Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

PHM monitors which sensors?

A
  1. Stress

2. Corrosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

PHM stress sensor data does what?

A
  1. Provides long term airframe life data

2. May contribute to an “over-G” ICAW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Radar node status -> “safe” in MSSTAT page means what?

A

The system is functioning correctly but inhibited from emitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PHM data compiled on what?

A

ICP and DMC-L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ground personnel can download data via what?

A

PMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PHM major functions include?

A
  1. Enhanced diagnostics
  2. Material conditioning assessment
  3. Automatic data collection and health reporting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

BIT OSB is what color and why?

A

Cyan when selectable, gray when not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Goal of PHM is to provide:

A

Total picture of A/C health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A/C interface health management allows PHA information to be downloaded to ALIS via

A
  1. Data link
  2. PMA
  3. PMD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Once in a tactical mode, holding WMS in direction for >= 0.5 sec will do what?

A

Choose next avail weapon type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Master arm in ARM, weapons -> flight, LG down, _______ displays on HMD?

A

ARM (with a line through it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Internal weapon bays can carry what types of weapons?

A

A/A and A/S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Functions on SMS control page?

A
  1. EXCM prog
  2. SJ
  3. Inv prog
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Conditions for inv verification?

A
  1. PMD inv load

2. Manual inv change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Passive weapons in SMS are what color?

A

Gray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which ICAWs associated w/ faults stores gives an “SMS LOAD INVALID” indication on the SMS page?

A
  1. Inv mismatch in red container

2. Red “M” below affected store

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

SMS fault of __________ indicates the loaded inv does not match detected stores. __________ indicates ability of FCS to monitor CG degd.

A

“SMS LOAD INVALID”

“FCS CG DEGD”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If a weapon has failed, what appears?

A

Red w/solid line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

SMS page and buttons that allow to view, change, and control weapons?

A
  1. SMS CNTL
  2. WPN-A
  3. SMS INV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Jettison switch positions?

A

ALL, EXT, SEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Weapon can be launched w/weapon status of?

A

Degraded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

WBD won’t open in flight w/ __________ displayed?

A

“SMS GROUND SAFE”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How to get to A/S mode w/ the WMS (short) button?

A

Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If gun fails, text and color of gun are?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

SMS operations?

A
  1. Place weapons in inv
  2. Jettison weapons in unarmed state
  3. Condition weapons for release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Weapons inv loaded into A/C via __________ or manually via _________?

A

PMD; PCD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Active NTSW is _________ and passive is ________?

A

White, Gray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

TheAMT and rate of energy absorption, emission or reflection differ based on energy __________.

A

Wavelength and atmospheric attenuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

NVC uses reflected energy and requires ___________.

A

Ambient light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

DAS has ________ cameras?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

During DAS power up, INIT, and BIT, the STBY OSB displays as what?

A

Gray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

AGC/MGC OSB only available when you select _______ for display on HMD?

A

DAS video

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Besides B/O view normally on HMD, the PCD HUD can display?

A

DAS fwd-looking IR (FLIR) view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which are indications of individual cam malfunction in DAS?

A
  1. Degraded indications on TWD
  2. Gap in coverage
  3. An ICAW
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

With “DAS FAIL” message, what appears on TWD?

A

Red, solid arc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What kind of arc displays on TWD page in any quadrant with DAS degd?

A

Red or yellow, solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

With HMD as DOI, a long DMS right:

A

Toggles video on/off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

DAS control page allows adjusting of _________ on PCD?

A

Gain and Level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

HMD can display which EM spectrum?

A

MWIR; NIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A/A view, DAS video controlled on what?

A

NTS air trk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

To enter operate mode of DAS after INIT, select ________ OSB.

A

STBY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

DAS sensors are cooled how?

A

By PAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

DAS limitations?

A
  1. Parallax errors

2. Close-in blind spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If “DAS HOT LS” illuminates, power cycled on what page?

A

Avionics power (on/off) page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Airborne particles (sand, dust, smoke, haze) affect ________ sensor the least?

