governor fails, the overspeed governor will activate at approximately ____________.

A

2080 RPM

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21
Q

When the left propeller is operating at a higher RPM, a black and white cross pattern Synchroscope located on the pilot’s instrument panel will ________.

A

spin in the direction of the higher RPM propeller.

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22
Q

The AUTOFEATHER system will not activate unless the AUTOFEATHER switch is in ARM, the power levers are at the 90% N1 or greater position, and ____________.

A

the high and low pressure switches sense torque loss

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23
Q

The maximum propeller overspeed limit is ___________ RPM and is time-limited to 5 seconds.

A

2200

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24
Q

During approach, propellers should be set to at least _________ RPM to prevent glideslope interference (ILS approach), provide better power response during approach, and minimize altitude change when advancing propeller levers for landing.

A

1900

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25
Q

If an overspeed condition occurs that cannot be controlled with the propeller lever or by reducing power, the first step the pilot must accomplish is ____________.

A

Power Lever (affected engine)- IDLE

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26
Q

What is the 1st step if an engine fails AFTER the aircraft has accelerated to recommended decision speed (V1)?

A

POWER- Maximum allowable

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27
Q

If an engine fails during final approach, do NOT feather propeller unless ________,________, and ___________ permit or conditions require it?

A

time, distance, and altitude

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28
Q

When landing with two engines inoperative, after reaching a suitable landing area, enter a ___________ pattern to best observe surface conditions, wind velocity, and direction.

A

circular

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29
Q

Typical engine relight occurs in ___________ seconds, it may take as long as 10 seconds or more based on ambient conditions.

A

2 to 5

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30
Q

If an engine malfunctions during flight, ___________ control of the aircraft while maintaining the heading, or complete a turn as required.

A

maintain

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31
Q

Landing assured is defined as ______________.

A

The point on final where the decision to extend flaps beyond APPROACH is based on the ability to remain VMC until touchdown and the need to start reducing airspeed gradually so as to arrive at Vref plus one-half the wind gust spread at approximately 50 feet above the landing area.

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32
Q

The TWR-850 WXR can detect and display weather out to the ___________ NM range.

A

300

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33
Q

The TWR-850 in the C-12U consists of a ____________ inch antenna that transmits a __________ degree beam.

A

12, 8

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34
Q

Test pattern consists of ___________ colored arcs sweeping across the display. Fifth arc changes between magenta and red on alternate antenna scans.

A

six

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35
Q

Turbulence detection and display is available at what display ranges?

A

5, 10, 20, 40 NM

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36
Q

Pressing the __________ button on the center DCP allows for quicker refresh rate of the WXR display.

A

SEC

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37
Q

Turbulence is displayed as _________ dots or speckles.

A

magenta

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38
Q

The WX-1000 Stormscope is a __________ system, capable of detecting and displaying lightning strike data.

A

passive

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39
Q

Discharge points can be cleared with the _____________ button, allowing for better analyzing of displayed lightning data.

A

CLEAR

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40
Q

Pitot heat should not be used for more than _________ while the aircraft is on the ground.

A

15 minutes

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41
Q

Pitot masts overheating may damage the ________.

A

heating elements

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42
Q

The Stall Warning Heat System heating elements protect the ______ from ice; however, a buildup of ice on the wing may change or disrupt the airflow and prevent the system from accurately indicating an imminent stall.

A

lift transducer vane and faceplate

43
Q

The Stall Warning Heat System level of heat is minimal for ground operation and automatically increased for flight operation through the ______.

A

landing gear safety switch

44
Q

The Normal Pitot Static System provides ________ source(s) of static air to the flight instruments through two static air fittings on each side of the aft fuselage.

A

two

45
Q

The Alternate Static System provides a source of static air for the _______ instruments in the event of source failure from the static air line.

A

pilot’s

46
Q

The oil-to-fuel heat exchanger, located on each engine accessory case, is operated ______ to heat the fuel sufficiently to prevent freezing of any water in the fuel.

A

continuously and automatically

47
Q

Each fuel governing line is protected against ice by _____ heated jackets.

A

electrically

48
Q

To help prevent windshield cracking, windshield heat should be placed in the NORMAL position for at least ______ minutes prior to using the HIGH position.

A

15

49
Q

Erratic operation of the _____ may occur while windshield heat is being used.

A

magnetic compass

50
Q

Minimum ________ minute supply of supplemental oxygen shall be available at or above 14,000 feet.

A

10

51
Q

If the Oxygen System pressure is below _______, do not attempt to service system. Make an entry on DA Form 2408-13-1.

A

200 psi

52
Q

Do not operate windshield wipers on _______ glass. Such action can damage the linkage as well as scratch the windshield glass.

A

dry

53
Q

The windshield wiper ______ setting will return the blades to their normal inoperative position on the glass.

A

PARK

54
Q

To service the electric toilet, the waste tank may be ______.

A

removed

55
Q

Pressing the aircraft toilet PRESS TO FLUSH switch applies _______ power to the motor, which drives the pump.

A

DC

56
Q

________ permanently mounted, adjustable sun visors are provided for pilot and copilot use.

A

Two

57
Q

When adjusting the sun visors, grasp only by the __________ to avoid damage to the fragile plastic shield.

A

top metal attachement

58
Q

Engine bleed air is plumbed to the power pack to _________.

A

Prevent pump cavitation

59
Q

Landing gear extension or retraction time is approximately _________.

A

6 seconds

60
Q

The nose landing gear ________ when retracted.

A

Is automatically centered

61
Q

How is the landing gear down position indicated?

A

3 lights on pilots subpanel

62
Q

The landing gear can be cycled ___________ times followed by a ___________ minute cool-down.

