Test 3

Question 1

The exact definition of OMM research from the AOA Bureau of Research is, “Investigator has to state relevance of proposed project to Osteopathic philosophy and principles, theories, mechanisms, or practice”

Name the 6 OMM things that classify under this definition

Answer 1

Institutional, Autonomic and Immune function, Spinal cord facilitation, OMT efficacy, Whole patient care, All research at a COM?

Question 2

Name the person

1) Induced spinal lesions in animals and then noted the effects on their various organ systems
2) Helped to document the existence of somatic dysfunction (osteopathic lesion) by documenting and quantifying muscle, muscle reflex, and autonomic changes in the areas of SD
3) Performed studies using galvanic skin resistance and correlate that with plapatory findings of somatic dysfunction
4) Performed reliability studies, validity studies, and viscerosomatic reflex studies

Answer 2

1) Louisa Burns
2) J. Stedman Denslow
3) Irvin M. Korr
4) William L. Johnston

Question 3

Working with Louisa Burns, Dr. ___ validated the research that they performed (internal validation)

Answer 3

Wilbur Cole

Question 4

J.S. Denslow utilized ___ and ___ correlations to document spinal muscle reflex changes in areas of osteopathic lesions (SDs)

** Called “reflex activity in the Spinal Extensors”

He also was a pioneer in ____ proponent

Answer 4

EMG and palpation

standard terminology

Question 5

Dr. I.M. Korr worked with ___ and is credited for discovering the ___ flow and ___ function of nerves

He also termed the name ____ and he believed that all disease processes have a heightened sympathetic tone to the neurological system effecting an organ

• • This is why we care so much about sympathetic stuff
• • He also mapped out the levels of what organs have sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation

Answer 5

Denslow, Axoplasmic, trophic

sympatheticotonia

Question 6

Who brought modern peer reviewed research into the scientific literature from the osteopathic perspective?

Answer 6

Dr. Korr

Question 7

The second great philosopher of OM is who?

Answer 7

Korr

Question 8

What happened in 1918 and did DO or MD treatment save more lives?

What happened in 1932?

In 1999, what dysfunction was looked at in the published NEJM article? Which group had a better outcome? Also, __% of patients were satisfied with the care they received in both groups

Answer 8

Spanish influenza Epidemic, DO

Unit II L.A. County Osteopathic Hospital (DOs were in unit 2 and MDs were in unit 1)

Lower back pain, neither group had a better overall outcome (all patients got better, however DOs used lesses medication and PT), 90%

Question 9

One study on pancreatitis used ___ to treat half of the patients in the study and this lead to a decreased length of stay, decreased __ use, and increased patient satisfaction

Answer 9

general joint mobilization, analgesic (pain killers)

Question 10

Another study on __ showed OMT groups had decreased edema, pain, and increased ROM

Answer 10

ankle sprain

Question 11

A study with elderly pneumonia care was conducted and there was an experimental group that used OMT and there was a control group that used light touch (but this was just a sham to make them think OMT was being performed) and the first study showed OMT has a __ amount of antibiotics prescribed and __ length of stay; however, this test was repeated and the results __ (did or did not) hold up

Answer 11

decreased, decreased, did not

Question 12

A study on children 6months to 6 years old with otitis media (middle ear infection) showed that OMT group has ___ episodes of AOM, less procedures, and an __ frequency of normal tympanograms

** This was actually done by an MD

Answer 12

decreased, increased

Question 13

One old study on the ___ was redone and re-analyzed. The first study in 1934 looked at immunological cell counts and found with splenic pump, that ___

The most current study looked at cell __ to identify immune activation from ___ pump and results held up

Answer 13

Splenic pump, increased

labeling, abdominal

Question 14

There are __ cervical vertebra, and which ones are atypical

Answer 14

7, C1(atlas) and C2(axis)

Question 15

The atlas has no ___ and rotates around the __ of C2

The vertebral body of C2 extends superiorly to form the __

Answer 15

vertebral body, dens

dens (also called the odontoid process)

Question 16

The typical cervical vertebra start from the articulation between C__ and C__ and continues to C__

facets are in a plane that point towards the __ in the upper segments and towards the __ in the lower segments

Answer 16

C2-C3, C7

eye, opposite shoulder (or opposite ASIS)

Question 17

What are the 4 C spine lateral view lines?

