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OS Test 3 > Test 3 > Flashcards

Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The exact definition of OMM research from the AOA Bureau of Research is, “Investigator has to state relevance of proposed project to Osteopathic philosophy and principles, theories, mechanisms, or practice”

Name the 6 OMM things that classify under this definition

A

Institutional, Autonomic and Immune function, Spinal cord facilitation, OMT efficacy, Whole patient care, All research at a COM?

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2
Q

Name the person

1) Induced spinal lesions in animals and then noted the effects on their various organ systems
2) Helped to document the existence of somatic dysfunction (osteopathic lesion) by documenting and quantifying muscle, muscle reflex, and autonomic changes in the areas of SD
3) Performed studies using galvanic skin resistance and correlate that with plapatory findings of somatic dysfunction
4) Performed reliability studies, validity studies, and viscerosomatic reflex studies

A

1) Louisa Burns
2) J. Stedman Denslow
3) Irvin M. Korr
4) William L. Johnston

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3
Q

Working with Louisa Burns, Dr. ___ validated the research that they performed (internal validation)

A

Wilbur Cole

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4
Q

J.S. Denslow utilized ___ and ___ correlations to document spinal muscle reflex changes in areas of osteopathic lesions (SDs)

** Called “reflex activity in the Spinal Extensors”

He also was a pioneer in ____ proponent

A

EMG and palpation

standard terminology

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5
Q

Dr. I.M. Korr worked with ___ and is credited for discovering the ___ flow and ___ function of nerves

He also termed the name ____ and he believed that all disease processes have a heightened sympathetic tone to the neurological system effecting an organ

    • This is why we care so much about sympathetic stuff
    • He also mapped out the levels of what organs have sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation
A

Denslow, Axoplasmic, trophic

sympatheticotonia

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6
Q

Who brought modern peer reviewed research into the scientific literature from the osteopathic perspective?

A

Dr. Korr

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7
Q

The second great philosopher of OM is who?

A

Korr

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8
Q

What happened in 1918 and did DO or MD treatment save more lives?

What happened in 1932?

In 1999, what dysfunction was looked at in the published NEJM article? Which group had a better outcome? Also, __% of patients were satisfied with the care they received in both groups

A

Spanish influenza Epidemic, DO

Unit II L.A. County Osteopathic Hospital (DOs were in unit 2 and MDs were in unit 1)

Lower back pain, neither group had a better overall outcome (all patients got better, however DOs used lesses medication and PT), 90%

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9
Q

One study on pancreatitis used ___ to treat half of the patients in the study and this lead to a decreased length of stay, decreased __ use, and increased patient satisfaction

A

general joint mobilization, analgesic (pain killers)

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10
Q

Another study on __ showed OMT groups had decreased edema, pain, and increased ROM

A

ankle sprain

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11
Q

A study with elderly pneumonia care was conducted and there was an experimental group that used OMT and there was a control group that used light touch (but this was just a sham to make them think OMT was being performed) and the first study showed OMT has a __ amount of antibiotics prescribed and __ length of stay; however, this test was repeated and the results __ (did or did not) hold up

A

decreased, decreased, did not

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12
Q

A study on children 6months to 6 years old with otitis media (middle ear infection) showed that OMT group has ___ episodes of AOM, less procedures, and an __ frequency of normal tympanograms

** This was actually done by an MD

A

decreased, increased

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13
Q

One old study on the ___ was redone and re-analyzed. The first study in 1934 looked at immunological cell counts and found with splenic pump, that ___

The most current study looked at cell __ to identify immune activation from ___ pump and results held up

A

Splenic pump, increased

labeling, abdominal

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14
Q

There are __ cervical vertebra, and which ones are atypical

A

7, C1(atlas) and C2(axis)

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15
Q

The atlas has no ___ and rotates around the __ of C2

The vertebral body of C2 extends superiorly to form the __

A

vertebral body, dens

dens (also called the odontoid process)

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16
Q

The typical cervical vertebra start from the articulation between C__ and C__ and continues to C__

facets are in a plane that point towards the __ in the upper segments and towards the __ in the lower segments

A

C2-C3, C7

eye, opposite shoulder (or opposite ASIS)

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17
Q

What are the 4 C spine lateral view lines?