A

6, 15

63
Q

Landing gear manual extension could require ________ strokes to achieve full extension.

A

80

64
Q

The elevator is used to ___________ the airplane.

A

pitch

65
Q

The wing flap position indicator will read how much percent of travel when the wing flap control switch is positioned to TAKEOFF AND APPROACH?

A

40%

66
Q

Selecting Bank Limit mode on the autopilot controller provides lower maximum bank angle while in which select mode?

A

HDG

67
Q

When IAS is selected on the mode selector, it overrides the APR, CAP, GA, ALT, VS, and ____________ modes.

A

ALTSEL CAP

68
Q

Either pilot TCS button will permit changing of the autopilot regardless of which pilot has control of the autopilot. However, use of the TCS will cancel the other pilot flight director __________ mode.

A

GA

69
Q

If AP FD 2 is selected, the annunciators, AP FLT DIR NO. 2, located above the _______________, and the annunciator, AP FLT DIR NO. 2, located above the pilot altimeter, will illuminate.

A

co-pilot airspeed indicator

70
Q

The maximum wing flap extension speed with the flap selector set to APPROACH is _____________ KIAS.

A

199

71
Q

The maximum positive load factor maneuvering limit with flaps up is ___________ Gs.

A

3.17

72
Q

Moisture entering or condensing in the elevator trim control clutch assembly can freeze in flight, locking the trim in a ____________ position.

A

cruise

73
Q

When landing with the wing flaps up, the approach angle will be ________ and the touchdown speed will be ________ resulting in a longer landing roll.

A

shallow, higher

74
Q

Define critical engine.

A

Engine whose loss presents the greatest controllability problem.

75
Q

Vmc is highly sensitive to which condition?

A

Bank angle.

76
Q

____________ air is tapped off each engine from the third stage of the compressor section, routed through the fire seal, and combined with ambient air through the pressurization and heating flow control unit in each nacelle. Tempered air is then ducted into the cabin.

A

Bleed

77
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of the pressurization? system?

A

Flow control valve

78
Q

If change in cruise altitude is necessary, select the new altitude (cruise altitude ___________ ft or departure field pressure altitude __________ ft, whichever is higher) on the CABIN ALT/ACFT ALT dial of the cabin altitude controller.

A

+1000, +500

79
Q

Which of the following is NOT used in determining the Pressure Controller Setting for Landing?

A

Temperature

80
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential pressure is ____________.

A

6.0+-0.1 psi

81
Q

Cabin air pressure rate of descent must not exceed ___________ when extended range fuel tanks (ferry tanks) are installed in the cabin and fuel caps are on.

A

1500 fpm

82
Q

Do not attempt to check security of cabin door or cargo door in flight. Remain as far from doors as possible with seatbelts securely fastened. This is a _________ associated with cabin door annunciator illuminated.

A

WARNING

83
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the procedure for cracked or shattered windshield?

A

Altitude- Maintain 10,000 feet or less.

Procedure:
Pressurization (CABIN ALT) controller-Reset pressure differential to maintain 2.0 to 4.6 psid.
Altitude- Maintain 25,000 feet or less.
Depressurize cabin prior to landing

84
Q

The flow control unit controls the flow of _________ and __________ air.

A

ambient; bleed

85
Q

The landing gear safety switch ________.

A

closes the ambient air valve on the ground and opens it in flight

86
Q

Ambient air mixes with cabin air during ______.

A

pressurized and unpressurized flight.

87
Q

The aft vent blower operates continuously when the switch is placed in the _______ position and there is a _________ command.

A

ON; cool

88
Q

The Air Conditioning System uses a _______.

A

automotive style compressor on the right engine

89
Q

The N1 speed switch will prevent electrical power from being delivered to the compressor clutch when engine RPM is below _______ RPM

A

65%

90
Q

Allow ________ for cabin air temperature to stabilize.

A

3 to 5 minutes

91
Q

The L/R BL AIR FAIL annunciators may ______ during simultaneous surface de-ice and brake de-ice operations at low N1 speed.

A

momentarily illuminate

92
Q

The Duct Overtemperature Light checklist ________.

A

is considered corrected at any point during the procedure that the light extinguishes

93
Q

The _________ is an airborne system that interrogates Mode A, C, and S transponders in nearby aircraft and uses the replies to identify and display potential and predicted collision threats to the flight crew.

A

traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS II)

94
Q

Define Closest Point of Approach (CPA).

A

The predicted point in space at which the intruder will be closest to your aircraft

95
Q

The solid (filled) cyan diamond TCAS symbol, with the number +10 above it and an arrow pointing downward would indicate:

A

“Proximate” traffic, 1000 feet above own ship and descending at greater than 500 feet per minute.

96
Q

If the TCAS II TVSI is selected to ABV (Above), this setting would display ____________ feet above and ___________ feet below the aircraft altitude. Used during takeoff and climbs.

A

9900, 2700

97
Q

The TCAS II system installed on the C12U1 aircraft is tested through which transponder?

A

Both A and B

98
Q

Where is the Honeywell Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System physically located?

A

Avionics bay in the nose of the aircraft

99
Q

Where is the EGPWS Circuit Breaker located?

A

Pilot left subpanel

100
Q

Bank angle advisories are inhibited below _____________ ft?

A

5

101
Q

When is it permissible to deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

To comply with a EGPWS warning.

102
Q

What does the color magenta indicate on the MFD terrain display?

A

Terrain data is unavailable for that particular area.

103
Q

The EGPWS terrain display may be used as a primary means of navigation.

A

False

FW (6 decks)

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