Test 3 Flashcards

study

1
Q

When describing the global framework, which of the following would the community health nurse be least likely to include?
A) Population
B) Provider
C) Procedure
D) Physician

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
The global framework is bounded by a context and includes three parts, the three Ps. These are the population, the provider, and the procedure. A physician would be included as a provider.

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2
Q

When applying the Universal Imperatives of Care, which of the following would be the priority?
A) Mortality
B) Daily functioning
C) Decision-making
D) Cost

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
The Universal Imperatives of Care include mortality, morbidity, daily functioning, decision-making, and cost. This paradigm underscores the notion of first things first. That is, one must be alive and well before interventions focus on functioning or decision-making.

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3
Q

A nursing student is considering a career in international community health nursing.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the context of international community health nursing? Select all that apply.
A) Global community health care is complex and is affected by multiple factors relating to geography, history, politics, culture, religion,
and economy.
B) The types of services that can be provided include a range from providing clinical services to policy making at an international
level.
C) People’s conceptions of health, wellness, and illness are static from culture to culture.
D) By looking through a computer window, the student is able to see almost anywhere, connect to about any person, and access
information about almost any concept.
E) The ways in which people view nurses and other health care providers are affected by
their attitudes toward women, their culture,
and belief systems.

A

Ans: A, B, D, E
Feedback:
The following statements are true: Global community health care is complex and is
affected by multiple factors relating to geography, history, politics, culture, religion, and economy; The types of services that can be provided range from providing clinical services to policy making at an international level. By looking through a computer window, the student is able to see almost anywhere, connect to about any person, and access information about almost any concept. The ways in which people view nurses and other health care providers are affected by their attitudes toward women, their culture, and their belief systems. The statement that people’s conceptions of health are static from culture to culture is false. Indeed, people’s conceptions of health, wellness, and illness vary from culture to culture.

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4
Q

A community health nurse is preparing a presentation for a community group about
tuberculosis (TB) and its current epidemic status. Which of the following would the nurse
include in the presentation about this
disease?
A) TB kills about 1.7 million people each year.
B) All persons who are infected by the causative organism become ill and can spread the causative organism to others throughout the remainder of their lifetime.
C) Three-fourths of the world’s population is thought to be currently infected by the
causative organism.
D) The highest number of deaths is in Eastern
Europe.

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
TB kills approximately 1.7 million people each year. Only 5 to 10 of those infected become ill or can spread the causative organism to others within their lifetime. One-third of the world’s population is thought to be currently infected by the causative organism (Tubercle bacillus). The highest number of deaths occur in Africa.

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5
Q

A community health nurse has identified noise as an environmental hazard. Using the
Blumenthal classification, the nurse would
identify this as which of the following classes?
A) Infectious agents
B) Asphyxiates
C) Poison
D) Physical agents

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
The Blumenthal classification lists classes of environmental hazards. They include infectious agents (e.g., bacteria and viruses), respiratory fibrotic agents (e.g., coal dust), asphyxiates (e.g., carbon monoxide), poison (e.g., pesticides), physical agents (e.g., noise),
psychological agents (stressful synergisms such as crowding combined with noise), mutagens (e.g., dioxin), teratogens (e.g., cadmium), and carcinogens (e.g., cigarette
smoke).

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6
Q

Which one of the following factors has resulted in the Era of Chronic Long-Term Health Conditions?
A) Decreased usage of tobacco by young populations
B) Despite programs of control, many infectious diseases persist, with many people surviving to experience chronic, long-term conditions secondary to the infectious disease.
C) Shorter life expectancies due to chronic
diseases
D) Death from infectious diseases results in a
decrease in degenerative diseases.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Despite the programs of control, many infectious diseases persist. However, populations now survive and also experience chronic, long-term conditions. These conditions affect mortality and morbidity, daily functioning, decision-making, and cost. Thus, the longevity that has resulted from meeting the challenges of the Era of Infectious Diseases compounds the more recent emergence of chronic diseases in many countries. The emergence of multidrug-resistant diseases, continued persistence of infectious disease, and urbanization with deforestation have resulted in new and emerging infectious diseases and conditions.

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7
Q

When reviewing statistics about illnesses worldwide, which of the following would the
nurse identified as the most common and a leading cause of mortality?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Smallpox
C) Acute respiratory tract infection
D) Infectious diarrheal disease

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
The most common illness in the world and a leading cause of mortality is acute respiratory tract infection (ARI). Three million deaths annually are attributed to ARI among
children younger than 5 years of age, usually from pneumonia. Tuberculosis is considered
epidemic today. Smallpox has been eradicated. Infectious diarrheal disease has been reduced due to oral rehydration therapy and improvements in water and sanitation.

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8
Q

help achieve a reduction in the number of measles deaths worldwide?
A) Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (MCI)
B) Global Alliance for Vaccine and Immunization
C) Oral rehydration therapy
D) Geographical information systems

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
The MCI is the intervention considered to have the greatest impact on reducing measles.
It provides wide immunization coverage, rapid referral of serious cases, prompt recognition of secondary conditions, and improved nutrition and vitamin A supplementation. The Global Alliance for Vaccine and Immunization is an interagency initiative that seeks to protect every child against vaccine-preventable diseases. This initiative addresses all of these types of diseases. Oral rehydration therapy has been used to reduce mortality associated with diarrheal diseases. Geographical information systems is not a program but a means to monitor diseases.

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9
Q

Which one of the following statements about
Is poliomyelitis the most accurate?
A) Polio is not endemic in any countries at
present.
B) Polio has been eliminated worldwide.
C) Rotary International has contributed no funds but many hours of manpower to eradicate polio.
D) Polio has been eliminated from the Western hemisphere.

A

Ans: D
Feedback:Polio has been eliminated from the Western Hemisphere. It is now almost eliminated worldwide. Polio is endemic in Afghanistan, India, Pakistan, and Nigeria. Rotary International has contributed over $900
million dollars to help eradicate this disease.

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10
Q

A community health nurse is reading a journal article about global health and communicable diseases. The article states that elimination is the goal. The nurse interprets this to mean which of the following?
A) There are no further cases of the disease
anywhere.
B) No further preventive efforts are necessary.
C) The disease is no longer a public health threat.
D) The disease has been interrupted in a
geographic area.

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
The term elimination is used when a disease has been interrupted in a defined geographic
area. In 1991, WHO defined elimination as a reduction of prevalence to less than one case per 1 million population in a given area.
Eradication means interruption of person-to-person transmission and limitation of the reservoir of infection so that no further preventive efforts are required; it indicates a status whereby no further cases of a disease occur anywhere. The term control indicates that a specific disease has ceased to be a
public health threat.

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11
Q

A community health nurse instructs a local community group on how to prepare homemade oral rehydration solution. Which of the following ingredients would the nurse include?
A) Sea water
B) Table salt
C) Baking soda
D) Crushed bananas

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Oral rehydration solution consists of 1 L of safe water, to which is added half a teaspoon of salt and four large spoons of sugar. In addition, bananas or green coconut water are encouraged to compensate for the
loss of potassium.

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12
Q

Communicable disease is a global health concern with the primary goal of eradicating communicable diseases worldwide.
Achievement of this goal would involve
A) interrupting disease in a limited, defined
geographic area.
B) reducing the incidence and/or prevalence of communicable diseases.
C) establishing primary health care services for all people on the globe.
D) interrupting transmission and reservoir of
infection to prevent further cases.

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Eradication is an ambitious and expensive goal and has occurred with smallpox in 1977
and is under way with other diseases such as poliomyelitis, guinea worm, leprosy, and measles so that many diseases can be eradicated early in the 21st century. One major means of eradicating communicable diseases is to interrupt the transmission and reservoir, thereby preventing the development of new cases. Interrupting disease in a limited area may be a starting point, but more widespread involvement is needed. Reducing the incidence or prevalence would provide indications about the effects of attempting to eradicate the disease. Establishing primary health care services is the goal of Alma-Ata Health for All.

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13
Q

Is immunization true?
A) The World Health Organization estimates that a billion more lives could be saved each year with immunizations.
B) Vaccines are one of the most cost-effective
interventions found in public health.
C) Half of the world’s children are being reached with essential vaccines.
D) In the United States, toddlers are thoroughly vaccinated.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Vaccines are one of the most cost-effective interventions found in public health. The World Health Organization estimates that 3 million more lives could be saved each year with immunizations. Three-fourths of the world’s children are being reached with essential vaccines. In the United States, only 10% of toddlers are protected against measles, mumps, and rubella via vaccinations.

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14
Q

A community health nurse is working with an international agency in Australia. The nurse would most likely encounter which type of health care system?
A) Entrepreneurial
B) Welfare-oriented
C) Comprehensive
D) Socialist

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Australia subscribes to a welfare-oriented health care system in which statutory programs drive these systems to support the cost of health care for all, or almost all, of the population through their <national health insurance. An Entrepreneurial Health Care System, found in the United States, is one in which the country’s health care system is based, in part, on its political economy. A Comprehensive Health Care System is a step away from the welfare-oriented type
in that substantial modifications exist in delivery and financing that result in universal
entitlements. These systems are found in Scandinavian countries, Great Britain, and New Zealand. Socialist health care systems came about through social revolutions that abolished free-market economies and replaced them with socialism, where the health care system is also socialized. They are found in countries such as Russia, Eastern Europe, Albania, Bulgaria, Czechoslovakia, East Germany, Hungary, Poland, Romania, Yugoslavia, and China.

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15
Q

Which of the following are factors that influence populations’ perceptions of health and health status and their receptivity to community health nursing programs? Select all that apply.
A) Their perceptions of healthy food
B) Their attitudes toward women
C) Their culture
D) Their belief systems
E) Their geographic location

A

Ans: B, C, and D
Feedback:
The factors that influence populations’ perceptions of health and health status and their receptivity to community health nursing programs include their attitudes toward women, their culture, and their belief systems. Their perceptions of healthy food or their geographic location would not have a direct bearing on their perception of health, health status or receptivity to community
health nursing programs.

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16
Q

A community health nurse is preparing to work in a country in which women are viewed
as weak and ineffectual. Which of the following would the nurse need to do first?
A) Determine his or her own position and beliefs about this view
B) Develop a basic plan to change the view of
women
C) Become aware of possible areas that might
impact care
D) Avoid situations involving the care of women

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Community health nurses first need to determine their own position on this issue and
come to terms with it, realizing that it may impact their care. Once aware, the nurses can then prepare appropriately for situations in which their care may be affected. It would be
inappropriate and probably impossible to attempt to change the view or avoid situations
involving the care of women.

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17
Q

Which of the following statements about the personal and professional perceptions that nurses have of providing community health nursing interventions within an international context is most accurate?
A) Community health nurses are not susceptible to preconceived perceptions and biases.
B) It is not necessary for community health
nurses to face their own beliefs.
C) Community health nurses are universally opposed to female circumcision, the use of
non-licensed personnel to carry out medical treatments, and the use of Western interventions used simultaneously with other methods of treatment.
D) It is critical for community health nurses to face their own beliefs when confronting
female circumcision, the use of non-licensed personnel to carry out medical treatments, and the use of Western interventions used simultaneously with other methods of
treatment.

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
It is critical for community health nurses to face their own beliefs when confronting
female circumcision, the use of non-licensed personnel to carry out medical treatments, and the use of Western interventions used simultaneously with other methods of treatment. Community health nurses are as susceptible as any other group of people to preconceived perceptions and
biases. Community health nurses may not be universally opposed to female circumcision, the use of non licensed personnel to carry out medical treatments, and the use of Western interventions used simultaneously with other
methods of treatment.

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18
Q

Community health nurses need to be knowledgeable about the World Health Organization.
Organization because its mission reflects which of the following?
A) Collaboration in health development to free
the world from poverty
B) Service as an independent agency providing economic and humanitarian assistance overseas
C) Representation of global interests and
concerns of the nursing profession
D) Global health promotion by supporting development efforts of governments,
organizations, and universities throughout the
world

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
WHO’s mission reflects global health promotion by supporting the development efforts of governments, organizations, and universities throughout the world. Collaboration to free the world from poverty reflects the mission of the World Bank. Service as an independent agency for economic and humanitarian assistance describes the
mission of the United States Agency for International Development (USAID). Representation of global interests and concerns of nurses describes the mission
of the International Council of Nurses (ICN).

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19
Q

An instructor in community health nursing teaches a group of students about the role of
the World Health Organization and global health, reviewing the importance of the Declaration of Alma-Ata. The instructor determines that the students have grasped its importance when they describe it as which of the following?
A) The beginning of the Carter Center’s work in disease prevention and agriculture
B) A formal document written by 134 nations in 1978 to achieve health for all
C) Participatory development activities, working in partnership with voluntary organizations
D) Alliance building and communicating best
practices for global health development

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The declaration represents the work of 134 nations during a WHO/UNICEF conference
in 1978 to achieve primary health care for all. The Carter Center was founded in 1986 and is not related to the work at Alma-Ata.
Participatory development activities describe the work of the United States Agency for
International Development (USAID). Alliance building and communicating best practices
describe the Global Health Council, which is a leading private, voluntary, American nongovernmental organization.

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20
Q

Which of the following statements about the International Council of Nurses (ICN) are
accurate? Select all that apply.
A) ICN represents the global interests and
concerns of the nursing profession.
B) The mission of ICN is to maintain the role of
nursing in health care through its global voice.
C) ICN has, as members, nursing organizations from 130 countries representing 13 million
nurses.
D) ICN is a governmental organization.
E) ICN employs regional nursing advisors.

A

Ans: A, B, C
Feedback:
The following statements about ICN are accurate: ICN represents the global interests and concerns of the nursing profession; the mission of ICN is to maintain the role of nursing in health care through its global voice; and ICN has, as members, nursing organizations from 130 countries representing 13 million nurses. ICN is a nongovernmental organization. Regional nursing advisors are employed at the international level of the World Health Organization.

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21
Q

After teaching a class of community health nursing students about the World Health Organization, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the class identifies which of the following as the highest governing body?
A) World Health Assembly
B) WHO Collaborating Centers
C) The European Union
D) U.S. Agency for International Development

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
The World Health Assembly is the highest governing body within the WHO. WHO Collaborating Centers are networks of centers focusing on specific areas of expertise and carrying out the work of the member countries in these areas. The European Union is an organization that provides funding for many projects, including health. The U.S. Agency for International Development is an independent bilateral agency of the executive branch that works to enhance long-term and equitable economic growth.

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22
Q

A group of students are reviewing for an examination on nongovernmental organizations that provide global interventions. The students demonstrate the need for additional study when they identify which of the following as an example?
A) Global Health Council
B) CARE
C) Carter Center
D) World Bank

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
The World Bank is an agency that focuses on economic development. It partners with countries, WHO, and other organizations. It is not a non-governmental organization. Examples of nongovernmental organizations include Global Health Council, The Center for
International Health and Cooperation,
CARE, and the Carter Center.