Answer 17

Anterior vertebral line, posterior vertebral line, spinolaminar line, posterior spinous line

Question 18

A good view to look at facets and vertebral foramen is the C spine __ view

Answer 18

oblique

Question 19

Cerivcal spine flexion and extension is __ - __ degrees

Side bending is __ degrees

Rotation is __ degrees

** For all of these, you want to use __ motion first, and then you can use __ motion

Answer 19

45-90

45

70-90

active (they do it), passive (you do it)

Question 20

What type of SD is the OA joint and what are its major motions?

When diagnosing the OA joint, you should contact the __ aspect of the occiput with your __ fingers and the __ aspect with the __ finger (about at the transverse process of C1)

**^ The competency states for lateral translation, contact head with tips of 2nd and 3rd fingers of the __ and for rotational test, contact head with tips of fingers on the __

By lifting anteriorly on the left side, you asses ___ and vice versa

By translating to the left you asses __

Answer 20

Modified type 1 (so flexion and extension component but rotation and side bending are opposite), Flexion and extension **(Minor motions are SB and rotation)

posterior, middle, lateral, index

Occipital articulation, occipital ridge

Right rotation

Right side bending

Question 21

If you have a restriction to translation to the right, what is SB and Rotation?

If you have a restriction when you lift anteriorly on the right, you have a restriction to __ rotation aka the rotation is preferred to the right, so then what is SB and rotation

Answer 21

Sr and Rl

left Sl Rr

Question 22

The __ joint is between C1 and C2 and it’s primary motion is ___ via the __ rotating about the __

** It is an atypical cervical vertebra

** Flexion, extension, and side bending are NOT tested at this segment

Answer 22

AA (atlantoaxial joint), rotation, atlas, dens

Question 23

The proper position for testing the AA joint is to cup to __ and place fingers on the AA joint

** The competency says to contact the __ of the __, bilaterally

It is important to __ the C-spine to lock out rotation of C2-C7 in order to isolate the rotation to the atlas

Answer 23

occiput

lateral masses, atlas

flex

Question 24

Unlike the OA joint, when you rotate to the right, you are rotating right.

So in other words, lets say you rotate the head and neck to the right and feel a restriction. How would you document this in the soap note?

Answer 24

AA Rl

Question 25

Typical cervical vertebra are what type of SD

Answer 25

Type 2 ** Although if I remember properly, they can be a modified type 2 due to the fact that it can occur in grouped segments instead of single segments

Question 26

The proper position when performing the rotational test for the typical cervical vertebra is to place your fingers where? What about in the lateral translation test?

Answer 26

Posterior aspect of the TP (articular pillars aka lateral mass) ** Not on the tips of the TP Fingers over the tip of the TP in the midcoronal line ** OSCE says lateral borders of the articular pillars

Question 27

Rotational testing for typical cervical vertebra is also called __ and what plane does it occur in? What plane does translation occur in?

Answer 27

Rotoscoliosis testing, transverse Coronal

Question 28

Just like the OA joint, By lifting anteriorly on the left lateral mass side, you asses ___ and vice versa By translating to the left you asses __

Answer 28

right rotation right sidebending

Question 29

When testing for reflexes, name the dermatome level 1) Triceps 2) Biceps 3) Brachioradialis For testing the reflexes, you should tap your thumb with the reflex hammer over the tendon for __. For brachioradialis reflex, tap the tendon at the __ For triceps reflex, tap the tendon where is crosses the __

Answer 29

1) C7 2) C5 3) C6 biceps distal radius olecranon fossa

Question 30

DTRs (Deep tendon reflexes) are graded on a scale of __-__ and what is normal? ** Document under the neurological exam of the objective portion

Answer 30

0-4, +2/4 is normal ``` 0 = no response 1 = slight response 2 = brisk 3 = very brisk 4 = clonus (repeating reflex) ```

Question 31

___ test/maneuver looks for a herniated disk If a disk is herniated at L3/L4, what nerve root would be compressed? WHat are the three stages of the test? Also, what is a positive test for any of the three stages?

