Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Where loop diuretics exert their action

A

thick ascending loop

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2
Q

most uncomplicated UTIs are caused by

A

E coli

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3
Q

The kidney plays a central role in blood pressure regulation by

A

RAAS

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4
Q

the functional unit of the kidney

A

nephron

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5
Q

How do most infections of the urinary tract enter the body?

A

urethra

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6
Q

Does the intracellular fluid compartment include the fluids found in the interstitial spaces?

A

No

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7
Q

Is the sodium-potassium pump only found in blood cells?

A

No

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8
Q

What is the major buffer system in the body?

A

Protein buffer system

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9
Q

How does the protein buffer system work

A

Has lots of amino acids that pick up or release H ions

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10
Q

How do you define edema?

A

fluid in interstitial space

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11
Q

how would you determine if a patient has pulmonary edema?

A

Pink frothy sputum, dyspnea, crackles.

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12
Q

many of the disorders of the GI tract are manifested by

A

anorexia, nausea, and vomitting

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13
Q

the largest endocrine organ in the body

A

GI tract

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14
Q

major hormones of the GI tract

A

Gastrin, histamine, secretin, somatostatin, CCK, pepsin, GRH, motilin

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15
Q

the major hormones of the GI tract and from the

A

salivary, pancreatic and biliary tracts

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16
Q

Three causes of jaundice include extrahepatic obstruction to bile such as _____ , intrahepatic obstruction such as ____ or _____, or excessive production of _____

A

gallstones; cirrhosis or hepatitis; bilirubin

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17
Q

drug abuse and malignancy are a cause of

A

jaundice

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18
Q

does the liver produce minerals and vitamins?

A

No it stores them

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19
Q

The liver produces ____, it eliminates ____, it metabolizes drugs, steroids carbohydrates, fats and proteins, it synthesizes _____, and it synthesizes some plasma proteins.

A

bile salts; bilirubin; clotting factors

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20
Q

What is the number one cause of failure to adequately control chronic pain?

A

undertreatment

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21
Q

Diverticular disease is a condition in which the mucosal layer herniates through the _____

A

muscularis layer

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22
Q

diverticular disease occurs in the

A

colon

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23
Q

anemia is the deficiency of

A

RBCs

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24
Q

Primary polycythemia exists when there is an ____ in circulating RBCs, WBCs and Platelets

A

increase

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25
Q

What is the end result of anemia?

A

hypoxia

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26
Q

What is the most significant consequence of hyperkalemia?

A

Depressed cardiac conductivity or cardiac arrest

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27
Q

If you infuse a hypotonic solution into a patient the fluid movement will be from…

A

vascular to interstitial

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28
Q

one notable characteristic of infectious mononucleosis

A

Downey cells

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29
Q

The ______ control renal blood flow and GFR.

A

juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)

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30
Q

As systemic BP increases, the afferent arterioles ____, preventing an increase in filtration pressure

A

constrict

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31
Q

Prevents wide fluctuations in systemic arterial pressure from being transmitted to the glomerular capillaries.

A

renal autoregulation

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32
Q

Should we normally see protein in the urine?

A

No

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33
Q

Glomerular hyperfilatration and increased glomerular capillary permeability lead to

A

proteinuria

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34
Q

Proteinuria contributes to _______ by accumulating in the interstitial space and activating complement proteins and other mediators and cells, such as macrophages, that promote inflammation and progressive fibrosis

A

tubulointersitial injury

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35
Q

Which is the most abundant protein in blood plasma?

A

albumin

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36
Q

Would a differential count of white blood cells include a reticulocyte count?

A

No

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37
Q

What are reticulocytes?

A

immature RBCs

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38
Q

How would you recognize reticulocytes in a blood smear?

A

they have a nucleus

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39
Q

When you would see retics

A

chronic, slow GI bleed

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40
Q

What does hematocrit measure?

A

% of RBCs

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41
Q

The most efficient phagocytes

A

neutrophils and monocytes

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42
Q

What is the principal disorder in pernicious anemia?

A

intrinsic factor deficiency

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43
Q

What are some characteristics of Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

localized nodal involvement

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44
Q

causes of thrombocytopenia

A

Viral infections, drugs, chronic renal failure, aplastic anemia, radiation therapy, HIT

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45
Q

Does bilateral renal agenesis usually cause death?