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23
Q

Which organization would be most appropriate for the community health nurse to contact for assistance when dealing with countries shattered by war and ethnic
violence?
A) Center for International Humanitarian
Cooperation
B) CARE
C) Global Health Council
D) International Council of Nurses

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
The Center for International Humanitarian Cooperation (CIHC), founded in 1992,
promotes healing and peace in countries shattered by war, regional conflicts, and ethnic violence. CARE intervenes by responding to famines and disasters worldwide with emergency food, supplies, and rehabilitative efforts. The GHC advocates for needed policies and resources, builds networks and alliances among those working to improve health, and shares innovative ideas, knowledge, and best practices in health. The ICN represents the global interests and concerns of the nursing profession.

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24
Q

Which of the following statements about the
Is the World Health Organization accurate?
A) The World Health Organization does not provide technical support for interventions or
provide assistance in developing nursing
knowledge and skills.
B) The World Health Organization can help a member state determine the drugs that are
essential and will assist in developing health
policy, project plans, and programs.
C) The World Health Organization provides medicines and other tangible resources to its
member states.
D) The World Health Organization focuses on professional issues to support the
development of particular health-related
practitioners, such as nurses.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The World Health Organization can help a member state determine the drugs that are
essential and will assist in developing health policy, project plans, and programs. The World Health Organization does focus on providing technical support related to the interventions and provides assistance in developing nursing knowledge and skills. The World Health Organization does not provide medicines and other tangible resources to its member states but does help member states determine the drugs that are essential and assist in developing health policy, project
plans, and programs.

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25
Q

Which of the following statements regarding WHO Collaborating Centers is most accurate?
A) One or two Regional Nursing Advisors carry
out the work of a region that might be home to thousands of nursing personnel.
B) The World Health Organization Collaborating Centers in Nursing and other fields focus on specific areas of expertise and carry out the work of the member countries in these areas.
C) It is referred to as a philosophy, a movement, a way of thinking, a setting for health services, or a set of principles.
D) It focuses on professional issues to support
the development of particular health-related practitioners.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The World Health Organization Collaborating Centers in Nursing and other fields focus
on specific areas of expertise and carry out the work of the member countries in these areas.
Regional Nursing Advisors work in collaboration with WHO Collaborating Centers to accomplish the work within each region. Primary Health Care refers to a philosophy, a movement, a way of thinking, a setting for health services, or a set of
principles.

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26
Q

A community health nurse is working with people who experienced a tornado and have
been forced to leave their homes to escape the effects of a disaster. The nurse would identify these people as which of the following?
A) Indirect victims
B) Refugees
C) Displaced persons
D) Casualties

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Displaced people are those who have been forced to leave their homes to escape the effects of a disaster. Indirect victims are the relatives and friends of direct victims. Refugees are direct victims who are forced to leave their homeland, usually due to war, religious persecution, or political turmoil. A casualty is a human being who is injured or killed by or as a direct result of an accident.

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27
Q

A community health nurse working as a part of a disaster response team is told that the disaster is classified as a multiple-casualty incident. The nurse would interpret this to
mean which of the following?
A) There is more than 1 but less than 10
casualties.
B) The number of casualties is between 2 and
100.
C) Casualties number over 100.
D) There are too many casualties to count.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
If casualties number more than two people but fewer than 100, the disaster is characterized as a multiple-casualty incident. A mass- casualty incident involves100 or more casualties.

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28
Q

A community health nurse is part of a disaster response team that is first to respond to an
earthquake. The team evaluates the level of destruction and devastation, identifying
as which of the following?
A) Intensity
B) Scope
C) Casualty
D) Range of effect

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
The intensity of a disaster is determined by the level of destruction and devastation it causes. The scope of a disaster is the range of its effect, either geographically or in terms of the number of victims. Casualty refers to the human being(s) injured or killed by or as a
direct result of an accident.

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29
Q

Which of the following examples of disasters
are natural disasters? Select all that apply.
A) The Earthquake and tsunami in Japan in 2011
B) The 2008 shootings at Virginia Tech
C) The terrorist attacks on the United States on September 11, 2001
D) Wildfires that affected California in October
2007
E) The oil spill in the gulf coast in 2010 that
threatened hundreds of species of wildlife

A

Ans: A, D
Feedback:
Examples of natural disasters include the earthquake and tsunami in Japan in 2011 and
wildfires that affected California in October 2007. The following disasters are man-made: the 2008 shootings at Virginia Tech; the terrorist attacks on the United States on September 11, 2001; and the oil spill in the gulf coast in 2010 that threatened hundreds of
species of wildlife.

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30
Q

After teaching a class about the factors that contribute to disasters, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the
following as the agent?
A) Population’s age
B) Radiation
C) Level of preparedness
D) Flood-prone location

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The agent is the natural or technological element that causes the disaster. For example, the high winds of a hurricane and the lava of an erupting volcano are agents, as are radiation, industrial chemicals, biologic agents, and bombs. The population’s age is an example of a host factor. The level of preparedness and flood-prone location are
examples of environmental factors.

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31
Q

Which of the following federal agencies would a community health nurse expect to be
contacted to assist with a disaster in the
United States?
A) American Red Cross
B) Federal Emergency Management Agency
(FEMA)
C) WHO’s Emergency Relief Operations
D) Pan American Health Organization

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) is the federal agency responsible for assessing and responding to disaster events in the United States. The American Red Cross is
authorized to provide disaster assistance free of charge across the country through its more than 1 million volunteers. It is not supported by the federal government. The World Health Organization’s Emergency Relief Operations provide disaster assistance internationally, and the Pan American Health Organization works to coordinate relief efforts in Latin America
and the Caribbean.

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32
Q

The nurse is using the epidemiological triad to explain the factors contributing the
disaster. Which one of the following statements about the environmental factors that contribute to disasters is most accurate?
A) The environment is the natural or technological element that causes the disaster.
B) The environment is the human being who
experience the disaster.
C) Factors that could potentially contribute to or mitigate a disaster are environmental.
D) Examples of environmental factors that cause a disaster are the high winds of a hurricane and the lava of an erupting volcano.

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Factors that could potentially contribute to or mitigate a disaster are environmental. The agent factor is the natural or technological element that causes the disaster, for example, the high winds of a hurricane and the lava of an erupting volcano. The host is a human
being who experiences the disaster.

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33
Q

A community health nurse is working with a community that is involved with identifying risk factors for program development in case of a disaster. This community is in which phase of disaster management?
A) Prevention
B) Preparedness
C) Response
D) Recovery

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
During the prevention phase, no disaster is expected or anticipated. The task during this
phase is to identify community risk factors and develop and implement programs to prevent disasters from occurring. Disaster preparedness involves improving community and individual reactions and responses so that the effects of a disaster are minimized. The response phase begins immediately after the onset of the disastrous event. During the recovery phase, the community takes actions to repair, rebuild, or relocate damaged homes and businesses and restore health and economic vitality to the community.

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34
Q

A community health nurse is working with a community that is involved with improving community and individual reactions and responses so that the effects of a disaster are minimized. This community is in which phase of disaster management?
A) Prevention
B) Preparedness
C) Response
D) Recovery

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Disaster preparedness involves improving community and individual reaction and
responses so that the effects of a disaster are minimized. During the prevention phase, no disaster is expected or anticipated. The task during this phase is to identify community risk factors and to develop and implement programs to prevent disasters from occurring. The response phase begins immediately after the onset of the disastrous event. During the recovery phase, the community takes actions to repair, rebuild, or relocate damaged homes and businesses and restore health and
economic vitality to the community.

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35
Q

When would the nurse expect the response phase of a disaster to occur?
A) When no disaster is expected or anticipated
B) Immediately after the onset of the disastrous event
C) Long-term phase occurring after the disastrous event
D) Prior to the disastrous event

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The response phase of a disaster occurs immediately after the onset of the disastrous event. During the prevention phase no disaster is expected or anticipated. The long-term phase occurring after the disastrous event is the recovery phase. Prior to the disastrous event is the preparedness phase.

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36
Q

Which of the following statements about disaster planning is most accurate?
A) Disaster planning is essential for a
community, business, or hospital.
B) A disaster plan must be lengthy and detailed.
C) A disaster plan should be created by the person responsible for the emergency
management of the community.
D) It is assumed that all professionals have
addressed their personal preparation.

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Disaster planning is essential for a community, business, or hospital. A disaster plan need not be lengthy. A disaster plan should be created by all involved, including community leaders, health and safety professionals, and laypeople. All nurses should address their own personal preparedness to respond in a disaster, but this may not be assumed.

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37
Q

Which of the following are necessary components of a nurse’s personal
preparedness? Select all that apply.
A) Workplace and community disaster plans have been reviewed by the nurse.
B) An individual disaster plan for the nurse’s
own family has been developed.
C) The nurse participated in disaster drills at the workplace and had a family disaster drill to practice what actions to take in the event of a disaster.
D) It is not necessary for the nurse to bring
copies of their nursing license and driver’s license.
E) In the case of an actual disaster, the nurse will be able to use equipment made available to
them.

A

Ans: A, B, C
Feedback:
To be personally prepared, a nurse should have read and understood workplace and
community disaster plans, should have developed a disaster plan for his or her own family, and should have participated in disaster drills. Nurses preparing to work in disaster areas should bring copies of their nursing license and driver’s license and bring
basic equipment.

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38
Q

As part of secondary prevention, the community health nurse engages in crisis intervention to achieve which of the
following?
A) Reestablish equilibrium to the lives of those
involved
B) Prevent the crisis altogether
C) Involve as many people as possible in the
resolution
D) Triage clients during the recovery phase of
the crisis

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
The stated goal of crisis intervention is to reestablish equilibrium. Prevention is the best
approach, but some crises, such as natural disasters, cannot be prevented. They can, however, be prepared to decrease the negative effects of the crisis as much as possible. It is important to have an adequate number of people to come to a resolution. However, too many people involved in the resolution may cause additional confusion, chaos, and unnecessary delays. Triage decisions need to be made during the response phase of the disaster or crisis, not deferred until the recovery phase. Triage is an ongoing process throughout the response phase.

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39
Q

A community health nurse is engaged in primary prevention activities related to disasters. Which of the following would be examples of appropriate activities? Select all
that apply.
A) Providing anticipatory guidance
B) Practicing an escape plan
C) Providing emergency assistance
D) Planning disaster drills
E) Providing immediate response
F) Reducing the degree of disability

A

Ans: A, B, D
Feedback:
Anticipatory guidance, practicing escape plans, and planning disaster drills all constitute
primary prevention activities. Providing emergency assistance and immediate response reflect secondary prevention activities. Reducing the degree of disability or damage resulting from the disaster reflects tertiary-level prevention activities.

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40
Q

When describing primary prevention activities that would occur in the preparedness
phase of a terrorist attack involving biologic weapons like smallpox or anthrax to a local
community group, which of the following
would the nurse include?
A) Investigating outbreaks to determine source
B) Administering vaccines
C) Screening suspected cases
D) Treating people who have been infected

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Primary prevention activities that would occur in the preparedness phase of a terrorist
attack involving biologic weapons like smallpox or anthrax would include administering
vaccines. Investigating outbreaks to determine the source, screening suspected cases, and treating people who have been infected
would be secondary prevention activities.

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41
Q

A community health nurse is assisting the local community in preparing a disaster plan.
Which of the following would the nurse
expect to be addressed? Select all that apply.
A) Chain of command
B) Routes for transportation
C) Triage
D) Basic equipment
E) Copies of licenses

A

Ans: A, B, C
Feedback:
A disaster plan should address the chain of command, routes and modes of transportation, and triage methods. Basic equipment and licenses are items that a nurse should bring along when preparing to work in a disaster area.

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42
Q

A community health nurse is responding to a disaster. Which of the following would
most likely be the least appropriate area for the nurse to be located?
A) The disaster site
B) Triage
C) Victim treatment area
D) Local hospitals

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Usually, the immediate disaster site is not the best place for the disaster nurse, who can
be far more effective in the triage and treatment of victims. One of the lessons of the World Trade Center bombing was that the greatest need for medical professionals was at the local hospitals, not at the disaster site.

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43
Q

When performing triage during a disaster, which color would indicate that the victim is
in urgent need of care?
A) Red
B) Yellow
C) Green
D) Black

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
During triage, red indicates that the victim has injuries or medical problems that will
likely lead to death if not treated immediately.
Yellow indicates that the person has injuries that require medical attention, but time for treatment is not yet critical. Green indicates that the victim has minor injuries or is presenting with minimal signs of illness.
Black indicates that the victim is dead or has
suffered mortal wounds.

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44
Q

A community health nurse responding to a disaster is involved with caring for the bodies
of the casualties who have died. Which of the following would be an appropriate method for
documentation?
A) Making a note on the triage tag
B) Using a toe tag for identification
C) Placing the name on a casualty list
D) Recording the name on the victim’s body

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Toe tags make documentation visible and accessible and are the most appropriate means for documentation. Making a note on the triage tag, placing the name on a casualty list and recording the name on the victim’s body are inappropriate.

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45
Q

Which time after the disaster would be the
ideal time for this to occur?
A) Within 18 hours
B) 1 to 3 days
C) 4 to 6 days
D) 7 to 10 days

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The ideal time for CISD is between 24 and 72
hours after the disaster event.

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46
Q

When providing secondary prevention activities for individuals experiencing psychological consequences of a disaster, which of the following would the nurse do as
a generic approach?
A) Providing situational support for stress relief
B) Conveying warmth and concern for the client
C) Teaching about expected emotional reactions
D) reunifying family members who were separated.

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
The generic approach is designed to reach high-risk individuals and large groups who
have experienced the same disaster, teaching them about the expected emotional reactions to the type of disaster they have experienced and promoting adaptive responses. Environmental manipulation results in a change in a person’s physical or interpersonal situation, providing situational support to relieve stress. An example of environmental manipulation is when a community health nurse coordinates the reunification of family members separated by the disaster. General support is defined as the caring, warmth, and concern the community health nurse conveys
to the client as she or he delivers services.

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47
Q

A community health nurse suspects that a client who was a victim of a disaster three months ago is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply.
A) Diminished startle response
B) Hypervigilance
C) Feelings of detachment
D) Flashbacks
E) Full range of affect

A

Ans: B, C, D
Feedback:
Signs and symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder include increased startle response,
hypervigilance, feelings of detachment,
flashbacks, and restricted affect.

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48
Q

A group of ten people from the commune in the hills come into town dressed in robes and
have their faces covered. They have weapons hidden in their clothing and begin entering the
three banks in town to rob them. These actions can be classified as either of the
following?
A) Natural disaster
B) Terrorism
C) Casualty
D) Adventitious crisis

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The actions resemble terrorism, the unlawful use of force and violence against persons or
property to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population, or any segment thereof in furtherance of political or social objectives. The actions are not a natural disaster. Casualty refers to the person who is injured or killed by or as a direct result of an accident. An adventitious crisis is an event that is out of the ordinary in magnitude and personal experience.

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49
Q

After teaching a group of students about agents associated with chemical warfare, the
instructor determines that additional teaching is needed when the students identify which as
an example?
A) Explosives
B) Nerve agents
C) Anthrax
D) Jet fuel

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Anthrax is considered a bioweapon. Explosives, nerve agents, and jet fuel are considered agents of chemical warfare.