A

DAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Cycle WHOT/BHOT by pressing ________ HOTAS with DAS page as POI

A

Polarity control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

DAS video provides a night vision capability that supports T/O, NAV, and landing in __________.

A

Complete darkness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

INIT and BIT complete, DAS enters ________ mode.

A

STBY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which NVD is needed to view NIR spectrum?

A

NVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

DAS cameras see what spectrum?

A

MWIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

FCS/ENG reset speed

A

<400 KCAS / 0.9 M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ICAWs w/surface lost or A/C on reduced power restrictions?

A
  1. <15 kts xw

2. Approach end arrest cable (if req’d)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which two ICAWs are never filtered?

A

“NWS FAIL”

“IPP FAIL”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When departing the prepared surface, you must shut off the engine because of potential ________.

A

FOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

“BLEED LEAK IPP” leads to what?

A

“IPP FAIL”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Ground: “COOL FAIL ENG” message means you should do what?

A

Shutdown the engine as soon as practical

57
Q

Egress when?

A

FIRE/BLEED LEAK

58
Q

“BRAKES FAIL” and departing prepared surface, you must do what?

A

Shutdown engine

59
Q

When NWS is off, use _______ to steer?

A

Differential braking

60
Q

“GEN OIL HOT” means what?

A

ESG is overheating

61
Q

TRS operates when?

A

Always, regardless of position of canopy or ASE handle

62
Q

With fuel cooled systems getting hot, what’s the cause?

A

Quantity (low fuel)

63
Q

With “HYD COLD” ICAW, do what to cycle hydraulics?

A

On the ground, cycle weapon bay doors

64
Q

What systems are fuel cooled?

A

PHM, FADECS, ICC 1/2

65
Q

How much distance prior to the cable arrestment should the hook be dropped?

A

800-1500’

66
Q

“BLEED LEAK” will last how long?

A

Up to 45 seconds for light to go out, even if temperature decreases below trigger

67
Q

“FCS DEGD” causes?

A
  1. EU
  2. EHA
  3. Loss of electrical power
68
Q

With an engine bay fire on T/O, what should you do first?

A

Get to min safe altitude and airspeed

69
Q

Reasons for AB fail?

A
  1. No light
  2. Blow out
  3. No light when reselected
70
Q

“FIRE GR” means a fire where?

A

MLG

71
Q

Aborted T/O, put hook down when?

A

1500-800’ before cable

72
Q

With “HYD FAIL B”, you lose?

A
  1. Norm gear
  2. AR latching
  3. NWS
73
Q

When taking a cable, you should:

A
  1. be in IDLE
  2. 3 point attitude
  3. Feet off wheel brakes
74
Q

With a “FLAMEOUT” and an abort is impossible, you should

A

Eject

75
Q

Ejection controlled altitude

A

2k’ AGL

76
Q

On T/O, MIL power, “ENG COMM FAIL”, engine page grays out… what does the engine do?

A

Engine will stay in MIL power

77
Q

Where does the AR planning info live?

A

Pubs

78
Q

Wx obtained by?

A

Pilot (you)

79
Q

Refuel button does what?

A
  1. Doors open

2. CLAWs to A/R

80
Q

Once done refueling, disconnect, stabilize then:

A

Post A/R checklist

81
Q

Clearance to join tanker, go to

A

Echelon L

82
Q

Join tanker from below with at least

A

1K’ vertical separation

83
Q

Tanker turns @ ____ ˚ bank

A

25

84
Q

Tanker rendezvous (RV) without radar contact, stay outside

A

1NM and 1K’ alt until visual

85
Q

Initial report to tanker during RV requires?

A
  1. Switches safe

2. # in flight

86
Q

Director lights tell you what?