A

Yes, there’s no kidneys

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46
Q

Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by

A

severe anxiety

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47
Q

mitochondria produces

A

ATP

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48
Q

The immune cells

A

T and B lymphocytes

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49
Q

What is the most common cause of an upper urinary tract obstruction?

A

renal colic

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50
Q

The nephrotic syndrome is not a specific disease, but a constellation of clinical findings that result from

A

increased glomerular permeability to the plasma proteins

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51
Q

What two compartments compose the extra-cellular fluid?

A

vascular and interstitial

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52
Q

the most abundant anion in the body

A

sodium, a cation

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53
Q

two things can cause an endocrine hormonal problem

A

overproduction and underproduction

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54
Q

The metabolic activities of the body require the precise regulation of the acid-base balance which is reflected in the

A

ph 7.35-7.45

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55
Q

What are some complications of peptic ulcer disease?

A

GI bleed, H pylori, perforation, anemia, nutritional problems

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56
Q

Gall bladder disease is a result of cholelithiasis and is usually treated with

A

cholecystectomy

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57
Q

hemolytic anemia can result in

A

jaundice

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58
Q

the sequence from the fastest-acting blood pH compensation to slowest-acting

A

blood, lungs, kidney

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59
Q

clinical manifestations of multiple myeloma

A

bone pain, M protein, fractures, and renal damage.

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60
Q

what anamatomical structure maintains a relatively high blood pressure in the glomerulus of the kidney?

A

the afferent arteriole is larger than the efferent arteriole

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61
Q

one function of the kidney is the elimination of

A

hydrogen ions

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62
Q

Hydrogen is secreted by the distal tubule and combines with nonbicarb buffers (ammonium and phosphate) for the elimination of ____ in the urine.

A

excess acids

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63
Q

can be responsible for acute tubular necrosis

A

nephrotoxins such as atbx

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64
Q

Which renal condition usually involves a history of recent infection with a group A beta-hemolytic strep?

A

nephrosis

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65
Q

tissue hypoxia causes the rate and depth of breathing to

A

increase

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66
Q

If a reticulocyte count was done on an individual with iron deficiency anemia because of chronic bleeding, would it be high or low?

A

high

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67
Q

What do the manifestations of leukemia include?

A

night sweats, petechial hemorrhage

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68
Q

Lymphocytes are described as

A

mononuclear immunocytes.

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69
Q

the primary lymphoid organ for B cells is

A

bone marrow

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70
Q

the primary lymphoid organ for T cells is

A

thymus

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71
Q

polycystic kidney disease is a

A

autosomal dominant disorder

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72
Q

IgG autoantibody and drug hypersensitivity can cause

A

thrombocytopenia

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73
Q

in hemolytic anemia, ____ destruction exceeds the liver’s ability to conjugate and excrete _____

A

heme; bilirubin

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74
Q

Persons who have GERD have ___ resting tone of the ____ esophageal sphincter; the symptoms include heartburn & chronic ____.

A

decreased; lower; cough

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75
Q

The most common type of hiatal hernia is ___; this type ____ associated with GERD.

A

sliding, is

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76
Q

Acute obstruction high in the small intestine causes____ first, acute obstruction low in small intestine causes ____ first.

A

vomiting, constipation

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77
Q

With acute mesenteric ischemia, the damaged intestinal mucosa cannot produce enough mucus to protect itself from ____; bacteria invade the ____ intestinal wall, eventually causing ____.

A

digestive enzymes, necrotic, peritonitis

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78
Q

Neurons in the _____ nucleus play a major role in regulating appetite, food intake, & energy metabolism; hormones that circulate in the blood serve as _____ signals to this area when their concentrations increase or decrease in relation to _____.

A

arcuate, peripheral, body fat mass

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79
Q

_____ obesity is associated with a greater risk for metabolic syndrome, T2DM, & CV complications; resistance to _____& decreased production of _____ contribute to the insulin resistance in obesity.

A

Visceral, leptin, adiponectin

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80
Q

Cirrhosis & hepatitis can cause _____ portal hypertension; severe right-sided heart failure can cause ______ portal HTN.

A

intrahepatic; post-hepatic

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81
Q

The most accepted theory of ascites formation involves the combination of portal _____ & splanchic _____.

A

HTN; vasodilation

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82
Q

Ascites can be complicated by _____ peritonitis?

A

Bacterial

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83
Q

The _____ color of jaundice usually appears first in the ______.