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50
Q

Which of the following would be most appropriate for community health nurses to
encourage when helping communities cope
with the anxiety associated with terrorism?
A) Maintaining high levels of alertness and fear
B) Spending time with children and young
people
C) Spending more time indoors
D) Keeping a fear journal

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Most young people carry a charge of positive energy that is infectious. Maintaining high levels of alertness and fear is not healthy. Instead, individuals should be a little afraid, because a certain level of fear is healthy if the person learns to use it as positive energy. Spending more time outdoors is a helpful remedy. Individuals should keep a courage journal; fear immobilizes and courage takes
action.

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51
Q

A community health nurse is preparing a presentation for a community group about
possible agents of terrorism. Which of the following would the nurse include as an example of a bioweapon? Select all that
apply.
A) Mustard gas
B) Sarin
C) VX gas
D) Nerve agents
E) Bombs

A

Ans: A, B, C
Feedback:
Bioweapons include mustard gas, sarin, VX gas, and anthrax. Nerve agents and bombs are
examples of chemical warfare agents.

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52
Q

A community health nurse is reviewing the medical records of several families in the
community who have experienced varying crises. The nurse identifies which of the following as developmental crises? Select all
that apply.
A) A windstorm that damaged 20 homes in a
community
B) Grandpa Jones dying at age 82
C) A couple getting engaged
D) The Smiths getting a divorce
E) The Jones experiencing a home invasion
F) Seven people died in an automobile crash

A

Ans: B, C, and D
Feedback:
Developmental crises are periods of disruption that occur at transition points during normal growth and development. Developmental crises, as a rule, do not occur suddenly. They
are more evolutionary than revolutionary. Even the advancing age, illness, or death of a
A grandparent or parent is a developmental expectation. However, the actual event may occur suddenly. Experiencing damage from a windstorm, a home invasion, or an automobile crash is a situational crisis.

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53
Q

A community health nurse is preparing a presentation for a community center group
about crisis. Which of the following concepts about situational crises should be included in
the presentation? Select all that apply.
A situational crisis is a stressful, disrupting event arising from external circumstances that
occur suddenly to a person, group, aggregate, or community.
B) Situational crises can be predicted, expected, and planned.
C) Situational crises are never positive.
D) Situational crises often occur without
warning.
E) Situational crises occur to people because of where they are in time and space.

A

Ans: A, D, E
Feedback:
A situational crisis is a stressful, disrupting event arising from external circumstances that
occur suddenly to a person, group, aggregate, or community. Situational crises often occur
without warning. Situational crises occur for people because of where they are in time and space. Situational crises cannot be predicted, expected, or planned. Some situational crises arise from positive events such as significant job promotion or sudden acquisition of great wealth because the change makes increased demands on individuals who must make
major life adjustments.

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54
Q

Which one of the following statements about
Which primary prevention method for family violence is most accurate?
A) The cycle of violence within the family
cannot be interrupted.
B) Persons who have been victims of family
violence will repeat the behavior with others.
C) Primary prevention includes planned
activities undertaken by the nurse to prevent an unwanted event from occurring.
D) It is not possible for the community health
nurse to foster healthful practices that will counteract unhealthful influences.

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Primary prevention includes planned activities undertaken by the nurse to prevent an
unwanted event from occurring. The cycle of violence within the family can be interrupted, and people who have been victims of family violence can learn to use more appropriate coping strategies. It is possible for the community health nurse to foster healthy practices that will counteract unhealthful influences.

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55
Q

The nursing student reads the textbook in preparation for a class meeting about primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention related to families in crisis. The student determines which one of the following statements is most
accurate regarding the levels of prevention?
A) Often, people in crisis are temporarily helpless and unable to cope on their own but are receptive to outside influence.
B) Secondary prevention interventions include taking action to prevent the unwanted event
from occurring.
C) Tertiary prevention focuses on moving past
the crisis and returning to the precrisis state.
D) Primary prevention is the least effective level of intervention in terms of promoting the client’s health and containing costs.

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Often, people in crisis are temporarily helpless and unable to cope on their own, but
understand the need for outside help and are receptive to other people’s suggestions.
Primary prevention, not secondary prevention, involves actions that help to prevent an unwanted event from occurring. Tertiary prevention focuses on moving past the crisis, although returning to the precrisis state may not be possible. Primary prevention is the most effective level of intervention in terms of promoting client’s health and containing costs.

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56
Q

After teaching a class about family and domestic violence directed toward children as a community health problem, which of the following, if stated by the class, indicates to the instructor that the teaching was effective?
A) Family violence is new and occurs as a result of our fast-paced technological society.
B) Family violence has occurred in most countries for centuries, as children have been
thought of as the property of their parents.
C) Family violence occurs mostly in the urbanized areas of the United States, where exposure to crime is more prevalent.
D) Family violence is decreasing in industrialized countries in the world as a
result of more public awareness.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The history of family and domestic violence is long. For centuries, children were thought
of as the property of their parents, and any treatment doled out by the parents was their
prerogative. It is only fairly recently in history (early 1900s) that groups have become concerned and begun to do something about family violence. Family violence is brought to the attention of officials more frequently today than in yesteryear, especially in urban areas where more people live, but it occurs throughout the world in urban, rural, and remote areas with no signs of decreasing. Family violence in the United States occurs mostly in urbanized areas, where exposure to crime is more prevalent. Family violence is decreasing in industrialized countries around the world as a result of increased public awareness.

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57
Q

After teaching a group of students about abuse and families, the instructor determines that
the students have an understanding of this
issue when they state which of the following?
A) Less than 10% of women worldwide reported being physically abused by an intimate
partner at some point in their lives.
B) A woman’s risk of intimate partner violence decreases during pregnancy but increases
once the baby is born.
C) Intimate partner violence is a leading cause of
morbidity and mortality in women worldwide.
D) Intimate partner violence is a private matter
and not a public health issue

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Intimate partner violence is a leading cause of morbidity and mortality in women
worldwide and is a public health issue. It is estimated that between 10% and 52% of women report being physically abused by an intimate partner at some point in their lives worldwide. A woman’s risk of intimate partner violence increases during pregnancy, with 44% to 48% of all women being abused at least once during the pregnancy.

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58
Q

In preparation for an examination on the history of family violence, a group of students reviews the various laws enacted for protection. The students demonstrate understanding when they identify which of the following was one of the earliest laws enacted?
A) Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act
B) Family Violence Prevention and Services Act
C) Keeping Children and Families Safe Act
D) Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment and
Adoption Reform Act

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
In 1974, the Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act was passed, becoming Public Law 93-247 (PL 93-247). The Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment and Adoption Reform Act of 1978 was followed by the Family Violence Prevention and Services Act of 1984. Later, all three acts were consolidated into the Child Abuse Prevention, Adoption, and Family Services
Act of 1988 (Public Law 100-294), and most recently, the Act was amended and reauthorized as
the Keeping Children and Families Safe Act.

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59
Q

A community health nurse suspects
Munchausen syndrome by proxy when a child
A) experiences seizures only when a parent is
present, not if a third party is present.
B) has stunted growth and shortened limbs that
have been noticeable since birth.
C) has a noticeable limp when wearing shoes but
not in bare feet.
D) has periods of acting out and misbehaving,
especially when there is company.

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Experiencing seizures only when a parent is present would be a red flag for this syndrome if it were occurring in a child. Stunted growth, limping, or acting out are not associated with Munchausen syndrome by proxy.

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60
Q

Which of the following would lead to
community health nurse to suspect possible child neglect? Select all that apply.
A) 15-year-old Lucy misses school once a week
to watch her baby sister while Mom works.
B) 6-year-old Sam plays in the yard with a
sweater on when it is 60 degrees outside.
C) Twins, Bobby and Billy, arrive at school in
dirty and smelly clothing most school days.
D) 11-year-old Samantha comes to school
without lunch or lunch money each day.
E) 9-year-old Tommy misses school two or three
times a month due to asthma attacks.
F) 14-year-old Jennifer watches her neighbor’s 2
year-old every Saturday.

A

Ans: A, C, and D
Feedback:
Educational neglect involves Lucy missing school to watch her baby sister, and general neglect is evident for the twins and Samantha. Sam may be appropriately dressed based on how hard and long he is playing he may be comfortable. Although Tommy is missing a number of days of school, he has a legitimate excuse. Fourteen is an appropriate and legal age to babysit.

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61
Q

Which of the following would the community health nurse identify as an act of sexual exploitation of a child?
A) Child pornography
B) Child molestation
C) Fondling of child’s genitals
D) Vaginal penetration with an object

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Sexual exploitation of children includes conduct or activities related to pornography that depict minors in sexually explicit situations and the promotion of prostitution by minors. Sexual assault includes rape, gang rape, incest, sodomy, lewd, or lascivious acts with a child younger than 14 years of age (in most states), oral copulation, fondling of the child’s genitals, penetration of the genital or anal opening by a foreign object, and child molestation.

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62
Q

A community health nurse assesses a child during a home visit. Which of the following
would lead the nurse to suspect that the child
is a victim of sexual abuse?
A) Bruising of the arms and back
B) Evidence of numerous dental caries
C) Complaints of pain on urination
D) Burns on the hands and feet

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
A sign of sexual abuse would be complaints of pain on urination or defecation. Bruising on the arms and back and burns on the hands and feet would suggest physical abuse. Numerous dental caries may suggest neglect.

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63
Q

A group of families are attending a local community group for a class on Internet safety
and children. Which of the following statements by the group indicates effective teaching?
A) It’s not so much the time they spend but the
sites they use.
B) We’ll move the computer to the family room so we can easily observe the child’s internet use.
C) We’ll set the Internet browser feature to
medium.
D) The firewall program that we have from 2
years ago should still be good.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
To promote Internet safety with children, the computer should be placed in a high-traffic area.
area in the home so that others can easily observe what is going on. Parents need to monitor the
time as well as the sites that the child uses. The Internet security browser should be set to high.
With the advances in technology, a firewall program that is 2 years old may not be adequate to protect the child. However, it would be better than no firewall program at all.

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64
Q

While visiting a family in their home, a community health nurse hears a parent screaming
who says, Everything you do is wrong. Can’t you do anything right ever? The nurse suspects which of the following?
A) Neglect
B) Emotional abuse
C) Sexual abuse
D) Physical abuse

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Emotional abuse involves psychological mistreatment or neglect and may involve verbal abuse, such as statements like Everything you do is wrong. Can’t you do anything right? Neglect occurs when physical, emotional, medical, and educational resources necessary for healthy growth and development are withheld or unavailable. Sexual abuse involves acts of sexual assault or sexual exploitation of a minor. Physical abuse is intentional harm that results in pain, physical injury, or death.

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65
Q

When describing the cycle of violence to a group of students, the instructor includes which of the following as occurring as the cycle continues?
A) Frequency of the cycle slows
B) Tension-building occurs less often
C) Loving reconciliation lasts longer
D) Acute battering occurs more often

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
As the cycle of violence continues, the frequency of the cycle increases, with the tension-building phase and the acute battering incident occurring more often and the loving reconciliation phase eliminated. Without intervention, this shorter, more violent cycle becomes increasingly risk-filled, for outcomes that may lead to injury or maiming of a partner, incarceration, or death of a partner.

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66
Q

Which of the following would a community health nurse expect to assess in a perpetrator of intimate partner violence?
A) Occasional marijuana use
B) High academic achievement
C) Belief in male dominance
D) Desire for complacency

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Characteristics of perpetrators of intimate partner violence include a belief in strict gender roles, such as male dominance, heavy alcohol and drug use, low academic achievement, and desire for power and control in relationships.

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67
Q

When discussing elder abuse with a senior
citizen group, which of the following would community health include?
A) Older men experienced abuse at a higher rate
than elderly women.
B) Types of elder abuse include physical abuse,
emotional abuse, neglect, and exploitation.
C) The majority of cases of elder abuse are
perpetrated by persons unknown to the victim.
D) Elders with dementia are less likely to be abused since they have less social
interactions.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Types of elder abuse include physical abuse, emotional abuse, neglect, and exploitation.
Older women experienced abuse at a higher rate than elderly men. The perpetrators of elder abuse may be either known or unknown to the elder. Some elders are especially vulnerable to elder abuse.

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68
Q

A community health nurse is designated as a
mandated reporter. Which of the following best describes this designation?
A) The nurse must witness abuse and neglect
before being mandated to report.
B) The nurse commands that battered women
report the abuse.
C) The supervising community health nurse is responsible for reporting only known cases of
elder abuse.
D) The nurse must report any case of known or
suspected abuse and neglect in children or elders.

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
The abuse or neglect simply needs to be suspected in order for the nurse to report. In most states, the nurse can receive a jail sentence and a fine for not reporting suspected abuse. Reporters may never witness the actual abusive event, but they can often see the resulting damage. Each nurse follows through with reporting abuse and neglect cases she or he suspects according to the community’s laws.

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69
Q

A community health nurse is providing a community education program about suicide. Which of the following would the nurse include as a common method used by women?
A) Hanging
B) Firearms
C) Vehicle crash
D) Overdose

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Women usually choose less violent methods, such as overdosing on medications. Men
choose more violent forms of suicide, such as
hanging, use of firearms, or vehicle crashes.

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70
Q

Which of the following would be least appropriate for a community health nurse to
include in a plan of care at the secondary prevention level for families who may need to
respond in a case of crisis in the future?
A) Teaching social problem-solving skills
B) Helping women develop assertiveness skills
C) Providing parenting classes
D) Helping to reestablish a sense of safety

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Helping to reestablish a sense of safety would be appropriate at the secondary level of
prevention. Teaching social problem-solving skills, helping women develop assertiveness skills, and providing parenting classes are appropriate primary prevention level
activities.

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71
Q

When assessing a family in crisis, which of the following would the community health nurse need to do first?
A) Assess the nature of the crisis
B) Determine client’s perception
C) Define available supports
D) Assess coping abilities

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Initially, the nurse must assess the nature of the crisis and the client’s response to it. Next, the nurse focuses on the clients’ perceptions of the event. Then the nurse determines who is
available for support for the individual or family. Finally, the nurse assesses the client’s
coping abilities.

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72
Q

A community health nurse is developing a plan of care for families in crisis. Which of the
following would be most appropriate for
the nurse to include?
A) Encourage clients to suppress feelings to
minimize pain
B) Avoid correcting distorted facts to reduce
stress
C) Allow clients to blame others for the crisis
D) Help clients confront crisis

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
In a crisis, the community health nurse encourages clients to accept help by
acknowledging the problem. The nurse should encourage clients to express their feelings openly, assist them in finding facts (distortions create additional tension that may lead to maladaptive responses), and avoid blaming others to promote responsibility for
problem solving.

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73
Q

Critical population health indicators that affect childbearing women, infants, toddlers, and
Preschool populations globally and in the United States include which of the following?
Select all that apply.
A) Maternal mortality rate
B) Infant mortality rate
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Crude mortality rate
E) Fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Ans: A, B, C, E
Feedback:
Critical population health indicators that affect childbearing women, infants, toddlers, and
Preschool populations globally and in the United States include the maternal mortality rate, infant mortality rate, HIV/AIDS, and fetal alcohol syndrome. The crude mortality rate does not apply specifically to childbearing women infant, toddler, and preschool populations.