A

Anterior vertebral line, posterior vertebral line, spinolaminar line, posterior spinous line

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18
Q

A good view to look at facets and vertebral foramen is the C spine __ view

A

oblique

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19
Q

Cerivcal spine flexion and extension is __ - __ degrees

Side bending is __ degrees

Rotation is __ degrees

** For all of these, you want to use __ motion first, and then you can use __ motion

A

45-90

45

70-90

active (they do it), passive (you do it)

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20
Q

What type of SD is the OA joint and what are its major motions?

When diagnosing the OA joint, you should contact the __ aspect of the occiput with your __ fingers and the __ aspect with the __ finger (about at the transverse process of C1)

**^ The competency states for lateral translation, contact head with tips of 2nd and 3rd fingers of the __ and for rotational test, contact head with tips of fingers on the __

By lifting anteriorly on the left side, you asses ___ and vice versa

By translating to the left you asses __

A

Modified type 1 (so flexion and extension component but rotation and side bending are opposite), Flexion and extension **(Minor motions are SB and rotation)

posterior, middle, lateral, index

Occipital articulation, occipital ridge

Right rotation

Right side bending

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21
Q

If you have a restriction to translation to the right, what is SB and Rotation?

If you have a restriction when you lift anteriorly on the right, you have a restriction to __ rotation aka the rotation is preferred to the right, so then what is SB and rotation

A

Sr and Rl

left Sl Rr

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22
Q

The __ joint is between C1 and C2 and it’s primary motion is ___ via the __ rotating about the __

** It is an atypical cervical vertebra

** Flexion, extension, and side bending are NOT tested at this segment

A

AA (atlantoaxial joint), rotation, atlas, dens

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23
Q

The proper position for testing the AA joint is to cup to __ and place fingers on the AA joint

** The competency says to contact the __ of the __, bilaterally

It is important to __ the C-spine to lock out rotation of C2-C7 in order to isolate the rotation to the atlas

A

occiput

lateral masses, atlas

flex

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24
Q

Unlike the OA joint, when you rotate to the right, you are rotating right.

So in other words, lets say you rotate the head and neck to the right and feel a restriction. How would you document this in the soap note?

A

AA Rl

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25
Q

Typical cervical vertebra are what type of SD

A

Type 2

** Although if I remember properly, they can be a modified type 2 due to the fact that it can occur in grouped segments instead of single segments

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26
Q

The proper position when performing the rotational test for the typical cervical vertebra is to place your fingers where?

What about in the lateral translation test?

A

Posterior aspect of the TP (articular pillars aka lateral mass) ** Not on the tips of the TP

Fingers over the tip of the TP in the midcoronal line ** OSCE says lateral borders of the articular pillars

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27
Q

Rotational testing for typical cervical vertebra is also called __ and what plane does it occur in?

What plane does translation occur in?

A

Rotoscoliosis testing, transverse

Coronal

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28
Q

Just like the OA joint,

By lifting anteriorly on the left lateral mass side, you asses ___ and vice versa

By translating to the left you asses __

A

right rotation

right sidebending

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29
Q

When testing for reflexes, name the dermatome level

1) Triceps
2) Biceps
3) Brachioradialis

For testing the reflexes, you should tap your thumb with the reflex hammer over the tendon for __.

For brachioradialis reflex, tap the tendon at the __

For triceps reflex, tap the tendon where is crosses the __

A

1) C7
2) C5
3) C6

biceps
distal radius
olecranon fossa

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30
Q

DTRs (Deep tendon reflexes) are graded on a scale of __-__ and what is normal?

** Document under the neurological exam of the objective portion

A

0-4, +2/4 is normal

0 = no response
1 = slight response
2 = brisk
3 = very brisk
4 = clonus (repeating reflex)
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31
Q

___ test/maneuver looks for a herniated disk

If a disk is herniated at L3/L4, what nerve root would be compressed?