A
  1. Up/Down

2. Fwd/Aft

87
Q

Flashing red once starting to refuel means

A

Move forward with small corrections

88
Q

Pre A/R checklist includes putting things to

A

STBY/OFF

89
Q

If you see A/R fuel spray, tell

A

Tanker

90
Q

If you lost comm with tanker and you see flashing lights and anti-collision lights flashing, you should

A

Break away

91
Q

A/R rate of transfer

A

1500 ppm

92
Q

HMD indication to start refueling

A

“RDY”

93
Q

Cleared to climb to tanker formation once you make

A

Visual contact

94
Q

L side of the tanker is used for

A

Joining

95
Q

Depart via climbing or descending

A

after coordinating

96
Q

KC-10

A
  1. UHF/VHF

2.

97
Q

Disconnect A/R via

A

Paddle

98
Q

As #2 in A/R, rejoin to

A

Echelon L

99
Q

A/R “EMER REFUEL” can’t

A

Close the AR door

100
Q

Suitable emergency landing considers what?

A
  1. GW
  2. WX conditions
  3. Severity of emergency
101
Q

With a “HYD B FAIL”, you lose

A
  1. Norm LG
  2. NWS
  3. IRCM door closing
102
Q

“GEN 2 FAIL”, min maneuvering because

A

LEF locked

103
Q

1st basic rule in dealing with A/C emergency?

A

Maintain A/C control

104
Q

Min out of control altitude?

A

6K’ AGL

105
Q

Checklist min maneuvering:

A

<16˚ AOA

106
Q

“GEN 1 FAIL”, A/S > ________ M while <10K’ MSL

A

0.35

107
Q

“FCS CH __ FAIL”, land within _____ mins

A

30

108
Q

“HYD DEGD A”, what is lost?

A
  1. Gun

2. L weapon bay doors

109
Q

High FF with failed BP may cause

A

“FUEL BOOST LO”

110
Q

Limit bank on flameout to ______ unless required

A

60˚

111
Q

“FCS POWER LIMIT”, limit A/S to

A

400 KCAS

112
Q

Sec com adds encryption to waveforms using

A

Cipher

113
Q

Yellow waveform

A

May be started at given sec level

114
Q

AJ added to SINCGARS only on what waveform?

A

VHF

115
Q

Mode 4/5 alert, comm up switch w/in __________ sec will suppress alert for 3 mins

A

5

116
Q

HQ is only on what waveform?

A

UHF

117
Q

HQ TOD uses A/C TOD disturbed by what system?

A

CNI

118
Q

Secure mode from com page places com unit in secure com mod ________ sec level of cipher selected

A

AT

119
Q

Last day of keys shows as what color?

A

Yellow

120
Q

IFFI allows interrogator to determine ______ and azimuth of responder

A

Range

121
Q

Magenta on the IFF FAB, which shows pilot interrogation, appears on which line?

A

Line 4

122
Q

“CNI RACK FAIL” B loses

A
  1. INTG

2. ILS/ICLS

123
Q

Starting waveform, options based on _______ (ready list)

A

Configuration and class GOL

124
Q

HQ combat prefix on FAB

A

A

125
Q

HQ I combat net starts with what two digits?

A

00

126
Q

Lethal white text w/red background means what two things?

A
  1. Not replied to valid mode 5 INTG

2. Disabled mode 5

127
Q

IFFG operating based on

A
  1. Modes
  2. EMCON
  3. Pilot/systems
128
Q

“CNI KEY KY58” means

A

Sec voice key is disabled

129
Q

AJ added to SINCGARS only to _______ waveforms

A

VHF

130
Q

High key altitude is increased by _______ feet for every ________ #’s GW

A

1K; 4K

131
Q

Landing at the nearest field means

A

Land as soon as possible

132
Q

Rules for approach and landing emergency

A
  1. Min maneuvering

2. If close to land

133
Q

“RUD FAIL DUAL” uncontrollable w/ > ______ ˚ deflection

A

5

134
Q

Turn engine off (in a flameout)

A

No later than high key

135
Q

Flameout pattern types

A
  1. St-in
  2. Over-dome
  3. Random entry
136
Q

You lose ____ when you alt gear extend

A

NWS

137
Q

Both rudder fail, best flying w/

A

GR up, stabs streamlined

138
Q

Max bank in flameout

A

60˚