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74
Q

Which one of the following statements about low-birth-weight and very-low-birth-weight
babies is most accurate?
A) Low birth weight is more common in Whites and Hispanics than in African Americans.
B) Birth weight is one of the most important
predictors of infant mortality.
C) The incidence of low-birth-weight in the United States is decreasing in relation to the
increase in multiple births.
D) Recent trends in very-low-birth-weight babies show that they continue to have morbidity with significant increases in survival.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Birth weight is one of the most important predictors of infant mortality. Low birth weight
is more common in African Americans than in whites and Hispanics. The overall incidence of low birth weight is increasing slightly, which can be explained by increased multiple births.
Recent trends in very-low-birth-weight babies show that they continue to have morbidity with no significant increases in survival.

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75
Q

A community health nurse is developing a program that would encourage mothers to use breast-feeding exclusively for their babies’ nutrition for the first 6 months. The nurse bases this program on the understanding
about which of the following?
A) Exclusive breast-feeding promotes better
growth and development.
B) Its lower cost provides more money for other needed items.
C) Infant mortality would significantly decrease.
D) It would aid in decreasing maternal mortality rates.

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Approximately 1.3 million infants would survive annually if mothers were able to
exclusively breast-feed their infants for 6 months. The lack of breast-feeding is related to
decreased survival and increased morbidity from infections, lower intelligence test scores,
increased cardiac risk factors, and inadequate nutrition. The superiority of breast milk and lower costs would not be factors in developing a community health program for breast-feeding. Exclusive breast-feeding is not associated with decreasing maternal mortality
rates.

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76
Q

A community health nurse is integrating the Healthy People 2010 goals into suggested
programs for a local community. Which of the following goals would the nurse identify as
having been met?
A) Reduction in low-birth-weight infants
B) Reduction in total preterm births
C) Increase in the number of infants put to sleep on their backs
D) Increased proportion of mothers breast-
feeding at 6 months

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
After years of working toward improving maternal and child health, the United States has made limited progress. One objective, however, has been met: 70% of infants are now being put to sleep on their backs (up from 35% baseline), largely due to public health educational efforts and reminders. Objectives for LBW, VLBW, and preterm births all moved away from their Healthy People 2010 targets. Breast-feeding is beneficial to both mother and infant, and in 2005, almost 73% of infants were breast-fed for some period of time. However, the goal has not been met.

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77
Q

Which Healthy People 2020 goal has
been established has been met?
A) The number of infants being put to sleep on their backs and the rate for sudden infant
death syndrome
B) Improving the proportion of infants who are breast-fed
C) Reduce the rate of fetal and infant deaths
D) Reduce the occurrence of fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
After years of working toward improving maternal and child health, the United States has made limited progress. One objective, however, has been met: 70% of infants are now being put to sleep on their backs, up from a 35% baseline. The rate of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) has dropped by over 50% since 1994. The proportion of infants who are breast-fed is reducing the rate of fetal and infant deaths and occurrences of fetal alcohol syndrome have not been met.

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78
Q

A community health nurse is providing a class for pregnant women about the dangers of alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Which of the following would the nurse include as an effect on the newborn? Select all that apply.
A) Intellectual impairment
B) Low-birth-weight
C) Leukemia
D) Respiratory distress
E) Altered growth and development
F) Childhood cancers

A

Ans: A, B, E
Feedback:
The health of infants can be dramatically affected by maternal consumption of alcohol.
The pregnancy itself can be threatened.
However, the most devastating consequence of alcohol consumption during pregnancy are fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASD) and fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), both of which
compromise the intellectual functioning, birth weight, and altered growth and development of the infant or child. Respiratory distress, leukemia, and other childhood cancers are not associated with maternal alcohol
consumption.

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79
Q

A community health nurse is working with a group of pregnant women in the community
to reduce lifestyle risk factors associated with low-birth-weight newborns and infant mortality. Which of the following would the
nurse address?
A) Multiparity
B) College-level education
C) Environmental toxins
D) Single-gestational pregnancy

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Environmental toxins are lifestyle risk factors associated with low-birth-weight newborns
and infant mortality. Other risk factors include primiparity, low educational level, and
multiple gestations, among others.

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80
Q

A community health nurse visits a local women’s health center to provide education about the effects of smoking during pregnancy. After teaching the class, the nurse determines that the women have understood the teaching when they identify which of the following as a possible maternal or infant effect:?
A) Low-birth-weight newborns
B) Newborn feeding problems
C) Genetic malformations
D) Developmental delays

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
One of the strongest predictors of both LBW and preterm birth is maternal smoking.
Other studies have shown that there is a greater incidence of stillbirths, spontaneous abortions, and perinatal mortality in pregnancies in which women smoke. Smoking during pregnancy is not associated with genetic malformations, developmental delays, or feeding problems.

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81
Q

A local community health center is providing classes to childbearing families about the
effects of alcohol use during pregnancy.
During one of the classes, a community health nurse describes fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD). Which of the following would the nurse include as a common finding in the newborn?
A) Large for gestational age
B) Facial abnormalities
C) Hypoactive behavior
D) Enhanced intellectual development

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
A newborn with FASD typically exhibits facial abnormalities and is small for gestational age.
age, demonstrates hyperactivity and
intellectual impairment.

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82
Q

While providing preconception counseling to a group of women, the community health
nurse emphasizes the need for adequate weight gain during pregnancy based on the
understanding of which of the following?
A) Maternal nutritional habits do not affect later life.
B) Inadequate weight gain increases the woman’s risk for cesarean birth.
C) Prolonged labor can occur with too little or
too much weight gain.
D) Adequate weight gain is positively correlated with normal birth weight.

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Research has demonstrated a positive correlation between weight gain during pregnancy and normal birth weight in babies. Inadequate weight gain is related to LBW, premature births, and perinatal mortality.
Gaining large amounts of weight can also cause problems at birth, including increased numbers of cesarean deliveries and large-for-gestational-age babies, along with the mother’s retention of excessive weight.
Maternal nutritional habits set gene switches
that affect later life.

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83
Q

After teaching a group of pregnant women about the need for proper oral health during
pregnancy, which of the following statements by the group indicates the need for additional
teaching?
A) We should continue seeing the dentist, like
We always do.
B) Chewing sugar-free gum is okay, even with
the pregnancy.
C) If we need dental work, we can postpone it
until after the birth.
D) Flossing and brushing are just as important
now as before.

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Postponing dental work is inappropriate. Dental health procedures have generally been found to be effective and safe for pregnant women, especially during the second trimester. Statements about the importance of regular dental health checkups and proper dental hygiene, along with referrals for dental treatment when needed, indicate effective teaching. Sugar-free gums that contain xylitol and chlorhexidine may be helpful in reducing the maternal-child
transmission of caries-causing bacteria.

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84
Q

What are the roles that public and community health nurses need to enact in order to maximize the outcome for pregnant adolescents? Select all that apply.
A) Clinician
B) Educator
C) Counselor
D) Provider of referrals
E) Friend

A

Ans: A, B, C, D
Feedback:
Roles that public and community health nurses need to enact in order to maximize the outcome for pregnant adolescents include clinician, educator, counselor, and provider of referrals. It is not appropriate for the nurse to enact the role of friend with pregnant adolescent clients or any other client.

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85
Q

follow up. Which of the following would be appropriate to include when teaching the woman about controlling her blood pressure at this time?
A) Ensuring rest periods with legs elevated
B) Limiting her daily intake of fluid
C) Restricting intake of fresh fruits
D) Encouraging additional weight gain

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Various methods are employed to attempt to prevent and control hypertension during pregnancy, namely, a diet rich in fresh fruits and vegetables, adequate fluid intake, weight gain limitations, rest, and regular exercise. These remain the most common preventive suggestions that community health nurses, in
collaboration with the clients’ primary health care providers can give to their pregnant clients. A
calm environment, along with periods of rest with the pregnant woman either elevating her feet
or reclining in a left-side-lying position is also recommended.

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86
Q

During a home postpartum visit, a community health nurse suspects that the woman is experiencing depression. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
A) You should try drinking more caffeine to
help you be less tired.
B) Don’t worry. Good mothers don’t hurt their babies.
C) Try napping when the baby is napping.
D) You should be able to achieve perfection with housekeeping tasks while you are still on
maternity leave.=

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Getting adequate sleep is important, because sleep deprivation exacerbates psychiatric symptoms. Napping when the baby naps, resting when possible throughout the day, and going to bed early (albeit with the knowledge that sleep may be interrupted two or more times to feed the infant) will provide more hours of rest and sleep. Caffeine can lead to sleep disturbance, and alcohol is a depressant that has been implicated in depression. The elimination of both is a simple yet helpful suggestion. The statement about telling the woman not worry discounts her
feelings. In addition, it also may increase her anxiety because she may be worried about hurting
the baby. The statement about ability to achieve perfection with housekeeping tasks while on
maternity leave is counterproductive as it has been recently identified perfectionism increases the
risk for postpartum depression.

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87
Q

After teaching a group of students about various community nutritional programs, the
instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the students identify which of
the following as a result of the WIC
program?
A) Increased expenditures for health care
B) Decreased rates of large for gestational age
babies
C) Reduced rates of infant iron deficiency
anemia
D) Drop in breast-feeding rates

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
In addition to supporting women and young children with nutritious foods and achieving the initial goals of decreasing the rates of preterm and LBW babies, increasing the length of pregnancy, and reducing the incidence of infant and child iron deficiency anemia, WIC also increases breast-feeding rates and improves pregnant women’s
nutritional status.

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88
Q

A group of nursing students are studying for a test on child health statistics. The students demonstrate that they are prepared for the test when they identify which of the following is a major cause of death in the 1- to 4-year-old population.
A) Pneumonia
B) Poverty
C) Unintentional injuries and homicide
D) Heart disease

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Unintentional injuries and homicide cause most of the deaths in the 1- to 4-year-old population: motor vehicle crashes, falls, drowning, fires, and burns. Pneumonia is not a major cause of death among children. Poverty contributes to morbidity and mortality but is not a cause of death in and of itself. Heart disease is the fourth leading
cause of death among young children.

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89
Q

A community health nurse is developing a plan to address the nutritional needs of infants.
toddlers, and preschoolers. Which of the following would the nurse need to incorporate as a
major issue associated with
nutritional problems?
A) Life in the culture of poverty
B) Overfeeding of an infant
C) Cultural food preferences
D) Rapid growth spurts

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Overfeeding an infant can lead to childhood obesity and become a risk factor for heart disease.
disease, hypertension, and diabetes. Many parents overfeed infants and toddlers and allow
preschool-aged children to make inappropriate food choices, which can lead to a lifetime of
nutritional problems. Poverty may limit food choices and selection of inappropriate foods.
However, poverty itself does not cause nutritional problems. Although there are major differences,
in food preferences and eating practices among different cultural groups, they do not account for

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90
Q

A community health nurse implements a teaching program for new parents about ways to
reduce infant mortality. Which suggestion
would the nurse include as most important?
A) Never leave the infant alone on a dressing
table or couch.
B) Check the temperature of the bath water
before bathing.
C) Stay within an arm’s length when the baby is
in the tub.
D) Put the infant to sleep on his or her back.

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Suffocation is the leading cause of death in infants. Therefore, the suggestion to put the baby to sleep on the back is a major preventive measure and the most important. Never leaving the infant alone would reduce the risk of falls, a leading case of nonfatal injuries for infants. Checking bath water temperature is appropriate to prevent burns. Staying within an arm’s length while bathing is a suggestion to prevent drowning.

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91
Q

A community health nurse is involved in a screening program for lead exposure. The nurse would target this program primarily at which age group?
A) Birth to 1-year-olds
B) 18- to 3-year-olds
C) 3- to 5-year-olds
D) 5- to 7-year-olds

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The critical age of lead exposure (or peak level) is thought to be between 18 and 36
months. Levels generally begin to decline
after age 3.

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92
Q

Which of the following issues motivated the increased doses of certain vaccines and reformulated vaccines?
at the start of the 21st century? Select all that apply.
A) Increased virulence of the vaccine-preventable disease-causative organisms
B) Pertussis immunity was found to wane with age, so the vaccine was reformulated for cocoon infants by immunizing the adults around them to prevent infant exposure.
C) Varicella vaccine given in two doses has been
found to increase immunity.
D) Measles outbreaks were identified in populations where parents had refused MMR vaccination for their children and received personal belief exemptions.

A

Ans: B, C, and D
Feedback:
The following issues motivated the increased doses of certain vaccines and reformulated vaccines at the start of the 21st century:. Pertussis immunity was found to wane with age so the vaccine was reformulated to cocoon infants by immunizing the adults around them to prevent exposure of infants; varicella vaccine given in two doses has been found to increase immunity; and measles outbreaks were identified in populations where parents had refused MMR vaccination for their children and received
personal belief exemptions. There is no evidence that the vaccine prevents disease; organisms have increased virulence.

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93
Q

A community health nurse is making a family home visit. The family consists of the mother, father, 1-year-old, and 4-year-old. The mother states that the 4-year-old who is in preschool had a cold last week, and now the 1-year-old has it. She asks the nurse if she can use the over-the-counter cold medication that she gave to the 4-year-old for the 1-year-old. Which response would be most appropriate?
A) It shouldn’t be a problem if you use that
same medication for the 1-year-old.
B) I don’t know if the medicine will work, but you can try it and see.
C) That type of medicine should not be used in
children under age 2.
D) You should use a smaller dose but watch if it
makes him irritable.

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Community health nurses need to emphasize that over-the-counter cough and cold medications should not be used for children under the age 2. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) deemed them unsafe and ineffective and most manufacturers took them off the market in the fall of 2007 in response to emergency room visits and deaths linked to their toxic effects. Therefore, the nurse would tell the mother not to use the medicine since the child is only 1 year-old.

94
Q

A community health nurse is working with a group of parents who have infants and
toddlers. Which of the following would the nurse include in a teaching plan for this group about reducing dental caries?
A) Serving sugary foods at mealtimes and not
snacks
B) Providing juice in a sippy cup between meals
C) Allowing the older infant to fall asleep with a bottle
D) Permitting snacking throughout the day

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
It is recommended that sugary foods be eaten at mealtimes and not as snacks, and that
regular snack times be established. Between meals, drinks should consist of water or milk. Juice should be given only with meals.
Allowing infants to fall asleep with a bottle can lead to baby bottle tooth decay or nursing
caries.

95
Q

Which of the following would be appropriate as secondary prevention-level activities focusing on child abuse and neglect?
A) Prenatal parent preparation classes
B) Public service announcements for positive
parenting
C) Education to improve family functioning
skills
D) Respite care for families with special needs
children

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Providing respite care for families with children with special needs is an example of a secondary prevention action. Prenatal parent preparation classes, public service announcements,
and education to improve family functioning skills are examples of primary prevention-level activities.