WHat are the three stages of the test? Also, what is a positive test for any of the three stages?

A

Spurlings

L4

1) Compress head in neutral
2) Compress head in extension
3) Compress head in side bending position, first away from affected side and then towards effected side

+ test is pain down arm in the distribution of the nerve root indicating nerve root compression

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32
Q

The heart and lungs are located in the __ cage

Also, much of the __ nervous system outflow arises from the thoracic spine

A

thoracic

sympathetic

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33
Q

There are __ thoracic spinal vertebrae

This ribs attach to the superior and inferior __, along with the ribs touching the transverse costal facet

and the vertebrae attach to more vertebrae at the superior and inferior __

A

12

costal facets,

articular process

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34
Q

Explain the rules of three

A

T1-T3: SP same plane as TP and VB
T4-T6: SP in plane halfway between its own TP and the TP of the vertebra one below
T7-T9: SP same plane as vertebra one level below
T10: Like T7-T9
T11: Like T4-T6
T12: Like T1-T3

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35
Q

What are the three anatomic regions of the thoracic vertebra

What are the four functional divisions and name where their sympathetics go to

**OMT can reduce somatic afferent input

Name the sympathetics
1) Gall bladder 
2) Left colon
3) Small intestines 
4) Lungs
5) Stomach
6) Kidney
7) Spleen 
8) Duodenum
9) Gonads
10 Pelvic organs 
11) Heart
12) Pancreas
13) Right colon
A

Upper (T1-T4)
Middle (T5-T8)
Lower (T9-T12)

T1-T4: To head and neck
T5-T9: To upper abdominal viscera
T10-T11: To most of the lower abdominal viscera
T12-L2: To remainder of the lower abdominal viscera

1) T5-T9
2) T12-T2
3) T10-T11
4) T1-T6*
5) T5-T9
6) T10-T11
7) T5-T9
8) T5-T9
9) T10-T11
10) T12-L2
11) T1-T6
12) T5-T9
13) T10-T11

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36
Q

___’s law is the idea that bones and soft tissues deform according to the stresses that are placed on them

** AKA bones are laid down upon lines of stress

A

Wolffs

**Can occur in scoliosis, kyphosis, arthritis, and leg length inequalities

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37
Q

In the thoracic spine, __ion is greater than __ion due to the normal __ curvature and gravity

Also, __ is greater in the thoracic spine compared to the lumbar spine

Also, the motion capabilities in the thoracic spine is generally __ than the cervical and lumbar spine

A

flexion, extension, kyphotic

rotation

**Rotation is greater in the upper and middle portions and the lower thoracic spine moves similar to the lumbar spine

less

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38
Q

Side bending of the thoracic spine is limited by the __ and what three things that we talked about can limit lateral motion aka sidebending?

A

rib cage

1) Scoliosis/kyphosis
2) Upper and lower motor neuron lesions
3) Repetitive motion causing tethering

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39
Q

What three small muscles of the back are often involved in postural stress and therefore can be responsible for maintaining SDs

A

Multifidus, Rotares, and Intertransversarii muscles

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40
Q

Placing the patient in a Sphinx position is __ and placing them in a TV watching position is __

A

Flexion, extension

41
Q

For Type 1 and Type 2 prone evaluations of the thoracic vertebra, translatory glide can also be used to evaluate __ at each segment level.

So for example, if you use a translatory glide to the right (aka from left to right) and you get a restriction, the patient is side bent __

A

Sidebending

right (restriction to left sidebending)

42
Q

When testing for TV SDs, in passive Sidebending and rotation, you check the ___ TPs during the process

A

ipsilateral

43
Q

To locate T1, find the most prominent vertebra, ___ and it is right under it

Scapula spine is at the level of ___ and the inferior angle of the scapula is at the spinous process level of __

A

C7

T3, T7 (transverse process of T8)

44
Q

Rotation can be up to __ degrees and sidebending up to __ degrees

A

90, 40

45
Q

Know the imaging for the thoracic spine

A

Easy stuff

46
Q

There are 12 ribs that correspond to the thoracic vertebrae.