Answer 31

Spurlings L4 1) Compress head in neutral 2) Compress head in extension 3) Compress head in side bending position, first away from affected side and then towards effected side + test is pain down arm in the distribution of the nerve root indicating nerve root compression

Question 32

The heart and lungs are located in the __ cage Also, much of the __ nervous system outflow arises from the thoracic spine

Answer 32

thoracic sympathetic

Question 33

There are __ thoracic spinal vertebrae This ribs attach to the superior and inferior __, along with the ribs touching the transverse costal facet and the vertebrae attach to more vertebrae at the superior and inferior __

Answer 33

12 costal facets, articular process

Question 34

Explain the rules of three

Answer 34

T1-T3: SP same plane as TP and VB T4-T6: SP in plane halfway between its own TP and the TP of the vertebra one below T7-T9: SP same plane as vertebra one level below T10: Like T7-T9 T11: Like T4-T6 T12: Like T1-T3

Question 35

What are the three anatomic regions of the thoracic vertebra What are the four functional divisions and name where their sympathetics go to **OMT can reduce somatic afferent input ``` Name the sympathetics 1) Gall bladder 2) Left colon 3) Small intestines 4) Lungs 5) Stomach 6) Kidney 7) Spleen 8) Duodenum 9) Gonads 10 Pelvic organs 11) Heart 12) Pancreas 13) Right colon ```

Answer 35

Upper (T1-T4) Middle (T5-T8) Lower (T9-T12) T1-T4: To head and neck T5-T9: To upper abdominal viscera T10-T11: To most of the lower abdominal viscera T12-L2: To remainder of the lower abdominal viscera 1) T5-T9 2) T12-T2 3) T10-T11 4) T1-T6* 5) T5-T9 6) T10-T11 7) T5-T9 8) T5-T9 9) T10-T11 10) T12-L2 11) T1-T6 12) T5-T9 13) T10-T11

Question 36

___'s law is the idea that bones and soft tissues deform according to the stresses that are placed on them ** AKA bones are laid down upon lines of stress

Answer 36

Wolffs **Can occur in scoliosis, kyphosis, arthritis, and leg length inequalities

Question 37

In the thoracic spine, __ion is greater than __ion due to the normal __ curvature and gravity Also, __ is greater in the thoracic spine compared to the lumbar spine Also, the motion capabilities in the thoracic spine is generally __ than the cervical and lumbar spine

Answer 37

flexion, extension, kyphotic rotation **Rotation is greater in the upper and middle portions and the lower thoracic spine moves similar to the lumbar spine less

Question 38

Side bending of the thoracic spine is limited by the __ and what three things that we talked about can limit lateral motion aka sidebending?

Answer 38

rib cage 1) Scoliosis/kyphosis 2) Upper and lower motor neuron lesions 3) Repetitive motion causing tethering

Question 39

What three small muscles of the back are often involved in postural stress and therefore can be responsible for maintaining SDs

Answer 39

Multifidus, Rotares, and Intertransversarii muscles

Question 40

Placing the patient in a Sphinx position is __ and placing them in a TV watching position is __

Answer 40

Flexion, extension

Question 41

For Type 1 and Type 2 prone evaluations of the thoracic vertebra, translatory glide can also be used to evaluate __ at each segment level. So for example, if you use a translatory glide to the right (aka from left to right) and you get a restriction, the patient is side bent __

Answer 41

Sidebending right (restriction to left sidebending)

Question 42

When testing for TV SDs, in passive Sidebending and rotation, you check the ___ TPs during the process

Answer 42

ipsilateral

Question 43

To locate T1, find the most prominent vertebra, ___ and it is right under it Scapula spine is at the level of ___ and the inferior angle of the scapula is at the spinous process level of __

Answer 43

C7 T3, T7 (transverse process of T8)

Question 44

Rotation can be up to __ degrees and sidebending up to __ degrees

Answer 44

90, 40

Question 45

Know the imaging for the thoracic spine

Answer 45

Easy stuff

Question 46

There are 12 ribs that correspond to the thoracic vertebrae. What ribs articulate with vertebrae above and below? What about ones that have unifacets and therefore only articulate with the corresponding vertebrae?