96
Q

As one aspect of ensuring adequate brain development in a child, a community health nurse would encourage the intake of which during the first 2 years of life?
A) Vitamins
B) Fats
C) Protein
D) Carbohydrates

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
During the first 2 years, when rapid myelination is taking place, 50% of total calories should come from fat, but after age 2, the choice of 1% or 2% milk should be the norm. A well-balanced diet including an adequate intake of vitamins, protein, and carbohydrates is needed for overall growth and development

97
Q

When providing safety education for parents of school-age children, the community health nurse would focus interventions on which of
the following as the priority?
A) Motor vehicle safety
B) Water safety
C) Fire safety
D) Poisoning prevention

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
For the 1- to 9-year-old age group, motor vehicle/traffic injury, drowning, and fire/burn injuries were the top three causes of injury death. For the 10- to 19-year-old age group, motor vehicle/traffic injuries, drowning, and
poisoning are the three leading causes of injury death. Thus the priority would be to focus interventions on motor vehicle safety. Although water and fire safety and poisoning prevention would be important, motor vehicle
safety would be most important.

98
Q

A community health nurse is presenting a program to a local elementary parent teacher
association on the topic of pediculosis. The nurse determines that the group needs additional teaching when they identify which of the following is a likely mode of transmission:?
A) Coming into contact with an animal
B) Combing hair with another’s comb
C) Using the towel of an infected child
D) Sleeping in a friend’s bed who had lice

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Head lice are most often transmitted by direct contact (head-to-head) or may be passed from infected to uninfected children through shared items such as combs and brushes, hats, scarves, sheets, and towels (called fomites).
Contrary to some popular myths, lice do not fly or jump, and they cannot be contracted
from animals they live only on humans.

99
Q

A community health nurse who is participating in a nutritional screening program with
School-age children measure their body mass index (BMI). The majority of children fall within
the 45th to 65th percentile for their age. The nurse would classify these
children as which of the following?
A) Underweight
B) Healthy weight
C) At-risk for overweight
D) Overweight

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
A BMI between the 5th and 95th percentile for age is considered healthy weight.
Underweight refers to a BMI below the 5th percentile. At-risk for overweight refers to children
with a BMI between the 85th and 94th percentile. Overweight refers to children with a BMI
equal to or greater than the 95th
percentile.

100
Q

Which of the following measures would be most appropriate for community health?
nurse to include when developing programs to
address childhood obesity?
A) Encouraging television watching for about 3 hours per day
B) Suggesting that families eat fewer meals together at home
C) Urging participation in physical activity for
30 minutes per day
D) Limiting the intake of unsaturated oils in
cooking

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Research has demonstrated an association between poor eating habits and physical
inactivity. Low levels of physical activity and more than 2 hours of watching television per day
were found to be predictors of overweight status in a large longitudinal study of children.
Therefore, interventions should focus on increasing levels of physical activity and encouraging
limited television for school-age children, encouraging families to eat more meals together at
home, advocating for increased physical education in the school setting, and for more safe
recreational opportunities in all neighborhoods. In addition, healthy eating habits, such as using
Unsaturated oils in cooking need to be stressed.

101
Q

Which of the following programs would be least effective to institute for a community of
school-age children who are experiencing
dental caries?
A) Ensuring that the drinking water is fluoridated
B) Having the school to institute a fluoride rinse
program
C) Encouraging the parents to get their children’s
teeth sealed
D) Advising parents to encourage the children to
brush once daily

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Regular brushing and flossing is important for dental hygiene. However, once daily is not
enough. Fluoridated drinking water, school- based fluoride rinse or gel, and dental sealant
programs are cost-effective, proven methods of reducing dental caries in school-age
children.

102
Q

Which of the following would a community health nurse expect to assess in the adolescent population with an eating disorder?
A) High levels of peer support
B) Clear sense of self
C) Feelings of being in control
D) Distorted body image

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Adolescents with eating disorders typically have a disturbed body image, low levels of peer support, a distorted self-concept, and low self-esteem. In addition, they have issues with control, such that they use eating as a means of
for control.

103
Q

A community health nurse is teaching a group of parents about attention deficit
hyperactivity disorder. Which statement by the parents would indicate the need for additional
teaching?
A) We will probably need to give him medication to help him in school.
B) We need to keep him away from foods that
have additives in them.
C) This condition is most likely due to problems
with genes and nerve receptors.
D) We’ll be alert to the possibility of more
injuries and accidents.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
While a number of parents feel that sugar, food coloring or additives may worsen
ADHD symptoms in their children, research shows no behavioral or learning differences in
double-blind studies with sugar and sugar substitutes. Medications are commonly used, with the
primary goal of improving academics. New research is focusing on inherited tendencies for
problems with dopamine receptors and transporter genes, supporting a neurologic basis for the
condition. Children with ADHD
are more prone to accidents and injuries.

104
Q

local community agencies to provide services
for children and adolescents with disabilities. Based on the nurse’s knowledge of the most
common disabilities affecting this group, the nurse would advocate for which of the
following to address the largest group?
A) Special education services
B) Speech therapy services
C) Mental health services
D) Mental retardation services

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
In descending order, the most common disabilities found in school-age children and
adolescents have learning disorders; speech or language impairment; mental retardation; serious emotional disturbances and other disabilities, such as autism; deafblindness, and orthopedic
problems; traumatic brain injury; and other health impairments, such as asthma, diabetes, and
epilepsy. Thus, advocating for special education services would address the most common
disability, learning disorders.

105
Q

Which of the following statements about
children’s health status and academic achievement are most accurate?
A) All health problems that can affect learning and achievement in school-age children are
preventable.
B) Physical and emotional health can affect academic achievement in children and
adolescents.
C) Only behavioral health problems can affect learning and achievement in school-age children.
D) Poverty is one health problem that does not
affect learning and achievement in school-age children.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Physical and emotional health can affect academic achievement in children and
adolescents. Not all health problems that can affect learning and achievement in school-age
children are preventable. Behavioral health problems can affect learning and achievement in
school-age children, but other types of health problems can also affect learning and achievement
in school-age children. Poverty is a health problem that also affects learning
and achievement in school-age children.

106
Q

A community health nurse is providing immunizations to school-age children at a local
health department. At what age would the nurse expect to administer the first dose of
human papilloma virus (HPV) vaccine?
A) 9
B) 11
C) 13
D) 15

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The current recommendation is to administer the first dose of the HPV vaccine at age 11. However, the earliest age at which the vaccine can be given is age 9. The HPV vaccine is
administered to females at age 13 to 18 if they
have not been previously vaccinated.

107
Q

A community health nurse is speaking to a group of parents of incoming college
freshmen students who will be living in the dormitories. The focus of the program is on the college health program, health issues, and immunizations. Which immunization would the nurse most strongly encourage the students to receive if they have not received it previously?
A) Varicella virus vaccine
B) Human papilloma virus vaccine
C) Meningococcal vaccine
D) Influenza vaccine

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
The meningococcal vaccine is a catch-up vaccine that is recommended for all previously
unvaccinated college freshmen living in dormitories. Adolescents who have not had chickenpox and have not received prior vaccinations should receive the varicella vaccines. The HPV vaccine
is given to females only. The influenza vaccine should be given only those who are considered high risk.

108
Q

When preparing a program to address violence among school-age children and
adolescents, the community health nurse integrates knowledge of which of the
following?
A) Teen females commit homicide more
frequently than teen males.
B) Homicide is the second highest cause of death
for all adolescents.
C) Adolescents account for less than one half of
all firearm injuries treated.
D) Serious youth violence is unrelated to drugs
and guns.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Homicide is the second leading cause of death for adolescents (ages 10 to 24) and is more
common in males than females. Adolescents between the ages of 15 and 19 years account for
almost 85% of all firearm injuries treated in emergency departments or hospitals.
Serious youth violence is part of a constellation of risk-taking behaviors that also
includes precocious sex, drugs, and guns.

109
Q

When working with community groups to develop appropriate programs for adolescents
health promotion, the nurse integrates knowledge of the Healthy People 2020 objectives, keeping
in mind that many of the
Objectives address which of the following?
A) Self-esteem improvement
B) Risk-taking behaviors
C) Control of disease
D) Behavioral issues

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Healthy People 2020 objectives are geared to improving the health of all Americans. Twenty-one specific objectives have been ranked as critical for this population. The objectives
focus on issues involving mortality and morbidity in this age group that stem primarily from risk-taking behaviors. Many of the objectives relate to reduction in alcohol-related unintentional injuries, declines in violent behaviors, suicide and mental health issues, as well as more responsible
reproductive health behaviors.

109
Q

When working with school districts, which of the following would affect community health?
nurse encourages the most effective school-based approach to solving the problem of
teenage suicide?
A) Suicide prevention programs with direct
interventions
B) Teachers assessing suicide risk among
students
C) Promotion of stronger parental control of
teens
D) Punitive treatment of teens by the school
administration

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Programs and interventions by counselors and school nurses that are focused on
determining adolescent suicide intentions are the most effective approaches. Teachers do not feel
comfortable or prepared to assess suicide risk, and this alone will not prevent teen suicide. Peer pressure is strong, and parent concerns are not as important to the teen. Teens are seeking
Independence and stronger parental control are not effective methods of reducing teen suicide. This approach is inappropriate for any school-age child or teen.

110
Q

A community health nurse is working with local schools to help address teen pregnancy.
The nurse would focus interventions on which
of the following?
A) Better use of contraceptives
B) Decreased sexual activity
C) Improved parenting skills
D) Proper nutritional habits

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Although contraceptives, parenting skills, and nutrition may be areas of focus for teen pregnancy, research has shown that the downward trend for teen pregnancy rates has been attributed largely to better contraceptive use rather than less sexual activity. Therefore, interventions should focus on the area of
decreasing sexual activity.

111
Q

Which of the following would the community health nurse most commonly need to
address when planning programs for children with
chronic illness?
A) Asthma control
B) Autism education
C) Diabetes regimens
D) Seizure control

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Although autism education, diabetic regimens, and seizure control are common issues
related to chronic disease in children, asthma is the most common chronic disease.
Thus asthma control would be a priority.

111
Q

A community health nurse is working with a group of school nurses to develop
interventions for a 10-year-old girl exhibiting signs and symptoms of school refusal. Which
of the following would be most appropriate?
A) Limiting parent involvement in the school
B) Exposing the child rapidly to the classroom
C) Keeping the child at home for a while
D) Providing relaxation training

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
The most effective interventions for school refusal include early return to school with
parental involvement in school, systematic desensitization (gradual exposure to the classroom),
relaxation training, and
counseling.

112
Q

A community health nurse is working with the local health department on screening for
sexually transmitted infections. Which of the following would the nurse identify as the
most common?
A) Syphilis
B) Gonorrhea
C) Chlamydia
D) Herpes simplex virus

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Chlamydia is the most common STI in adolescents and should be a major focus of the screening. Syphilis, gonorrhea, and herpes simplex virus also are common among
adolescents but less than Chlamydia.

113
Q

When preparing a program about substance
abuse prevention for adolescents, the community health nurse would focus on which substance
as the most frequently used?
A) Marijuana
B) Alcohol
C) Ecstasy
D) Ketamine

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Alcohol is the most frequently used substance for adolescents in the United States. Marijuana is the most commonly used drug among 14- to 17-year-olds. Ecstasy and ketamine are other drugs used by adolescents
and young adults.

113
Q

A community health nurse is engaged in a community-wide program to promote
nutrition in adolescents. Which of the following would lead the nurse to target the
program to adolescent girls?
A) Girls eat larger quantities of food than boys.
B) They are more physically active than boys.
C) They have a tendency to diet inappropriately.
D) They are more conscious about food nutrients.

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Girls are more at risk for problems with nutrition for several reasons: They tend to diet inappropriately, to have more finicky eating habits, and to be less physically active than teenage boys. Boys typically eat large quantities of food, which increases the likelihood of obtaining
adequate nutrients, and they also tend to be more physically active than girls.

114
Q

A community health nurse is implementing a family planning program near a local inner city’s schools. The nurse is engaging, which
type of health service?
A) Preventive program
B) Health protection
C) Health promotion
D) Injury prevention

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
A family planning program is an example of a preventive program that provides birth
control information and counseling. Health protection programs focus on safety including injury
prevention. Health promotion programs focus on areas such as nutrition and weight control,
and drug abuse education.

114
Q

A community health nurse is working with other professionals to develop preventive
programs to address the leading cause of death in men and women. Which of the
following would be appropriate?
A) Risk reduction for heart disease
B) Cancer screening
C) Safety education
D) Flu vaccine immunization

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
The leading cause of death for men and women is heart disease. Therefore, risk reduction
for heart disease would be most appropriate. Cancer screening, safety education, and flu vaccine
immunization would be appropriate for cancer, the second leading cause of death; unintentional
injuries, the third leading cause of death in men; and influenza and pneumonia, the eighth
leading cause of death in men and women
respectively.

115
Q

of the following would the community health
nurse identify as a key aspect for this community’s ability to follow through with the teaching?
A) Life expectancy
B) Health disparity
C) Health literacy
D) Financial ability

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Health literacy is a critical aspect of managing health problems and a key to being able to
read and understand health information so that individuals can follow through and make
appropriate health decisions. Low health literacy also contributes to health disparities, a
difference in health status due to sex, race, or ethnicity. Life expectancy is the average number of
years an individual member is projected to live. It is a standard measurement unrelated to the
ability to follow through with teaching. Financial ability may impact a person’s ability to obtain
needed services, but it is not a key aspect.

116
Q

When assessing a population for health disparities, which of the following would the
nurse least likely evaluate?
A) Race
B) Education
C) Age
D) Sexual orientation

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
A health disparity is defined as a difference in health status that occurs by sex, race or
ethnicity, education or income, disability, geographic location, or sexual orientation.
Age would not be used to assess health
disparity.

117
Q

Which one of the following statements about which life expectancy is most accurate?
A) The life expectancy for White women is 4
years greater than for black women.
B) The life expectancy for Black men is 6 years
greater than for white men.
C) In the United States, life expectancy continues
to decline.
D) There is a gap in life expectancy between
women and men of more than 6 years.

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
The life expectancy for White women is 4 years greater than for Black women. The life
expectancy for White men is 6 years greater than for Black men. In the United States, life
expectancy continues to increase consistently over time. The gap in life expectancy between
women and men was 5.0 years in 2007.

117
Q

A community health nurse is working with a grant funded project to address stroke
prevention nationwide. After reviewing statistics related to stroke, which would the nurse identify as having the greatest need for
this type of program?
A) North central
B) Southeast
C) Southwest
D) Pacific northwest

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The nurse would identify the southeast as the area of greatest need because here. Known as the stroke belt, stroke death rates for both Blacks and Whites are higher than in any
other part of the country.

118
Q

The nurse educator is aware that the nursing student has a grasp of the major health
problems of adults when the nursing student
Which one of the following statements is true?
A) Morbidity and mortality among adults
not vary much by age, gender, and race or ethnicity.
B) The six leading causes of death in adults include suicide, Alzheimer’s disease, and homicide.
C) Diseases of the heart and cerebrovascular diseases are the first and third causes of death in adults.
D) Malignant neoplasms, chronic lower respiratory diseases, unintentional injuries, and diabetes mellitus are not among the six
leading causes of death in adults.