A

yellow, sclera of the eye

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84
Q

Major cause of esophageal varices of cirrhosis: portal HTN or hepatocyte dysfunction?

A

portal htn

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85
Q

Major cause of jaundice in cirrhosis: portal HTN or hepatocyte dysfunction?

A

hepatocyte dysfunction

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86
Q

Major cause of hepatic encephalopathy in cirrhosis: portal HTN or hepatocyte dysfunction?

A

hepatocyte dysfunction

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87
Q

Major cause of hemorrhoids in cirrhosis: portal HTN or hepatocyte dysfunction?

A

portal htn

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88
Q

Major cause of splenomegaly in cirrhosis: portal HTN or hepatocyte dysfunction?

A

portal htn

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89
Q

Major cause of caput medusae in cirrhosis: portal HTN or hepatocyte dysfunction?

A

portal htn

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90
Q

Major cause of hypoalbuminemia in cirrhosis: portal HTN or hepatocyte dysfunction?

A

hepatocyte dysfunction

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91
Q

involves reflux of acid & pepsin from stomach to esophagus & causes esophagitis.

A

GERD

92
Q

involves similar symptoms of GERD but no visible signs of erosion.

A

NERD

93
Q

Caused by autoimmune damage primarily of gastric funds (leads to pernicious anemia)

A

Type A chronic gastritis

94
Q

caused by non-immune mechanisms (H. pylori, chronic ETOH, NSAIDs) & primarily affects gastric antrum

A

Type B chronic gastritis

95
Q

faulty chemical breakdown of nutrients, takes place in intestinal lumen or at brush border of intestinal mucosa of small intestine.

A

maldigestion

96
Q

failure of intestinal mucosa to transport digested nutrients from intestine to blood or lymph.

A

malabsorption

97
Q

body responds with glycogenolysis & gluconeogenesis with only a small amount of protein catabolism (LIKE WHEN FASTING FOR RITUALS, RELIGIOUS OBSERVATIONS, ETC.)

A

short term starvation (3-4 days)

98
Q

body responds with lipolysis & eventually proteolysis, which can cause death (LIKE IN ANOREXIA NERVOSA)

A

Long-term starvation (+4 days)

99
Q

type of cirrhosis where damage begins with hepatocytes

A

alcoholic cirrhosis

100
Q

type of cirrhosis where damage begins in bile canaliculi & bile ducts

A

biliary cirrhosis

101
Q

Disorder caused by absence of an enzyme causes bloating, crampy pain, diarrhea, & flatulence after ingesting milk.

A

Lactase deficiency

102
Q

This is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdl pain & altered bowel habits.

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

103
Q

A disorder characterized by rapid gastric emptying of hypertonic chyme after bariatric surgery causing tachycardia, hypotension, pallor, diaphoresis, cramping, nausea, & diarrhea.

A

Dumping syndrome

104
Q

This GI disorder manifests with asymptomatic presence of saclike outpouchings that are continuous with the GI tract lumen.

A

diverticulosis

105
Q

most common in age 60+, those with decreased dietary fiber, increased intracolonic pressure like with constipation, abnormal neuromuscular function, & alterations in intestinal motility.

A

diverticulosis

106
Q

This gastrin-secreting tumor causes gastric & duodenal ulcers, GERD with abdl pain & diarrhea

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

107
Q

Provision of nutrients after starvation should be done slowly and cautiously because this syndrome can occur when rapid provision of nutrients causes severe hypophosphatemia & other electrolyte imbalances that can be fatal.

A

Refeeding syndrome

108
Q

This disease is progression from an asymptomatic form to a symptomatic form when saclike outpouchings of the continous GI tract lumen become inflamed

A

diverticulitis

109
Q

This disorder is characterized by increased serum bilirubin levels, primarily conjugated, due to obstruction of common bile duct.

A

Cholestatic jaundice

110
Q

This type of jaundice is when serum bilirubin levels, both conjugated & unconjugated, are a result of failure of liver cells to conjugate bilirubin & failure of bilirubin to pass from liver to intestine.

A

hepatocellular jaundice

111
Q

Necrosis of liver cells without preexisting liver disease or cirrhosis is known as ______ ________ _______, often due to acetaminophen overdose.

A

Acute liver failure

112
Q

Functional dysphagia caused by loss of esophageal innervation is called?