Answer 46

2-9 1,10-12

Question 47

Name the rib based on the attachment site 1) Posteriorly at the level of the scapular spine 2) Cartilage at the lowest part of the thoracic cage at the midclavicular line 3) Anteriorly attaches inferior to the clavicle and posteriorly attaches cephlad to the border of the scapula 4) Anteriorly articulates at the sternal angle 5) Anteriorly attaches at the xiphisternal joint and posteriorly at the level of the inferior angle of the scapula

Answer 47

1) Rib 3 2) Rib 10 3) Rib 1 4) Rib 2 5) Rib 7

Question 48

Typical ribs are __-__ and atypical are __s __ articulations of the typical ribs has the rib head's two facets articulate with the superior costal facet of the ___ vertebral segment, and the inferior costal facet of the ___ vertebral segment The tubercle of the rib articulates with the ___ of the __ vertebral segment and is called __ articulation The second rib attaches to the ___ muscle

Answer 48

Ribs 3-9 Ribs 1, 2, 10-12 **Note that 2-9 however, articulate with vertebra above and below and 1, 10, 11, 12 are only with their own vertebra Costovertebral, same, superior transverse process, same, costotransverse serratus anterior

Question 49

What type of SD is the OA joint and what is the primary motion it performs? Also, what is the side bending?

Answer 49

Modified type 1, flexion and extension Sidebending is opposite, because even though it has a flexion and extension component (part of a type 2 SD), it is modified type 1, so the SB and Rotation are opposite

Question 50

What are the inspiratory and expiratory muscles?

Answer 50

Inspiratory: Diaphragm contracting (flattening), and external intercostals elevating ribs. Also you have accessory muscles like SCM that elevates the sternum, scalene muscles, and various muscles in the head and neck like pec major, serratus anterior , etc. Expiratory: Abdominal muscles push diaphragm back up, and internal intercostals to depress the ribs. (Lecture says Rectus abdominus, Internal and external obliques, and transverse abdominus) However, normal quite breathing should be passive since the lung wants to contract anyway

Question 51

The SCM elevates the __, the Scalene muscles (anterior, medius, and posterior) elevate the __, and the ___ intercostals elevates the ribs

Answer 51

sternum, 1st and 2nd ribs, external

Question 52

Pump handle motion is analogous to __ and moves the ribs __ to increase to __ diamter Bucket handle motion is analogous to __ and moves the ribs __ to increase __ diameter Caliper motion is analogous to __ and has pivoting motion

Answer 52

flexion/extension, anteriorly, A/P abduction/adduction, laterally, transverse internal/external rotation

Question 53

Name the type of bucket and pump handle motion each rib has 1) Rib 1-2 2) Ribs 3-6 3) Ribs 7-10 4) Ribs 11 and 12

Answer 53

1) 50% bucket and 50% pump **Rib 2 is mainly pump 2) Mixed pump and bucket, although the more inferior the rib, the less pump handle and more bucket handle the rib is (according to the lecture notes, it is 2-6 and primarily pump handle although rib 6 if 50/50) 3) Primarily bucket handle although there can be pump handle dysfunctions 4) Caliper motion

Question 54

For ribs 1-2, where do you contact to feel for bucket handle motion? Where do you contact for pump handle motion?

Answer 54

Thumbs posteriorly on angles of rib 1 and index fingers placed in the supraclavicular fossa anterior to the trapezius, to feel for the superior lateral aspect of rib 1 Index fingers posterior to clavicle over the superior anterior aspect of rib 1 and middle and ring fingers placed over the anterior aspect of rib 2

Question 55

The most __ rib in a group exhalation dysfunction it the key rib to treat, and the most __ rib in an inhalation dysfunction is the key rib to treat

Answer 55

superior, inferior *Think I = I -> Inferior = Inhalation

Question 56

For ribs 3-10, where do you palpate for pump handle motion and what about bucket handle?