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
The following statement is true: <Diseases of the heart and cerebrovascular diseases are
the first and third causes of death in adults.= Morbidity and mortality among adults varies
substantially by age, gender, and race/ ethnicity. Malignant neoplasms, chronic lower respiratory
diseases, unintentional injuries, and diabetes mellitus are among the six leading causes of death
in adults. Causes of death in adults that are not among the six leading causes of death include
suicide,
Alzheimer’s disease, and homicide.

119
Q

The following is a list of the top five causes of unintentional injuries accounting for the
majority of adults deaths due to injury. Order these in their proper sequence from first to fifth.
A) Fire arms
B) Suffocation
C) Motor vehicle crashes
D) Poisoning
E) Falls

A

Ans: C, A, D, E, B
Feedback:
The top five causes of unintentional injuries include motor vehicle crashes, fire arms,
poisoning, falls, and suffocation. Together, these causes account for approximately 80%
of all injury deaths.

120
Q

A community health nurse is preparing a presentation about drug use and abuse for a
group of adults. Which of the following would the nurse include as the one of the
fastest growing forms of drug abuse?
A) Cocaine
B) Alcohol
C) Prescription drugs
D) Heroin

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Illegal use of prescription drugs is one of the fastest growing forms of drug abuse, and it
is becoming a major public health concern. The primary illicit drugs used in the United States,
such as cocaine and heroin, have and continue to be a public health problem. Alcohol abuse also
is a public health problem and is considered the third leading lifestyle-related cause of death for
people living in the United States

121
Q

After teaching a group of students about the major types of cancer affecting men and women, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as the number one cause of cancer deaths among adults?
A) Colon
B) Pancreatic
C) Esophageal
D) Lung

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Lung and bronchial cancers are the number one cause of cancer deaths among adults.
Colon and rectal cancers are the third most common cancers in adults. Pancreatic and esophageal cancers are less common causes of cancer death.

122
Q

A patient comes to the community health clinic with complaints of changes in urination.
Which of the following would lead the community health nurse to suspect that the patient has
benign prostatic hypertrophy
(BPH)?
A) Nighttime frequency
B) Dysuria
C) Hematuria
D) Flank pain

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
The symptoms of BPH vary, but the most common ones involve changes or problems
with urination, such as hesitant, interrupted, or weak urinary stream; urgency or leaking of urine;
and more frequent urination, especially at night. Dysuria may indicate a urinary tract infection.
Hematuria could suggest a variety of problems, such as infection calculi, or cancer. Flank pain
may indicate conditions
such as pyelonephritis or renal calculi.

123
Q

When developing community health programs target to adult men, which of the
following would the nurse need to integrate
into the plan?
A) Improved quality of education programs
available for men
B) Increased access of health services by men as
compared to women
C) Limited male-gender specific research
D) Increased awareness of men’s health issues

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
The current state of men’s health involves a lack of quality health education programs for
men, health care services that are only accessed half as much by men when compared to women,
and a lack of male gender-specific research. In addition, awareness of men’s health issues is
lacking. Currently, there is no Office on Men’s Health in the U.S. Department of Health and
Human Services; legislation to establish such an office has been introduced; however, the bill did
not progress out of the congressional subcommittee on health and has not been
reintroduced.

124
Q

A community health nurse is reviewing research related to women’s health. Which of the
following would the nurse use to obtain information about postmenopausal women’s health?
A) The Women’s Health Study
B) The Women’s Health Initiative
C) The Nurses’ Health Study I
D) The Nurses’ Health Study II

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The nurse would use The Women’s Health Initiative. This study was a major 15-year
research program addressing the most common causes of death, disability, and poor quality of
life in postmenopausal women4 CVD, cancer, and osteoporosis. The Women’s Health Study
evaluated the effects of vitamin E and low-dose aspirin therapy in primary prevention of CVD
and cancer in apparently healthy women. The Nurses’ Health Study I investigated the potential
long-term consequences of the use of oral contraceptives. The Nurses’ Health Study II studied
oral contraceptives, diet, and lifestyle
risk factors in a population younger than the original Nurses’ Health Study cohort.

125
Q

While working in a community health clinic, a community health nurse interviews a 24-
year-old client. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is
binge eating?
A) Significant weight loss from dieting last year
B) Participation in excessive exercise
C) Exaggerated concern about body shape
D) Severe emaciation

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Binge eating is an eating disorder that is characterized by repeated episodes of
uncontrolled eating. It usually starts following significant weight loss from dieting.
Typically, individuals with this disorder eat quickly, eat until they are uncomfortably full, eat
when they are not hungry, eat large amounts of food alone, have difficulty expressing their
feelings, have difficulty controlling impulses and stress, and feel depressed about overeating.
Participation in excessive exercise and an exaggerated concern about body shape is usually
associated with bulimia. Severe emaciation is
associated with anorexia.

125
Q

Which of the following statements by a women’s group indicates that they have
understood the teaching about heart disease
and women?
A) More women die of breast cancer than heart disease.=
B) Women experience similar symptoms as men.=
C) Hormone replacement therapy protects the heart
D) Heart disease is the number one killer of
women.=

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Heart disease is the number one killer of women. One in 2.6 female deaths is from
cardiovascular disease, compared to 1 in 30 from breast cancer. Women have atypical symptoms
or less acute chest pain than men, often leading them to delay care. Hormone
therapy does not reduce coronary events.

126
Q

Which one of the following statements about
coronary heart disease and stroke are most accurate?
A) Cardiovascular disease kills more women than men.
B) Stroke kills more men than women.
C) White persons are more likely to have their
first stroke earlier than Black persons.
D) Risk factors for cardiovascular disease are not known.

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Cardiovascular disease kills more women than men. Stroke kills more women than men.
Black persons are more likely to have their first stroke earlier than White persons. Risk factors
for cardiovascular disease are known. Some are controllable such as lifestyle, and
some are uncontrollable such as heredity.

127
Q

A community health nurse working in a local women’s health clinic is planning a
teaching session for a group of women about menopause. Which of the following would the
nurse include in the session?
A) Menopause involves very noticeable and
characteristic symptoms.
B) The symptoms are usually temporary lasting
for a month or two.
C) It can occur as early as age 30 but more
commonly ages 45 to 55 years.
D) Going 6 months without a period signals
menopause.

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Menopause is a time that marks the permanent cessation of menstrual activity. It usually
occurs between the ages of 45 and 55 years. However, it can occur as early as age
30. Symptoms of menopause vary among women and last from months to years. They range
from hardly noticeable in some women to very severe in others. Natural menopause is when a
woman has not had a period in 12
months (no other apparent causes).

128
Q

During a home visit to a family, a community health nurse encourages the mother, aged
42, and grandmother, aged 67, to have a clinical
breast exam at which frequency?
A) Monthly
B) Yearly
C) Every 2 years
D) Every 3 years

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Clinical breast exams, performed by a health care provider should be done every year for
each of these women. They should also perform breast self-exam every month. The mother at her
current age should have a physical examination every 2 years. Both the mother and grandmother
should have a pelvic exam and Pap smear done every 3 years after
three consecutive negative Pap smears.

129
Q

As part of a health screening program, a community health nurse determines that a client
is infected with the human papilloma virus (HPV). The community health nurse encourages the
client to do which of the
following?
A) Get a mammogram immediately
B) Have her blood glucose level checked
C) Undergo testing for a breast cancer gene
D) Have a pelvic examination and Pap smear

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Infection with certain types of human papilloma virus is associated with an increase risk
for developing cervical cancer. Pap smears have improved early detection and prevention of
cervical cancer dramatically.
HPV infection is not associated with breast cancer, so there is no need for a mammography or
testing for a breast cancer gene. HPV is not associated with diabetes so
blood glucose testing is not indicated.

130
Q

A nurse is instructing the adult male members of a family on how to perform testicular
self examination. Which of the following would
the nurse include?
A) Performing the examination every 3 months
B) Completing the exam right after a hot shower
C) Examining both testicles at the same time
D) Reporting a slight difference in size of one
testicle

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
A testicular self-examination should be performed monthly right after a hot shower or
bath. One testicle is examined at a time. One testicle, usually the right one, is normally
slightly larger than the other.

131
Q

Which one of the following statements best describes the role of the community health
nurse in promoting the health of adult men 35
to 65 years of age?
A) Anticipatory guidance to men approaching each stage and help them with ways to
manage life more effectively.
B) Men of this age do not need to enhance their
self-care skills.
C) A positive attitude toward aging is not helpful
to men at this time in their lives.
D) Men of this age should exercise sporadically.

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
The community health nurse can provide anticipatory guidance to men approaching this
stage and help them with ways to manage life more successfully. Successful navigating this stage
of life can be fulfilling but may require a man to enhance his self-care skills. This includes
having a positive attitude toward aging, one that examines the benefits of maturity, finds a
balance between work and home, and maintains a healthy lifestyle by eating balanced meals and
obtaining regular
exercise.

132
Q

When developing a plan of care for a group of male patients experiencing erectile
dysfunction, which of the following would the
nurse expect to institute first?
A) Lifestyle changes
B) Adjustments to current medications
C) Psychotherapy
D) Behavior modification

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Treatment for ED usually proceeds from least to most invasive. For some men, making a
few healthy lifestyle changes may solve the problem. Smoking cessation, weight loss, and
increased physical activity may help some men regain sexual function. Cutting back on any
drugs with harmful side effects is considered next. For example, drugs for high blood pressure

133
Q

Which of the following would a community
health nurse recommend adult men and women over the age of 50 receive yearly?
A) Electrocardiogram
B) Tetanus booster
C) Flexible endoscopy
D) Hemoccult stool testing

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Men and women over the age of 50 should receive yearly physical exams and hemoccult
stool testing, electrocardiograms every 3 years, tetanus booster every 10 years, and
flexible endoscopy every 3 to 4 years.

134
Q

A community health nurse, who is working with a program to foster early detection of
prostate cancer, recommends prostate-specific antigen testing and a digital rectal exam for
men with average risk starting at which age?
A) 40 years
B) 45 years
C) 50 years
D) 55 years

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
The American Cancer Society recommends that screening of men who are at average risk
should begin at age 50 years and should include a blood test to assess PSA levels and a
digital rectal examination.

135
Q

When describing the changes occurring in the
older adult population globally, which of the following would be most accurate?
A) The over-80 age group is the fastest
growing segment of the group.
B) Males have a longer projected life expectancy when compared with females.
C) Most countries have adequate numbers of
social programs for older adults.
D) Adults over age 65 are expected to account
for about 25% of the population by 2050.

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
In most of the world, the population of those over 80 years of age is growing faster than
any other population age group. A higher life expectancy at birth for females compared with
males is almost universal. Many countries have few or no social programs available for older
adults. By the year 2050, one tenth of the population is expected to be
over the age of 65 years.

136
Q

A community health nurse is working with an older adult population ranging in age from
75 to 85 years. The nurse correctly classifies this group as which of the following?
A) Young-old
B) Old-old
C) Oldest-old
D) Elite-old

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Those between the ages of 65 and 75 are classified as <young-old, while those between
75 and 85 are labeled <old-old. The number of people living into <older= old age (75 years and older) is increasing. Forty percent of elderly people in the United States are among the <oldest-old (85 to 100 years), while more than 200,000 are among the elite-
old, or centenarians.

137
Q

While working with another group of community health nurses, a nurse overhears one of
the nurses saying, <That older man should just retire. He’s 70 years old. How productive can he
be?= The nurse interprets this statement as reflecting which of the
following?
A) Prejudice
B) Bias
C) Ageism
D)
Insight

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
The one nurse’s statement reflects stereotyping and a negative image of an older adult.
This is called ageism. It may be due to negative personal experiences, myths, or a general lack of
information. It is not reflective of prejudice or bias. Insight would reflect an understanding of the
older adult, which this
statement does not do.

138
Q

Which of the following statements are common misconceptions about older adults?
Select all that apply.
A) It is normal for older adults to become more confused and childlike, forgetful, and lose contact with reality as they age. They become senile.
B) As older adults age, they become more
different and less alike than other older adults.
C) Older people are very capable of learning new things.
D) As age increases, older adults withdraw,
become inactive and cease being productive.

A

Ans: A, D
Feedback:
Misconceptions or myths about older adults include the following: It is normal for
older adults to become more confused and childlike, forgetful, and lose contact with reality as they age. They become senile. As age increases, older adults withdraw, become inactive, and cease being productive. As older adults age, they lose their individual differences and become progressively more alike; older adults are forgetful, unable to learn new things, and set in their old ways of doing things.

139
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of
healthy older adults?
A) They are able to perform functional activities of daily living.
B) They are able to adapt, to continue to handle stress, and to be active in life and living.
C) They maintain the maximum degree of
physical, mental, and social vigor.
D) They are likely to be dependent on others.
E) They reside in institutions.

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Healthy older adults’ ability to function is a key indicator of health and wellness and is an
important factor in understanding healthy aging. They are able to adapt, to continue to handle
stress, and to be active in life and living. They maintain the maximum degree of physical,
mental, and social vigor. The vast majority of older adults, even those with chronic diseases or
other disabilities, are living outside institutions and are relatively
independent.

140
Q

The nurse educator is aware that the nursing student has a grasp of the primary
prevention needs of older adults when the nursing student makes which of the following comments?
A) It is unnecessary for older adults to receive
immunizations.
B) All older adults must restrict their sodium
intake.
C) Older adults don’t need to drink as much fluid as they are often less thirsty.
D) The oral health of older adults is often neglected, so it is important that they see a dentist regularly.

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
The oral health of older adults is often neglected, and so it is important that they see a dentist regularly. It is necessary for older adults to receive immunizations. Neither of these statements is true. All older adults must restrict their sodium intake and older adults don’t need to drink as much fluid as they are
often less thirsty.

141
Q

When visiting a local senior center, a community health nurse engages several of the older adults in a discussion about immunizations. Which statement best reflects
the importance of older adult immunization?
A) We’re at greater risk of dying from the flu or
pneumonia.
B) You don’t get the flu from the flu shot.
C) The doctor told us that we should get it.
D) Many of us get the shot here at the center for free.

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Older adults are at risk of not only contracting influenza or pneumonia but of dying from
them, underscoring the importance of obtaining the immunizations. The statement about not getting the flu from the shot addresses one of the common reasons for not getting it: the belief that the flu shot will give them the flu. The statement about the doctor telling them to get it indirectly reflects another reason for not getting it: a lack of knowledge about the need. The statement about getting the shot for free suggests that finances may be a barrier to obtaining the shot, but not why it is important.

142
Q

A community health nurse is teaching a group of older adults at a senior center about
strategies for successful aging. Which of the following would the nurse include?
A) Limit drinking alcohol to once or twice a
month
B) Avoid eating too many fruits and vegetables
C) Keep in touch with friends and family
D) Get up early in the morning

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Strategies for successful aging include maintaining contacts with family and friends and staying active through work, recreation, and the community. Moderation in drinking is key. The older adult should eat a healthy diet of fruits, whole grains, vegetables, and lean meat. They also should get as much sleep and rest as needed. Getting up early in the
morning may or may not be appropriate.