What ribs articulate with vertebrae above and below?

What about ones that have unifacets and therefore only articulate with the corresponding vertebrae?

A

2-9

1,10-12

47
Q

Name the rib based on the attachment site

1) Posteriorly at the level of the scapular spine
2) Cartilage at the lowest part of the thoracic cage at the midclavicular line
3) Anteriorly attaches inferior to the clavicle and posteriorly attaches cephlad to the border of the scapula
4) Anteriorly articulates at the sternal angle
5) Anteriorly attaches at the xiphisternal joint and posteriorly at the level of the inferior angle of the scapula

A

1) Rib 3
2) Rib 10
3) Rib 1
4) Rib 2
5) Rib 7

48
Q

Typical ribs are __-__ and atypical are __s

__ articulations of the typical ribs has the rib head’s two facets articulate with the superior costal facet of the ___ vertebral segment, and the inferior costal facet of the ___ vertebral segment

The tubercle of the rib articulates with the ___ of the __ vertebral segment and is called __ articulation

The second rib attaches to the ___ muscle

A

Ribs 3-9

Ribs 1, 2, 10-12

**Note that 2-9 however, articulate with vertebra above and below and 1, 10, 11, 12 are only with their own vertebra

Costovertebral, same, superior

transverse process, same, costotransverse

serratus anterior

49
Q

What type of SD is the OA joint and what is the primary motion it performs? Also, what is the side bending?

A

Modified type 1, flexion and extension

Sidebending is opposite, because even though it has a flexion and extension component (part of a type 2 SD), it is modified type 1, so the SB and Rotation are opposite

50
Q

What are the inspiratory and expiratory muscles?

A

Inspiratory:

Diaphragm contracting (flattening), and external intercostals elevating ribs. Also you have accessory muscles like SCM that elevates the sternum, scalene muscles, and various muscles in the head and neck like pec major, serratus anterior , etc.

Expiratory:

Abdominal muscles push diaphragm back up, and internal intercostals to depress the ribs. (Lecture says Rectus abdominus, Internal and external obliques, and transverse abdominus)

However, normal quite breathing should be passive since the lung wants to contract anyway

51
Q

The SCM elevates the __, the Scalene muscles (anterior, medius, and posterior) elevate the __, and the ___ intercostals elevates the ribs

A

sternum, 1st and 2nd ribs, external

52
Q

Pump handle motion is analogous to __ and moves the ribs __ to increase to __ diamter

Bucket handle motion is analogous to __ and moves the ribs __ to increase __ diameter

Caliper motion is analogous to __ and has pivoting motion

A

flexion/extension, anteriorly, A/P

abduction/adduction, laterally, transverse

internal/external rotation

53
Q

Name the type of bucket and pump handle motion each rib has

1) Rib 1-2
2) Ribs 3-6
3) Ribs 7-10
4) Ribs 11 and 12

A

1) 50% bucket and 50% pump **Rib 2 is mainly pump
2) Mixed pump and bucket, although the more inferior the rib, the less pump handle and more bucket handle the rib is (according to the lecture notes, it is 2-6 and primarily pump handle although rib 6 if 50/50)
3) Primarily bucket handle although there can be pump handle dysfunctions
4) Caliper motion

54
Q

For ribs 1-2, where do you contact to feel for bucket handle motion?

Where do you contact for pump handle motion?

A

Thumbs posteriorly on angles of rib 1 and index fingers placed in the supraclavicular fossa anterior to the trapezius, to feel for the superior lateral aspect of rib 1

Index fingers posterior to clavicle over the superior anterior aspect of rib 1 and middle and ring fingers placed over the anterior aspect of rib 2

55
Q

The most __ rib in a group exhalation dysfunction it the key rib to treat, and the most __ rib in an inhalation dysfunction is the key rib to treat

A

superior, inferior

*Think I = I -> Inferior = Inhalation

56
Q

For ribs 3-10, where do you palpate for pump handle motion and what about bucket handle?