Answer 56

Pump = Costochondral articulations Bucket = Midaxillary line

Question 57

For ribs 11-12, unlike all the other ribs, the patient lays __ and you palpate where?

Answer 57

prone Thumb palpates posterior aspect and 2nd and 3rd fingers palpate the lateral and anterior aspects of the 11th and 12th ribs

Question 58

Restriction of motion for the 11th and 12th rib is influenced by __, which is functionally an extension of the __ so if you have a problem with this, you can effect the quality of diaphragm excursion

Answer 58

quadratus lumborum, diaphragm ** SO pneumonia can result? if this is messed up

Question 59

Lets say you are palpating at the costochondral articulations of the 8th, 9th, and 10th rib and you feel the ribs move normal during inspiration and on the left side, they don't move normal back into position during expiration. How would you document this?

Answer 59

Left ribs 8-10 Inhalation group, pump handle somatic dysfunction

Question 60

An elevated (superior) first rib dysfunction is evaluated when the patient is __ and occurs when the doctor is palpating the ___ shaft of each first rib, immediately __ to the __ and index finger is used to palpate the ___ position. Then, a __ force is applied to the ribs and if a rib is prominent, painful, and has less spring on a downward pressure then it is an elevated rib dysfunction

Answer 60

seated, posterolateral, lateral, costotransverse articulation, anterior infraclavicular, caudad

Question 61

Who looked at pulmonary functions and OMM? Who looked at respiratory function and lumbar lordosis? ** Both found an increase in tidal volume

Answer 61

A.J Murphy Doran

Question 62

Inflammation of the costochondral junction is __ and what OMM areas would you treat? If you have a pneumonia, what viscerosomatic reflexes are fucked? Also, what OMM areas would you treat?

Answer 62

Costochondritis, Lymphatics, ribs, thoracic, sternum T1-6 (remember those cover the heart and lungs), Lymphatics, ribs, thoracic, lumbar

Question 63

Metabolic causes such as __ can lead to an easy fracture Iatrogenic causes (due to physical exam harm) such as in thoracotomy - lobectomy, or sternotomy - coronary bypass grafting, can cause problems The ribs and thoracic cage are also a common site for __

Answer 63

osteoporosis metastasis (cancer)

Question 64

There are __ lumbar vertebra The motion of the lumbar spine allows for mostly __ and __

Answer 64

5 flexion and extension (less side ending and rotation)

Question 65

When the sacrum becomes attached to L5, it is called ___ and when the S1 segment becomes fused with L5, it is called __

Answer 65

sacralisation of L5 lumbaristion of S1

Question 66

___ is a fracture in the pars interarticularis (aka neck of scotty dog gets fractured) and this leads to __ which is when you get an anterior slippage onto the vertebra usually at L5-S1 Also, what is a general term for degenerative changes?

Answer 66

Spondylolysis, Spondylolisthesis Spondylosis

Question 67

Know where ligamentum flavum is and posterior longitudinal ligament Also, a herniated disc is when the ___ leaks through the annulus fibrosis and causes compression of a nerve root

Answer 67

nucleus pulposus

Question 68

Spina Bifida occurs when the __ fail to fuse This, and other neural tube defects can be prevented via supplementation of __

Answer 68

lamina folate

Question 69

There are three types of Spina Bifida, name them 1) Meninges forced out between vertebral spaces (into the defect) 2) No spinal cord protrusion and may have a small patch of hair or dimple 3) Spinal cord has some part come out into the defect aka unfused portion of the spinal cord protrudes through an opening

Answer 69

1) Meningocele 2) Spina bifida occulta 3) Myelomeningocele

Question 70

Hypertrophy of posterior longitudinal ligament, thickening of the ligamentum flavum, osteoarthritis, exostoses, osteophytes, tumors, and disc rupture can all cause ___

Answer 70

spinal stenosis

Question 71

If a patient has pain or tingling in lower back, weakness or paralysis of lower extremity, and bladder and bowel incontinence, the problem can be __ You would pick up some of these red flags while doing the __ part of your physical

Answer 71

Cauda Equina syndrome ROS

Question 72

What does TART stand for?