143
Q

An older adult interested in nutrition asks the community health nurse about the number
of calories that he or she should eat every day. Which of the following would be most
appropriate?
A) 800 to 1,200 calories
B) 1,200 to 1,600 calories
C) 1,600 to 2,000 calories
D) 2,000 to 2,400 calories

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
It is generally believed that older people need to maintain their optimal weight by eating
a diet that is low in fats, moderate in carbohydrates, and high in proteins with a
daily calorie count of 1,200 to 1,600.

144
Q

An older adult comes to the community health center for a checkup. During the visit, he
or she mentions that he or she is somewhat constipated. Which of the following suggestions would be most appropriate?
A) Use a laxative about once or twice a week
B) Increase your intake of fresh fruits and
vegetables
C) Drink about four 8-oz. glasses of fluid each
day
D) Walk around the block once a week

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Older adults should add more fiber and bulk to their diet with fresh fruits and vegetables
instead of relying on the habitual use of laxatives. Also, inadequate fluid intake can contribute to bowel and bladder problems. Consuming a diet that includes eight or more 8-oz. glasses of fluid (water, juices, tea) each day assists the gastrointestinal and genitourinary systems in their functions. Increased physical activity and exercise, such as a daily walk, help keep an older adult’s bowel patterns regular.

145
Q

A community health nurse meets with a group of adults at the local senior center. They
range in age from 65 to 70 years. The nurse would recommend vision screening, at which
frequency?
A) Every year
B) Every 2 years
C) Every 5 years
D) Every 10 years

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Currently, vision screening is recommended every 2 years for adults aged 65 years and
older. Blood pressure screening should occur yearly, and total cholesterol evaluation should
occur every 5 years. Tetanus and diphtheria immunizations should be administered every
10 years.

146
Q

A community health nurse is assessing an older adult’s ability to perform activities such
as shopping, doing the laundry, using the telephone, and handling finances. Which assessment
tool would be most appropriate
for the nurse to use?
A) Barthel Index
B) Instrumental Activities of Daily Living Scale
C) Katz Index of Activities of Daily Living
D) Modified Rankin Scale

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The Instrumental Activities of Daily Living Scale looks at an older adult’s ability to
perform such activities as using the telephone, shopping, doing laundry, and handling finances.
The Barthel Index assesses functional independence and is often used to determine levels of
disability or dependence of stroke victims in respect to ADLs. The Modified Rankin Scale
(MRS) is another common tool used for this purpose. The Katz Index of Activities of Daily
Living is based on an evaluation of the functional independence or dependence of clients with
respect to bathing, dressing, toileting, and related tasks.

147
Q

A community health nurse is preparing a
teaching program that addresses chronic diseases common among older adults. Which of the following would be most appropriate to include?
A) Forty percent of older adults are diagnosed
with diabetes.
B) Weight-bearing exercises are related to
increased cases of osteoporosis.
C) Postural hypotension can be related to falls in elders.
D) Older White men have the highest rates of
hypertension.

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Older adults need to have sufficient cerebral circulation to avoid dizziness. Dizziness can
lead to falling. A normal to high-normal blood pressure for the elder should be maintained.
Based on the most current statistics, 15.1% of men and 13.0% of women report having diabetes. Weight-bearing exercises are a way to prevent osteoporosis. Older African American men have the highest rates of
hypertension.

148
Q

After teaching a group of older adult women about preventing osteoporosis, which of the
following if stated by the group indicates the
need for additional teaching?
A) We should eat foods that are high in calcium and vitamin D.
B) We need to get bone density screenings
regularly.=
C) We should avoid activities that involve
weight bearing.=
D) We need to make sure that maintain a
healthy weight.=

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Weight-bearing activities are encouraged to promote strong bones. In addition,
individuals should be encouraged to eat diets that are rich in vitamin D and calcium, and include
calcium supplements as needed. Not smoking, maintaining a healthy weight, and receiving
ongoing bone density screenings are positive health behaviors that can contribute to strong
bones throughout life.

149
Q

After teaching a group of students about the most common health problems affecting
older adults in the community, which of the following if identified by the students would alert
the instructor to the need for additional
teaching?
A) Arthritis
B) Hypertension
C) Emphysema
D) Peripheral vascular disease

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Emphysema is not considered a common health problem of older adults. The most
common health problems of older people in the community are arthritis, reduced vision, hearing
loss, heart disease, peripheral vascular
disease, and hypertension.

150
Q

When describing elder abuse to the families of older adults who are attending a local
community presentation, which of the following would the community health nurse
identify most commonly as the perpetrator?
A) Elder’s adult child
B) Elder’s partner
C) Elder’s neighbor
D) Elder’s grandchild

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The most common perpetrators of elder abuse are spouses or partners of elders. The next
most frequent abuser is the adult child of the elder. Although it may be possible that the
perpetrator is the elder’s neighbor or
grandchild, this situation would be quite rare.

151
Q

Which one of the following statements about elder abuse is most accurate?
A) Elder abuse is a problem that is under
recognized and underreported.
B) It is more common for elderly men to be
abused rather than elderly women.
C) If there is long-term domestic violence in an elderly couple, it is not considered elder
abuse for the perpetrator to continue to abuse the victim.
D) Self-neglect is not considered to be a form of mistreatment.

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Elder abuse is a problem that is under recognized and underreported. It is more common
for elderly women to be abused rather than elderly men. The most common perpetrators of elder
abuse are spouses or partners of elders, often in a relationship with long-term domestic violence.
In some states, self-neglect is also considered a form of
mistreatment.

152
Q

Which of the following comprise the primary criteria for effective programs for older
adults?
A) Coordination
B) Accessibility
C) Comprehensive
D) Complex
E) Quality

A

Ans: A, B, C, E
Feedback:
The primary criteria for effective programs for older adults include coordination,
accessibility, comprehensive, and quality.

153
Q

Which of the following are included in a
comprehensive set of services? Select all that apply.
A) Adequate financial support
B) Health education
C) Encouragement to spend much time alone
D) Adult day care programs
E) Access to high-quality health care services
F)
In-home services

A

Ans: A, B, D, E, F
Feedback:
A comprehensive set of services for senior citizens should include the following:
adequate financial support, adult day care programs, access to high quality health care services,
health education, in-home services, recreation and activity programs that promote socialization
(not encouragement to spend much time alone), and specialized
transportation services.

154
Q

A community health nurse is making a home visit to a family who is providing care to an
older adult member with Alzheimer’s disease for the past 6 months. During the visit, which of the following would be most important for
the nurse to assess?
A) Cognitive status
B) Medication regimen
C) Personality changes
D) Caregiver’s status

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Although assessment of the various aspects of the patient’s status is important, that of the
caregiver is even more important. Often, the person with AD is cared for at home until very late
in the disease course. The intense care given to these clients can be a constant drain on the
emotional and physical reserves of their families. The stress of providing care
puts the caregiver’s health at risk, as well.

155
Q

A group of community health nurses who work in continuing care retirement centers are
asked to talk to a group of seniors about what they do. Which of the following would the
nurses identify as unique for this setting?
A) Accept clients who primarily need skilled
nursing services
B) Are similar to board and care homes
C) Are respite centers for family members of
older adults
D) Provide a variety of housing and care options
that elders need as they age

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Continuing care retirement centers are comprehensive centers and have become the last
place an older adult needs to live, meeting independent to dependent needs, including skilled
nursing and Alzheimer’s disease services. They can age in place without moving to another
location as their needs increase. They accept residents at all stages of need, from totally
independent living to assisted living to skilled nursing care. In some settings, residents cannot
enter the residence at the skilled nursing level. These beds are filled by residents with increasing
needs as they move from independent living, to assisted living, to skilled nursing care. Skilled
nursing facilities provide skilled nursing care along with personal care that is considered
nonskilled. Board and care or personal care homes offer 24 hours basic custodial care but
provide no skilled nursing services. Respite care centers provide time off for caregivers. It can
take place in an adult day center, home, or residential setting.

156
Q

Which one of the following statements is most accurate when differentiating hospice
from palliative care?
A) Both palliative care and hospice focus on cure; however, hospice focuses on terminal
illnesses, and palliative care focuses on
diseases that are more chronic in nature.
B) Palliative care consists of comfort and symptom management and is often a part of
hospice care.
C) Hospice is more of a specific place than a
concept of care, whereas palliative care is more of a concept of care.
D) Hospice is intended for people who have a projected life expectancy of 6 months or more,
and palliative care is intended for
people who are actively dying.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Palliative care consists of comfort and symptom management and is often part of hospice
care. Neither palliative care nor hospice focuses on cure. Hospice does focus on care of people
who are known to be at end of life, and palliative care can be provided to people who have
chronic ongoing health conditions even when death is not imminent. Hospice is more of a
concept of care than a specific place. Palliative care should be a major focus of care throughout
the aging process, regardless of whether death is
imminent within 6 months.

157
Q

When working with the older adult population in the community, which of the following
would be most important for the community
health nurse to do?
A) Develop case management programs to
channel clients to appropriate services
B) Place the older adult in skilled nursing
facilities for the best care available
C) Raise funds to support the needs of the older
adults in the community
D) Emphasize tertiary prevention at this stage in
the lives of the older adult

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Services for the older adult should be proactive. Nurses should design interventions that
maximize nursing resources and provide the greatest benefit to elderly clients. Skilled nursing
facilities are for people with skilled needs, not for older adults managing chronic diseases
independently. One’s own home is most often the best place for elders and where they want to
be. This is not something that is always needed or possible for a community health nurse to
become involved in. Nurses can identify the needs for additional funding, advocate for more
funding, and facilitate a community group’s efforts to raise funds. This is how a nurse can best
serve the elderly and support their needs rather than by actually raising the funds. Prevention should be proactive and focus on primary prevention regardless of the client’s age.

158
Q

Which of the following would a community health nurse use to define vulnerable
populations?
A) Those persons with higher mortality rates
B) Individuals with lower life expectancy
C) Those with increased risk for adverse health
outcomes
D) Individuals with chronic illness

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Vulnerable populations are groups who have a heightened risk for adverse health
outcomes. They may include various populations such as those with higher mortality rates, lower
life expectancies, or chronic illnesses. However, presence of just one of these does not
necessarily indicate that the population is
vulnerable.

159
Q

When assessing vulnerable populations, a community health nurse uses a popular model
that contains three related concepts. Which of the following would the nurse include? Select
all that apply.
A) Resource availability
B) Relative risk
C) Health status
D) Housing
E) Education

A

Ans: A, B, C
Feedback:
A popular conceptual framework of vulnerability contains three related concepts:
resource availability, relative risk, and health status. Housing and education are not one of the
three related concepts in this popular
model.

160
Q

A community health nurse is applying the Behavioral Model for Vulnerable Populations
when evaluating a local community. Which of the following would the nurse include as an
enabling factor?
A) Insurance
B) Acculturation
C) Knowledge of disease
D) Marital status

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Enabling factors include personal and family resources, as well as community resources
(e.g., income, insurance, social support, region, health services resources, public benefits,
transportation, telephone, crime rates, social services resources).
Acculturation, knowledge of disease, and marital status are examples of predisposing
factors.

161
Q

population for socioeconomic resources.
Which of the following would the nurse address?
A) Quality of care provided
B) Access to health care services
C) Educational opportunities
D) Adequacy of health care providers

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Socioeconomic resources include such things as human capital (e.g., jobs, income,
housing, education), social connectedness or integration (e.g., social networks or ties, social
support or the lack of it characterized by marginalization), and social status (e.g., position,
power, role). Environmental resources deal mostly with access to health care and the quality of
that care, including the
adequacy of health care providers.

162
Q

When assessing a population’s vulnerability, which of the following would the
community
health nurse identify as a predisposing factor?
A) Social support networks
B) Crime rates
C) Transportation
D) Living conditions

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Predisposing factors include demographic variables (e.g., gender, age, marital status),
social variables (e.g., education, employment, ethnicity, social networks), and health beliefs
(e.g., values and attitudes toward health and health care services, knowledge of disease). Social
structures (e.g., acculturation and immigration), sexual orientation, and childhood characteristics
(e.g., mobility, living conditions, history of substance abuse, criminal behavior, victimization, or
mental illness) are also considered as predisposing factors. Enabling factors include personal and
family resources, as well as community resources (e.g., income, insurance, social support,
region, health services resources, public benefits, transportation, telephone,
crime rates, social services resources).

163
Q

When assessing a vulnerable population’s relative risk, which of the following would the
community health nurse identify most
likely as contributing to this risk?
A) Well-balanced diet
B) Up-to-date immunizations
C) Enabling factors
D) Exposure to abuse

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Relative risk refers to exposure to risk factors identified by a substantial body of research
as lifestyle, behaviors, and choices (e.g., diet, exercise, use of tobacco, alcohol and other drugs,
sexual behaviors), use of health screening services (e.g., immunizations, health promotion, use of
seat belts), and stressful events (e.g., crime, violence, abuse, firearm use). A well-balanced diet,
up-to-date immunizations, and use of seat belts would reduce one’s risk whereas exposure to
abuse may increase the risk. Enabling factors relate to the Behavioral Model for Vulnerable
Populations and not to the relative risk.

164
Q

When describing the causes of vulnerability to a group of students, which of the
following
would the instructor include?
A) Vulnerable populations are fairly similar
across the nation and globally.
B) Statistics about vulnerable populations are
highly accurate.
C) The most important causative factor is race or
ethnicity.
D) Many of the factors and conditions suggest
vulnerability overlap.

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Many of the factors and conditions contribute to vulnerability overlap, making it difficult
to obtain accurate data and statistics for each group or category. Although there are some
similarities and consistencies in terms of vulnerable populations, the factors vary. They also are
interactive, making it difficult to determine which factor or cause is considered
most important.

165
Q

Which one of the following statements about
relative risk is most accurate?
A) Lifestyle, behaviors, and choices do not relate to relative risk.
B) Relative risk refers to exposure to risk factors
identified from a substantial body of research.
C) Relative risk means that if a risk exists, the
illness or adverse event will occur.
D) Any factor that is likely to cause increased
risk is considered relative risk.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Relative risk refers to exposure to risk factors identified from a substantial body of
research. Lifestyle, behaviors, and choices are risk factors. Relative risk is not an absolute cause
and effect that if a risk exists, the illness or adverse event will occur. Only factors that are
identified by a substantial body of research
are considered relative risk.

166
Q

A community health nurse is describing social capital and its impact on populations to a
group of local community leaders. Which of the following would the nurse suggest as a way to
improve the social capital of the
community?
A) Better job training
B) Improved educational programs
C) Expanded employment opportunities
D) More community organizations

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Social capital consists of marital status, family structure, social ties and networks, and
membership in voluntary organizations, such as a church or clubs. Thus suggesting more
community organizations would address social capital. Better job training, improved education,
and expanded employment opportunities are examples of human capital, investments in
individuals’ capabilities and skills (e.g., education, job training) that comprise jobs, income,
housing, and
education.