A

Pump = Costochondral articulations

Bucket = Midaxillary line

57
Q

For ribs 11-12, unlike all the other ribs, the patient lays __ and you palpate where?

A

prone

Thumb palpates posterior aspect and 2nd and 3rd fingers palpate the lateral and anterior aspects of the 11th and 12th ribs

58
Q

Restriction of motion for the 11th and 12th rib is influenced by __, which is functionally an extension of the __ so if you have a problem with this, you can effect the quality of diaphragm excursion

A

quadratus lumborum, diaphragm

** SO pneumonia can result? if this is messed up

59
Q

Lets say you are palpating at the costochondral articulations of the 8th, 9th, and 10th rib and you feel the ribs move normal during inspiration and on the left side, they don’t move normal back into position during expiration. How would you document this?

A

Left ribs 8-10 Inhalation group, pump handle somatic dysfunction

60
Q

An elevated (superior) first rib dysfunction is evaluated when the patient is __ and occurs when the doctor is palpating the ___ shaft of each first rib, immediately __ to the __ and index finger is used to palpate the ___ position. Then, a __ force is applied to the ribs and if a rib is prominent, painful, and has less spring on a downward pressure then it is an elevated rib dysfunction

A

seated, posterolateral, lateral, costotransverse articulation, anterior infraclavicular, caudad

61
Q

Who looked at pulmonary functions and OMM?

Who looked at respiratory function and lumbar lordosis?

** Both found an increase in tidal volume

A

A.J Murphy

Doran

62
Q

Inflammation of the costochondral junction is __ and what OMM areas would you treat?

If you have a pneumonia, what viscerosomatic reflexes are fucked? Also, what OMM areas would you treat?

A

Costochondritis, Lymphatics, ribs, thoracic, sternum

T1-6 (remember those cover the heart and lungs), Lymphatics, ribs, thoracic, lumbar

63
Q

Metabolic causes such as __ can lead to an easy fracture

Iatrogenic causes (due to physical exam harm) such as in thoracotomy - lobectomy, or sternotomy - coronary bypass grafting, can cause problems

The ribs and thoracic cage are also a common site for __

A

osteoporosis

metastasis (cancer)

64
Q

There are __ lumbar vertebra

The motion of the lumbar spine allows for mostly __ and __

A

5

flexion and extension (less side ending and rotation)

65
Q

When the sacrum becomes attached to L5, it is called ___ and when the S1 segment becomes fused with L5, it is called __

A

sacralisation of L5

lumbaristion of S1

66
Q

___ is a fracture in the pars interarticularis (aka neck of scotty dog gets fractured) and this leads to __ which is when you get an anterior slippage onto the vertebra usually at L5-S1

Also, what is a general term for degenerative changes?

A

Spondylolysis, Spondylolisthesis

Spondylosis

67
Q

Know where ligamentum flavum is and posterior longitudinal ligament

Also, a herniated disc is when the ___ leaks through the annulus fibrosis and causes compression of a nerve root

A

nucleus pulposus

68
Q

Spina Bifida occurs when the __ fail to fuse

This, and other neural tube defects can be prevented via supplementation of __

A

lamina

folate

69
Q

There are three types of Spina Bifida, name them

1) Meninges forced out between vertebral spaces (into the defect)
2) No spinal cord protrusion and may have a small patch of hair or dimple
3) Spinal cord has some part come out into the defect aka unfused portion of the spinal cord protrudes through an opening

A

1) Meningocele
2) Spina bifida occulta
3) Myelomeningocele

70
Q

Hypertrophy of posterior longitudinal ligament, thickening of the ligamentum flavum, osteoarthritis, exostoses, osteophytes, tumors, and disc rupture can all cause ___

A

spinal stenosis

71
Q

If a patient has pain or tingling in lower back, weakness or paralysis of lower extremity, and bladder and bowel incontinence, the problem can be __

You would pick up some of these red flags while doing the __ part of your physical

A

Cauda Equina syndrome

ROS

72
Q

What does TART stand for?