A

achalasia

113
Q

Protrusion of the upper part of the stomach through the diaphragm & into the thorax is called?

A

hiatal hernia (sliding hiatal hernia is the most common type)

114
Q

Persons who have acute obstruction high in the small intestine are at risk for metabolic ___________, but those with acute obstruction low in the small intestine are at risk for metabolic _________.

A

alkalosis, acidosis

115
Q

Acute gastritis often heals within a few ______, especially when injurious agents such as NSAIDs and alcohol are stopped.

A

days

116
Q

Gastric & duodenal ulcers are both called ______ ulcers; risk factors include H. ________ and use of NSAIDs.

A

peptic, pylori

117
Q

Although pancreatic insufficiency causes poor digestion of all nutrients, maldigestion of ______ due to lack of _______ is the chief problem.

A

fat, lipase

118
Q

Divertula involve herniation of the_______ through the muscle layers; the most common location where diverticula develop is the ________.

A

mucosa; colon

119
Q

Pain from appendicitis typically moves from the epigastric or ________ region to the ______ ______ _______.

A

periumbilical, RLQ

120
Q

Obesity is defined as a BMI that exceeds _____kg/m2 & generally develops when caloric intake _______ caloric expenditure in genetically susceptible individuals.

A

30; exceeds

121
Q

Cytokines & hormones secreted by adipose tissue are known as ______; in obesity, _______ that infiltrate adipose tissue secrete proinflammatory cytokines.

A

adipokenes, macrophages

122
Q

Hepatitis ______ virus depends on hepatitis B virus in order to replicate.

A

D

123
Q

Jaundice in viral hepatitis occurs during the _______ phase; when jaundice resolves, the ______ phase begins.

A

icteric; recovery

124
Q

Cholecystitis occurs when a gallstone lodges in the _______ duct, the most common type of gallstone is made of _________.

A

cystic, cholesterol

125
Q

The primary diagnostic marker for acute pancreatitis is elevated serum _______; chronic pancreatitis may be autoimmune or associated with chronic _______ abuse.

A

lipase, alcohol

126
Q

Fatty liver is associated with chronic use of _______, or with ______ (including in children); although fatty liver is asymptomatic, persons who have it may develop steatohepatitis & may progress to ________, liver failure, or liver cancer.

A

alcohol, obesity; cirrhosis

127
Q

difficulty swallowing

A

dysphage

128
Q

accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity

A

ascites

129
Q

loss of appetite

A

anorexia

130
Q

vomiting of blood

A

hematemesis

131
Q

dark, tarry stools

A

melena

132
Q

frank bleeding from the rectum

A

hematochezia

133
Q

formation of gallstones

A

cholelithiasis

134
Q

distended, torturous, collateral veins

A

varices

135
Q

Hep A route of transmission

A

fecal-oral, parenteral, sexual

136
Q

Hep B route of transmission

A

parenteral, sexual

137
Q

Hep C route of transmission

A

parenteral

138
Q

Hep D route of transmission

A

parenteral, fecal-oral, sexual

139
Q

Hep E route of transmission

A

fecal-oral

140
Q

Hepatitis that can be chronic

A

Hep B, C, and D

141
Q

Hepatitis that has a carrier state

A

Hep B, C, and D

142
Q

lesions are located in entire GI tract, with small and large intestines most common

A

Crohns

143
Q

Lesions are located in rectum and colon; continuous lesions

A

ulcerative colitis

144
Q

lesions involve mucosal layer only

A

ulcerative colitis

145
Q

fistulas and abscesses common

A

Crohns

146
Q

Lesions involve entire thickness of intestinal wall

A

Crohns

147
Q

common in ulcerative colitis to have

A

blood in stools

148
Q

in alcohol cirrhosis, alcohol damage triggers overgrowth of _____, which distorts the liver

A

connective tissue

149
Q

Absence of a normal body opening or passageway.

A

Atresia

150
Q

Twisting of loops of intestine on themselves, which obstructs the lumen

A

volvulous

151
Q

Neonates who have a congenital anomaly should be examined for the presence of ______.

A

other anomalies

152
Q

Children who have cleft ____ tend to have repeated sinus & middle ear infections should be evaluated for loss of _____.

A

palate, hearing

153
Q

In children, CHRONIC hepatitis most often occurs from which type of hepatitis?

A

B & C - because of the immature immune system

154
Q

Childhood chronic hepatitis usually has ____ symptoms.