Answer 72

Tissue texture changes, Asymmetry, Restriction of motion, Tenderness

Question 73

1) The limit of active motion is the __ barrier 2) The limit of passive motion is the __ barrier 3) The permanent restriction of joint motion associated with pathologic changes of tissue is the __ barrier

Answer 73

1) Physiologic 2) Anatomic 3) Pathologic

Question 74

Lumbar SP and TPs are at __ levels

Answer 74

the same

Question 75

In order to locate the lumbar spine, you can move ___ from the thoracic spine/ribs or ___ from the iliac crest/sacrum, which is at the level of about __

Answer 75

inferiorly, superiorly, L4

Question 76

TONGO is maintained by __ muscles Type 2 mechanics is maintained by __ muscles

Answer 76

long restrictor Intertranscersarii, Multifidus, Rotatores

Question 77

According to the notes, type 1 lists __ first and type 2 lists __ first

Answer 77

SB, Rotation

Question 78

The sacrum and lumbar spine move in the __ direction

Answer 78

opposite **So when the lumbar flexes, the sacrum extends

Question 79

Viscerosomatic reflexes are also called segmental facilitation and are nerves originating from different segments of the spinal cord that innervate our visceral organs. Sympathetics originate from the __ region and parasympathetics originate from the __ region

Answer 79

thoracolumbar, craniosacral **(think sympathetic sandwich)

Question 80

Name the viscerosomatic reflex 1) Pancreas * 2) Kidneys * 3) Ovaries * 4) Ureters * 5) Testes * 6) Adrenals 7) Appendix * 8) Uterus 9) Urinary bladder 10) Colon * 11) Prostate 12) Rectum 13) Anus

Answer 80

1) T6-T9 (bilateral) 2) T10-L1 (Corresponding side) 3) T10-L1 (Corresponding side) 4) T10-L1 (Corresponding side) 5) T10-L1 (Corresponding side) 6) T10-L1 7) T11-L2 (On right with associated rib) 8) T10-L2 9) L1-L2 10) T8-L2 (ascending on right, descending in left) 11) L1-L2 12) L1-L2 13) L1-L2

Question 81

___ are tender points (palpable as small smooth firm nodule) that are indicative of visceral dysfunction Name the organs associated with the anterior points 1) Periumbilical 2) 5th ICS 3) 6th ICS 4) 7th ICS Name the 6 posterior point organs

Answer 81

Chapman's reflexes 1) Adrenal, kidney, bladder 2) Stomach (left), Liver (right) 3) Stomach (left), Liver/gallbladder (right) 4) Spleen (left), pancreas (right) Kidney, Bladder, Urethra, Uterus, Colon, Pelvic organs

Question 82

The L4 nerve root for deep tendon reflexes checks for the __ reflex and is located between the __ - __ disc The S1 nerve root checks for __ reflex and is located between the __ - __ disc **For any nerve root, such as L5, just know it is between that segment and one below (so L5-S1 disc)

Answer 82

Patellar, L4-L5 Achilles, S1-S2

Question 83

For the motor exam, the L4 nerve root is tested via __, the L5 is tested via ___, and the S1 is tested via __

Answer 83

ankle dorsiflexion (lecture says extension of quadriceps), great toe dorsiflexion, ankle plantar flexion

Question 84

When evaluating ROM, you have the patient stand with feet 4-6 inches apart, you kneel behind them with eye level at lumbar spine and you contact the iliac crest to monitor ASIS anteriorly. List the ROM 1) Flexion 2) Extension 3) Side bending 4) Rotation

Answer 84

1) 105 2) 60 3) 40 4) 90

Question 85

The hip drop test is also referred to as ___ If the hip on the unsupported side drops 25 degrees or more, it is a __ test. If hip on the unsupported side drops less than 25 degree, it is a ___ test For example, lets say the right iliac crest drops 10 degrees. What is the evaluation?