A

Tissue texture changes, Asymmetry, Restriction of motion, Tenderness

73
Q

1) The limit of active motion is the __ barrier
2) The limit of passive motion is the __ barrier
3) The permanent restriction of joint motion associated with pathologic changes of tissue is the __ barrier

A

1) Physiologic
2) Anatomic
3) Pathologic

74
Q

Lumbar SP and TPs are at __ levels

A

the same

75
Q

In order to locate the lumbar spine, you can move ___ from the thoracic spine/ribs or ___ from the iliac crest/sacrum, which is at the level of about __

A

inferiorly, superiorly, L4

76
Q

TONGO is maintained by __ muscles

Type 2 mechanics is maintained by __ muscles

A

long restrictor

Intertranscersarii, Multifidus, Rotatores

77
Q

According to the notes, type 1 lists __ first and type 2 lists __ first

A

SB, Rotation

78
Q

The sacrum and lumbar spine move in the __ direction

A

opposite

**So when the lumbar flexes, the sacrum extends

79
Q

Viscerosomatic reflexes are also called segmental facilitation and are nerves originating from different segments of the spinal cord that innervate our visceral organs.

Sympathetics originate from the __ region and parasympathetics originate from the __ region

A

thoracolumbar, craniosacral

**(think sympathetic sandwich)

80
Q

Name the viscerosomatic reflex

1) Pancreas *
2) Kidneys *
3) Ovaries *
4) Ureters *
5) Testes *
6) Adrenals
7) Appendix *
8) Uterus
9) Urinary bladder
10) Colon *
11) Prostate
12) Rectum
13) Anus

A

1) T6-T9 (bilateral)
2) T10-L1 (Corresponding side)
3) T10-L1 (Corresponding side)
4) T10-L1 (Corresponding side)
5) T10-L1 (Corresponding side)
6) T10-L1
7) T11-L2 (On right with associated rib)
8) T10-L2
9) L1-L2
10) T8-L2 (ascending on right, descending in left)
11) L1-L2
12) L1-L2
13) L1-L2

81
Q

___ are tender points (palpable as small smooth firm nodule) that are indicative of visceral dysfunction

Name the organs associated with the anterior points

1) Periumbilical
2) 5th ICS
3) 6th ICS
4) 7th ICS

Name the 6 posterior point organs

A

Chapman’s reflexes

1) Adrenal, kidney, bladder
2) Stomach (left), Liver (right)
3) Stomach (left), Liver/gallbladder (right)
4) Spleen (left), pancreas (right)

Kidney, Bladder, Urethra, Uterus, Colon, Pelvic organs

82
Q

The L4 nerve root for deep tendon reflexes checks for the __ reflex and is located between the __ - __ disc

The S1 nerve root checks for __ reflex and is located between the __ - __ disc

**For any nerve root, such as L5, just know it is between that segment and one below (so L5-S1 disc)

A

Patellar, L4-L5

Achilles, S1-S2

83
Q

For the motor exam, the L4 nerve root is tested via __, the L5 is tested via ___, and the S1 is tested via __

A

ankle dorsiflexion (lecture says extension of quadriceps), great toe dorsiflexion, ankle plantar flexion

84
Q

When evaluating ROM, you have the patient stand with feet 4-6 inches apart, you kneel behind them with eye level at lumbar spine and you contact the iliac crest to monitor ASIS anteriorly.

List the ROM

1) Flexion
2) Extension
3) Side bending
4) Rotation

A

1) 105
2) 60
3) 40
4) 90

85
Q

The hip drop test is also referred to as ___

If the hip on the unsupported side drops 25 degrees or more, it is a __ test.

If hip on the unsupported side drops less than 25 degree, it is a ___ test

For example, lets say the right iliac crest drops 10 degrees. What is the evaluation?