A

No

155
Q

In intestinal malrotation ______ condition, the cecum & initial portion of the colon reside in the upper ____ quadrant of the abdomen.

A

congenital, right

156
Q

Stenosis of a segment of bowel causes ____ of the lumen proximal to the obstruction and ____ distal to it.

A

dilation proximal, collapse distal

157
Q

A child who falls below the ____ percentile on the growth curve is likely to have failure to thrive.

A

Third

158
Q

Rotavirus is a leading cause of ______ in infants & young children.

A

Acute gastroenteritis

159
Q

is imperforate anus congenital or acquired?

A

congenital

160
Q

is esophageal atresia congenital or acquired?

A

congenital

161
Q

is hep A congenital or acquired?

A

acquired

162
Q

Is cleft lip congenital or acquired?

A

congenital

163
Q

Is trachoesophageal fistula congenital or acquired?

A

congenital

164
Q

Is intussusception congenital or acquired?

A

acquired

165
Q

Is eosinophilic esophagitis congenital or acquired?

A

acquired

166
Q

Is Hirschsprung disease congenital or acquired?

A

congenital

167
Q

in esophageal atresia, the esophagus is a blind pouch and cannot swallow amniotic fluid; therefore, there is an increased amount of amniotic fluid leading to

A

maternal polyhydramnios

168
Q

In ____ _____, air will enter the stomach and distend it, gastric secretions will regurgitate into trachea & enter lungs causing inflammation & damaging lung tissue.

A

tracheoesophageal fistula

169
Q

severe acute malnutrition caused by deficiency of all nutrients.

A

Marasmus

170
Q

severe acute malnutrition caused by deficiency of protein

A

Kwashiorkor

171
Q

has a known pathophysiologic cause that results in insufficient nutrients becoming available for the body’s needs.

A

organic failure to thrive

172
Q

occurs in the absence of known physiologic causes & is associated with ineffective nurturing or neglect.

A

nonorganic failure to thrive

173
Q

arises during the 2nd or 3rd day after birth for full term infants & 2-4 weeks after birth in premature infants.

A

Physiologic jaundice

174
Q

arises after that time period or else within 24 hours after birth with high bilirubin levels.

A

pathologic jaundice

175
Q

Risk factor for Cleft lip

A

maternal vitamin B deficiency

176
Q

Risk factor for distal intestinal obstruction syndrome

A

cystic fibrosis

177
Q

risk factor for pyloric stenosis

A

maternal hypersecretion of gastrin

178
Q

risk factor for Hep B infection

A

frequent blood transfusions for hemophilia

179
Q

risk factor for Hep A infection

A

daycare personnel who don’t practice hand hygeine

180
Q

Cleft palate arises during the third ______ of gestation, and cleft lip arises during the fourth ______ of gestation.

A

month; week

181
Q

Wilson disease, also called __________ degeneration, is an autosomal __________ defect of _______ metabolism that damages the _______, brain, eyes, & kidneys.

A

hepatolenticular; recessive, copper, liver

182
Q

In biliary atresia, some of the _____ ducts are absent or obstructed, which leads to development of portal _____ & cirrhosis.

A

bile; hypertension

183
Q

Gluten-sensitive enteropathy, AKA _____ disease or _______ _______, is an autoimmune disease in which reactive ___ lymphocytes mediate damage to the intestinal _______.

A

celiac, celiac sprue, T-lymphocytes, epithelium

184
Q

In kwashiorkor, generalized edema occurs because of decreased plasma _______; the liver accumulates ______ because of lack of amino acids to make lipoproteins.

A

proteins (albumin); fat

185
Q

Children who have marasmus do not have the subcutaneous ____ seen with kwashiorkor, & their livers are not _________.

A

fat, enlarged

186
Q

Brain damage caused by high bilirubin levels is known as

A

kernicterus

187
Q

The immature mucosal barrier of a premature infant’s GI tract is an important factor in the development of ________ ________, which can lead to abdl distention, ______ perforation, sepsis &________.

A

necrotizing enterocolitis; bowel perforation, & death

188
Q

Many infants who have GE reflux develop _______ pneumonia; although children usually outgrow the reflux, if it persists in childhood, the child may develop chronic ______, hoarseness, & recurrent __________.

A

aspiration pneumonia, chronic cough, recurrent pneunomia

189
Q

Cystic fibrosis is characterized by a deficiency of _______ enzymes, hypersecretion of respiratory _______, & ______ sodium & chloride in _______.