Answer 85

Lateral lumbar flexion negative (normal) Positive Positive right hip drop test so the problem is with left lumbar side bending so it is restricted to left lumbar side bending, so it would be = Sr (sidebent right) ** So what ever side the hip drops, it tells you info about the other side

Question 86

The straight leg raising test is also called the __ test and it tests for __ irritation With the knee extended, you __ rotate and __duct the hip and then flex it If the pain is felt after 30-35 degree, then it is a problem with the __ (30-70 degree = __ and above 70 degree = __) If pain is felt before 30-35 degree, or in the opposite leg, then the problem is a __

Answer 86

Lasegue, sciatic nerve medially (internally) rotate, abduct sciatic nerve. Dura matter is stretched, sciatic nerve root irritation disc protrusion or herniation

Question 87

The carrying angle goes through the axis of the __ and the __ and is normally 5-15 degree, although it is larger in women due to wider hips and narrower shoulders. If you ulnar abduct, you __ the carrying angle and if you ulnar adduct you __ the carrying angle So cubital __ (also called gunstock) is less than 5 degree and cubital __ is more

Answer 87

forearm, humerus, increase, decrease Varus, Valgus

Question 88

Name the ROM and what muscles cause it for elbow 1) Flexion 2) Extension 3) Supination 4) Pronation Wrist extensors attach to the __ epicondyle and wrist flexors attach to the __ epicondyle

Answer 88

1) 140-150: Biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis 2) 0- negative 5: Triceps 3) 90: Supinator, biceps 4) 90: Pronator teres, Pronator quadratus Lateral, medial

Question 89

SD is found in the ___ gliding motions of the joint, not the __ SD of the ulnohumeral joint is usually __ and SD of the radioulnar joint is usually __

Answer 89

minor, major primary, secondary

Question 90

Ulnar abduction is coupled with wrist ___ aka __ deviation Ulnar adducting is coupled with wrist __ aka __ deviation What is the reference point for naming a dysfunction? Ulnar abducting is coupled with forearm __ Ulnar adducting is coupled with forearm __

Answer 90

adduction, ulnar abducting, radial distal ulna pronation supination

Question 91

Ulnar ab and adduction SDs should be tested in __ion and ___nation. Also, this is testing for __ motion aka you apply the force to the ulnohumeral joint So the true elbow joint is the __ joint and the true wrist joint is the __ joint

Answer 91

extension, supination ulnohumeral ulnohumeral, radiocarpal

Question 92

Radial head anterior glide is coupled with __ and __ Radial head Posterior glide is coupled with __ and __ So for example, an anterior radial head SD has ease of motion towards __ glide and __ So if you have a FOOSH injury, your hand hit the ground in extension, so it is a radial head ___ somatic dysfunction If you fall back on an outstretched arm, then it would be a radial head ___ somatic dysfunction

Answer 92

Supination, flexion Pronation (P with P), extension anterior, supination Posterior Anterior

Question 93

Name the ROM for wrist/hand 1) Flexion 2) Extension 3) Adduction (ulnar deviation) 4) Abduction (radial deviation)

Answer 93

1) 80-90 2) 70 3) 30-40 4) 20-30

Question 94

Wrist flexion is coupled to __ glide Wrist extension is coupled to __ glide

Answer 94

dorsal/posterior ventral/anterior

Question 95

When the digits move away from the long finger longitudinal axis, it is metacarpal __ When the digits move towards the long finger longitudinal axis, it is metacarpal __ Thumb abduction occurs when the thump moves __ from the anatomical position

Answer 95

abduction adduction anterior

Question 96

For finger motion SDs, you contact the __ with one hand and the __ of the other in order to check for metacarpophalngeal joint SDs

Answer 96

distal metacarpal, proximal phalanx

Question 97

``` MCP = ? PIP = ? DIP = ? ```

Answer 97

Metacarpophalangeal Proximal Interphalangeal Distal Interphalangeal

Question 98

Just to refresh our memories, what is Type 1 vs Type 2 SD

Answer 98

Type 1 = TONGO = Type One Neutral GRoup Opposite Type 2 = Flexion/Extension component, single segments, same side