A

Lateral lumbar flexion

negative (normal)

Positive

Positive right hip drop test so the problem is with left lumbar side bending so it is restricted to left lumbar side bending, so it would be = Sr (sidebent right)

** So what ever side the hip drops, it tells you info about the other side

86
Q

The straight leg raising test is also called the __ test and it tests for __ irritation

With the knee extended, you __ rotate and __duct the hip and then flex it

If the pain is felt after 30-35 degree, then it is a problem with the __ (30-70 degree = __ and above 70 degree = __)

If pain is felt before 30-35 degree, or in the opposite leg, then the problem is a __

A

Lasegue, sciatic nerve

medially (internally) rotate, abduct

sciatic nerve. Dura matter is stretched, sciatic nerve root irritation

disc protrusion or herniation

87
Q

The carrying angle goes through the axis of the __ and the __ and is normally 5-15 degree, although it is larger in women due to wider hips and narrower shoulders. If you ulnar abduct, you __ the carrying angle and if you ulnar adduct you __ the carrying angle

So cubital __ (also called gunstock) is less than 5 degree and cubital __ is more

A

forearm, humerus, increase, decrease

Varus, Valgus

88
Q

Name the ROM and what muscles cause it for elbow

1) Flexion
2) Extension
3) Supination
4) Pronation

Wrist extensors attach to the __ epicondyle and wrist flexors attach to the __ epicondyle

A

1) 140-150: Biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis
2) 0- negative 5: Triceps
3) 90: Supinator, biceps
4) 90: Pronator teres, Pronator quadratus

Lateral, medial

89
Q

SD is found in the ___ gliding motions of the joint, not the __

SD of the ulnohumeral joint is usually __ and SD of the radioulnar joint is usually __

A

minor, major

primary, secondary

90
Q

Ulnar abduction is coupled with wrist ___ aka __ deviation

Ulnar adducting is coupled with wrist __ aka __ deviation

What is the reference point for naming a dysfunction?

Ulnar abducting is coupled with forearm __

Ulnar adducting is coupled with forearm __

A

adduction, ulnar

abducting, radial

distal ulna

pronation

supination

91
Q

Ulnar ab and adduction SDs should be tested in __ion and ___nation.

Also, this is testing for __ motion aka you apply the force to the ulnohumeral joint

So the true elbow joint is the __ joint and the true wrist joint is the __ joint

A

extension, supination

ulnohumeral

ulnohumeral, radiocarpal

92
Q

Radial head anterior glide is coupled with __ and __

Radial head Posterior glide is coupled with __ and __

So for example, an anterior radial head SD has ease of motion towards __ glide and __

So if you have a FOOSH injury, your hand hit the ground in extension, so it is a radial head ___ somatic dysfunction

If you fall back on an outstretched arm, then it would be a radial head ___ somatic dysfunction

A

Supination, flexion

Pronation (P with P), extension

anterior, supination

Posterior

Anterior

93
Q

Name the ROM for wrist/hand

1) Flexion
2) Extension
3) Adduction (ulnar deviation)
4) Abduction (radial deviation)

A

1) 80-90
2) 70
3) 30-40
4) 20-30

94
Q

Wrist flexion is coupled to __ glide

Wrist extension is coupled to __ glide

A

dorsal/posterior

ventral/anterior

95
Q

When the digits move away from the long finger longitudinal axis, it is metacarpal __

When the digits move towards the long finger longitudinal axis, it is metacarpal __

Thumb abduction occurs when the thump moves __ from the anatomical position

A

abduction

adduction

anterior

96
Q

For finger motion SDs, you contact the __ with one hand and the __ of the other in order to check for metacarpophalngeal joint SDs

A

distal metacarpal, proximal phalanx

97
Q 
MCP = ?
PIP = ?
DIP = ?
A

Metacarpophalangeal
Proximal Interphalangeal
Distal Interphalangeal

98
Q

Just to refresh our memories, what is Type 1 vs Type 2 SD

A

Type 1 = TONGO = Type One Neutral GRoup Opposite

Type 2 = Flexion/Extension component, single segments, same side

OS Test 3 (1 decks)

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