A

pancreatic enzymes, respiratory mucous, increased Na & Cl in sweat.

190
Q

s/s are enlarged spleen, bloody emesis or melena, & ascites

A

portal htn

191
Q

s/s are jaundice, enlarged liver, clay-colored feces, failure to gain weight

A

biliary atresia

192
Q

s/s are chronic constipation, poor weight gain, & progressive abdominal dissension; may develop small volume diarrhea

A

Hirschsprung disease

193
Q

infant who previously fed well & gained weight develops repeated projectile vomiting & wants to eat again soon after each vomiting episode

A

pyloric stenosis

194
Q

Outpouching of all layers of the small intestine caused by failure of the fibrous band that connects the small intestine to the umbilicus.

A

Meckel diverticulum

195
Q

a condition in which one portion of the bowel telescopes or invaginates into another, most commonly at the ileocecal junction, sometimes a result of rotavirus vaccine.

A

Intussusception

196
Q

What is the most common cause of acquired intestinal obstruction in infants?

A

Intussusception

197
Q

What is the most common cause of acute diarrhea in children?

A

Bacterial or viral enterocolitis.

198
Q

What is the length of time for diarrhea to be considered chronic?

A

Diarrhea lasting 4 weeks or longer.

199
Q

What is the most common cause the need of a liver transplant in children?

A

biliary atresia

200
Q

What is the most common form of childhood hepatitis?

A

hep A

201
Q

What is the most common cause of portal hypertension in children?

A

splenomegaly

202
Q

What is the most common sign of portal hypertension in children?

A

thrombus of portal vei

203
Q

What are the three most common metabolic disorders that cause liver damage in children?

A

galactosemia, fructosemia, & Wilson disease

204
Q

no symptoms ine arly stages; hematuria, dull flank pain, weight loss, anemia in late stages

A

renal cancer

205
Q

sudden onset of hematuria, red blood cell casts, mild proteinuria, plus edema, htn, and oliguria if severe; may be asymptomatic

A

acute glomerulonephritis

206
Q

severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin, nausea and vomiting, some hematuria

A

calculus lodged in ureter

207
Q

urgency, with or without incontinence, associated with frequency and nocturia; no bacteria in urine

A

overactive bladder

208
Q

frequency, urgency, dysuria, suprapubic and low back pain, cloudy urine

A

acute cystitis

209
Q

massive proetinuria, hypoproteinuria, hyperlipidemia, edema

A

nephrotic syndrome

210
Q

sudden onset of oliguria with elevated plasma BUN and plasma creat levels

A

acute kidney injury

211
Q

uremic syndrome causes

A

azotemia

212
Q

A man was confused and incontinent until the nurse put a picture of a toilet on the bathroom door, and he became continent

A

functional incontinecne

213
Q

A woman with bladder infection and has sudden strong need to urinate that cuase her to become incontinent

A

urge incontinence

214
Q

A women loses a small amount of urine when sneezing

A

stress incontinence

215
Q

A man with MS became incontinent when his caregiver was late and was not available to assist with am catherization

A

overflow incontinence

216
Q

A process that regulates sodium and water blaance by reabsorption of a constant fraction of the sodium load filtered at the glomerulus

A

glomerulotubular balance

217
Q

A process that regulates renal blood flow and GFR to keep them constant by altering the amount of vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles in response to changes in their circumference

A

myogenic mechanism

218
Q

A process that regulates renal blood flow and GFR to keep them constant by altering the amount of vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles in response to changes in the concentration of filtered sodium

A

tubuloglomeruluar feedback

219
Q

the filtration fraction is the ratio of the GFR to

A

renal plasma flow

220
Q

has larger mitochondria and thus is more suited for active transport of solutes

A

thick ascending loop of Henle

221
Q

reabsorption of large amounts of sodium, water, glucose, amino acids; net reabsorption of bicarb; secretion of H+, organic acids, and many meds

A

proximal tubule

222
Q

reabsorption of sodium, chloride, and potassium but not much water

A

thick ascending limb of loop of henle

223
Q

secretion of potassium, ammonia, and H+; site of action of aldosterone and ADH

A

distal tubule and collecting duct

224
Q

ultrafiltration

A

glomerulus

225
Q

reabsorption of water

A

descending limp of loop of Henle