167
Q

Which one of the following statements is true
regarding social capital?
A) Social capital includes investments in
individuals’ capabilities and skills.
B) Social capital includes marital status and
family structure.
C) Social capital includes jobs, income, housing,
and education.
D) Examples of social capital are education and
job training.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Social capital consists of marital status, family structure, social ties and networks, and
memberships in voluntary organizations.
Human capital is linked to investments in individuals’ capabilities in skills (e.g., education, job
training) and comprises jobs,
income, housing, and education.

168
Q

Which of the following would a community
health nurse include when describing the differential vulnerability hypothesis?
A) Exposure to risk factors affects the
population’s social and human capital.
B) Everyone is at risk because of stressful events
occurring in life.
C) A risk for a negative outcome increases with
lower education and income levels.
D) Certain groups are impacted by stressful
events more than others.

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
The differential vulnerability hypothesis states that everyone is subjected to stressful
events, but that these events hurt some people more than others, thus they are vulnerable
populations. Although everyone experiences stresses, not everyone is vulnerable. Deficits or
problems in social and human capital can increase the population’s risk. Lower education and
income are associated with a higher relative risk, but these alone do not
describe the hypothesis.

169
Q

After teaching a group of students about factors associated with vulnerable populations,
the instructor determines the need for additional teaching when the
students identify which as a factor?
A) Homelessness
B) Acute illness
C) Income
D) Immigrant status

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Factors associated with vulnerable populations include income and education, age and
gender, race and ethnicity, homelessness, chronic illness and disability, and immigration among
others. Chronic, not
acute, illness is considered as a factor.

170
Q

A community health nurse is part of a group working with local and state legislators to
expand health insurance coverage for those with inadequate or no insurance. Which outcome would the nurse hope to achieve if
the group is successful?
A) Increase use of early screenings
B) Increase emergency room visits
C) Increase episodic care
D) Increase disparities in care

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Having inadequate or no health insurance leads to poor health outcomes due to lack of
early screening and preventive measures, including regular physical exams and immunizations,
delays in getting treatment, and use of emergency rooms for worsening conditions with no
continuity of care, all as efforts to save money. Expanding health insurance hopefully would
promote increased use of early screenings, decreased emergency room visits, more continuity of
care, and better health outcomes all around with less
disparities.

171
Q

Which of the following would be most important for a community health nurse to do first
when working with vulnerable
populations?
A) Helping them to make choices
B) Guiding them to think things through
C) Getting them to interact with the nurse
D) Providing honest feedback

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
When working with vulnerable populations, the first step is to open the door and interact
with the clients, engaging them, and developing rapport. Once this is accomplished, the
community health nurse can then help them in making choices, guide them to think through all
the issues and
consequences, and provide honest feedback.

172
Q

A community health nurse is working to empower clients of a vulnerable population.
Which of the following client behaviors
indicates that the nurse is achieving this goal?
A) Collaboration with their health care providers
B) Demonstration of a reactive focus
C) Hesitancy in the use of resources
D) Viewing of situations as nonchangeable

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Empowerment would be manifested by the clients engaging in collaboration with their
health care providers, becoming more proactive than reactive, being better able to seek and use
services, and being realistic about barriers with a view for ways to change
things for the better.

173
Q

Which of the following would be least helpful to a novice community health nurse
working with vulnerable populations who is feeling overwhelmed and somewhat guilty about his
or her personal situation as compared to his or
her clients?
A) Setting up an community agency clothing
drive collection
B) Working for changes in community attitudes
C) Sending a personal donation to an agency in
the area
D) Remaining grounded

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Working with disadvantaged populations can be challenging and exhausting. Often a
novice community health nurse may feel overwhelmed and suffer compassion fatigue and guilt
about ones one life. To be effective, it is often helpful to donate money or items on a group level
such as an agency clothing drive rather than an individual level and to work for substantial
changes in community attitudes. In addition, the nurse needs to remain grounded in order to
continue to have the necessary
energy and compassion.

174
Q

A community health nurse working with a group of vulnerable clients is focusing on
empowering them. Which of the following
would be most effective?
A) Keeping the clients to a firm schedule of visits
B) Viewing the clients as active partners in the
process
C) Having the clients cut through bureaucratic
red tape
D) Focusing on the clients’ limitations

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Activities that are most effective in promoting empowerment include viewing the clients
as active partners (shows mutual respect and helps build a trusting relationship), being flexible in
dealing with the clients (demonstrates a client-centered approach), cutting through the
bureaucratic red tape (demonstrates advocacy), and focusing on the clients’ strengths rather than
limitations (helps
to build client capacity).

175
Q

A community health nurse is preparing a presentation for a group of local community
nurses about measures to help decrease health disparities. Which of the following would be
the least effective suggestion?
A) Avoiding political involvement in issues
B) Working with schools to reduce dropout
rate
C) Organizing task forces to raise community
awareness
D) Holding community meetings to identify
needs

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
To help decrease health disparities, political advocacy is necessary to influence health
policy. In addition, working with schools to reduce the dropout rate helps to address the
connection between education and outcomes. Organizing task forces, raising community
awareness, and community input for need identification are all effective methods to address
vulnerable populations and health
disparities.

176
Q

After teaching a group of students about the socioeconomic gradient in health, the
instructor determines that the students understand the concept when they state that the
relationship between social class and health is which of the following?
A) Direct
B) Inverse
C) Positive
D) Unequal

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The socioeconomic gradient refers to the inverse relationship between social class or
income and health, such that the lower the social class or income, the higher the rates of
disease.

177
Q

Which one of the following statements is true
regarding the socioeconomic gradient of health?
A) The behavior of smoking is lowest among those who have low income and low
educational levels.
B) The socioeconomic gradient of health has
been found in populations around the world.
C) All persons who have a low socioeconomic
status will develop particular health problems.
D) The socioeconomic gradient of health is
universal.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The socioeconomic gradient of health has been found in populations around the world,
although not always unfailingly. The behavior of smoking is highest among those who have low
income and low educational levels. Not all persons who have low socioeconomic
status will develop particular health problems.

178
Q

Which of the following are types of health disparities that are due to inequities that can
be corrected? Select all that apply.
A) Patients feel that they are unable to trust the
information given to them and may not follow it as explained.
B) Limited access to appropriate level of care
C) Poor access to quality care
D) Overt discrimination
E) Health-damaging behaviors that are chosen by an individual despite health education and
counseling efforts

A

Ans: A, B, C, D
Feedback:
Health disparities may be unavoidable, such as health-damaging behaviors that are
chosen by an individual despite health education and counseling efforts, but most are thought to
be due to inequities than can be corrected.
Reported disparities exist in the areas of quality of health care, access to care, levels and types of
care, and care settings; they exist within subpopulations (e.g., elderly, women, children, rural
residents, disabled) and across clinical conditions. Patients can also react to providers in a way
that promotes disparities; they may not trust the information given to them and may not follow it
as explained,
leading to inadequate care.

179
Q

Which of the following vulnerable populations have been subjected to perceived poor
quality of care and access to care? Select
all that apply.
A) HIV-infected persons
B) Persons who use illicit drugs
C) People of non-White race/ethnicity
D) People of White race/ethnicity
E) Homeless persons

A

Ans: A, B, C, E
Feedback:
Higher perceived discrimination was associated with HIV infection, homelessness, drug
use, and race/ethnicity, emphasizing the perceived poor quality of care and difficulties
with access to care.

180
Q

develop effective plans to meet the needs of people with disabilities, the community health nurse reviews the statistics involving individuals with disabilities. Which of the following would the nurse identify as accurately reflecting the number of persons with ongoing disability?
A) 10 million people less than 5% of the US
population
B) 27 million people about 10% of the US
population
C) 36 million people about 12% of the US
population
D) 150 million people4almost 50% of the US
population

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
An estimated 36 million people or 12% of the population is living with some ongoing
level of disability. The other statistics of 10 million,
27 million, and 150 million are inaccurate.

181
Q

When explaining the concept of disability to a local community group, which of the following descriptions would be most appropriate for the nurse to include?
A) A disability is a condition someone has, not
something one is.
B) The plan of care for two people with the
same disability would be the same.
C) A disability refers to a person’s inability to do something.
D) Handicap and disability are two terms that go hand in hand.

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Long-held negative views of disabilities are being replaced with new and more positive
approaches that view individuals and their challenges from a more holistic standpoint. Thus, a
disability is something that a person has, not something one is. Even persons with the same
disability but their plan of care can be quite different. Earlier terminology equated disability with
an inability or incapacity or handicap that presents a more
negative view of the condition.

182
Q

In Healthy People 2020, what is the emphasis of the categories of objectives that relate to
the goal of Disability and Health to promote the health and well-being of people with
disabilities?
A) A growing emphasis on a holistic approach that recognizes life satisfaction is just as
important to health and well-being as
preventative services
B) A growing realization that healthy-life years for persons with disabilities do not equate to
decreased health costs at local, state, and national levels, unlike they do for persons
without disabilities
C) Focus on personal responsibility for healthy
lifestyle by persons with disabilities
D) Concept that persons with disabilities are
always dependent on others

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
In Healthy People 2020, the emphasis of the categories of objectives that relate to the
goal of <Disability and Health to promote the health and well-being of people with disabilities=
is a growing emphasis on a holistic approach that recognizes life satisfaction is just as important
to health and well-being as preventative services. It also indicates a growing realization that
healthy life years for persons with disabilities equate to decreased costs at local, state, and
national levels, just as they do for persons without disabilities. There is not a focus on personal
responsibility for healthy lifestyle by persons
with disabilities or a concept that persons with disabilities are always dependent on others.

183
Q

Which of the following are the three areas that Healthy People identified for public health action for the year 2020 using the International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health? Select all that apply.
A) Improve the conditions of life for persons
with disabilities
B) Address the inequitable distribution of resources among people with disabilities and
those without disabilities
C) Expand the knowledge base and raise
awareness about determinants of health for people with disabilities
D) Ensure the health of people with disabilities
by influencing many social and physical factors
E) Public health activities need to focus only on
preventing disability

A

Ans: A, B, C
Feedback:
The three areas that Healthy People has identified for public health action for the year
2020 using the International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health include
improve the conditions of life for persons with disabilities; address the inequitable distribution of
resources among people with disabilities and those without disabilities; and expand the
knowledge base and raise awareness about determinants of health for people with disabilities.
The plan to ensure the health of people with disabilities by influencing many social and physical
factors is too broad. Public health activities need to focus only on preventing disability is a
misconception.

184
Q

The community health nurse is invited to speak to a group of students about clients with
disabilities. As part of the class, the nurse intends to describe The International Classification of
Functioning, Disabilities, and Health (ICF) and its attempts at standardized language. Which of
the following would the nurse include as terminology that was standardized? Select all
that apply.
A) Disability impairment issues
B) Body functions
C) Handicapping conditions
D) Activities
E) Environmental factors
F) Personal Factors

A

Ans: B, D, E, F
Feedback:
The ICF included definitions for body functions and structures, activities, and
environmental and personal factors. Terms such as disability, impairment, and handicap have
been removed from the definition and replaced with functioning, which is more
holistic and positive.

185
Q

After teaching a group of students about leading health risks, the instructor determines
that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as the
#1 leading health risk?
A) Unsafe sex
B) High blood pressure
C) Underweight
D) Tobacco consumption

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
The ten leading health risks are (1) underweight; (2) unsafe sex; (3) high blood pressure;
(4) tobacco consumption; (5) alcohol consumption; (6) unsafe water, sanitation, and hygiene; (7)
iron deficiency;
(8) indoor smoke from solid fuels; (9) high
cholesterol; and (10) obesity.

186
Q

A community health nurse is preparing for a presentation on disabilities and is planning
to include information about Healthy People 2020 goals. When addressing these goals, the nurse
identifies differences from the goals addressed by Healthy People 2000. Which of the following
would the nurse identify as
different? Select all that apply.
A) Rather than individuals with disabilities and/ or chronic illnesses being defined by their
limiting conditions, they are viewed as having the potential to meet and exceed health promotion
and disease prevention goals set
for the nation’s population as a whole.
B) The approach to disability now emphasizes the principles of health promotion and disease
prevention for those currently experiencing
disabilities and/or chronic illness.
C) The goals for Healthy People 2000 have an entire section on disability and secondary
conditions.
D) A growing realization that healthy life-years for persons with disabilities equate to
decreased health costs at local, state, and national levels, just as they do for persons
without disabilities.

A

Ans: A, B, D
Feedback:
A comparison among Healthy People plans over the last decades underscores the
emergence of new approaches to identifying priority areas and planning to improve the health of
individuals with disabilities and chronic illness. In Healthy People 2000, only one priority was
devoted to disability and chronic illness. Over the past two decades, interest in disability has
accelerated. Areas that are focused on with Healthy People 2020 include rather than individuals
with disabilities and/or chronic illnesses being defined by their limiting conditions, they are
viewed as having the potential to meet and exceed health promotion and disease prevention goals
set for the nation’s population as a whole; the approach to disability now emphasizes the
principles of health promotion and disease prevention for those currently experiencing
disabilities and/ or chronic illness; and a growing realization that healthy life-years for persons
with disabilities equate to decreased health costs at local, state, and national levels, just as they
do for persons without disabilities.

187
Q

A community health nurse is compiling a list of organizations that serve the needs of
persons with disabilities. Which of the following would the nurse categorize as a federal agency?
A) National Organization on Disability
B) National Council on Disability
C) National Association of the Deaf
D) American Foundation for the Blind

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The National Council on Disability is an independent federal agency. The National
Organization on Disability, National Association of the Deaf, and American Foundation for the Blind are private organizations.

188
Q

Which of the following is a major difference between Healthy People 2010 and Healthy
People 2020 with respect to people with
disabilities?
A) Healthy People 2010 emphasized the
disparities that people with disabilities experience.
B) The emphasis on <secondary conditions in Healthy People 2010 has been replaced in
Healthy People 2020 with a concern for
health disparities for people with disabilities.
C) People with disabilities do not experience health disparities any more than people in the
general population.
D) Healthy People 2020 continues to emphasize secondary conditions.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The emphasis on <secondary conditions= in Healthy People 2010 has been replaced in
Healthy People 2020 with a concern for health disparities for people with disabilities. Key to
addressing the barriers is for people with disabilities to <(1) be included in public health
activities; (2) receive well-timed interventions and services; (3) interact with their environment
without barriers; and (4) participate in everyday life activities. Without these opportunities,
people with disabilities will continue to experience health disparities,
compared to the general population.=

189
Q

An instructor is reviewing the principles that resulted from the 2011 reassessment of
global progress on addressing disability with a class. Which of the following would the nurse
include?
A) The government must focus solely on seeking improvement in the lives of individuals and families living with disabilities.
B) Government must play the only role in
addressing disability.
C) It is unimportant for service providers, academic institutions, the private sector,
communities, and people with disabilities and
their families to address disabilities.
D) The importance of all persons, including those with disabilities, participating in their
country’s development.

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
In 2011, the World Health Organization and the World Bank reassessed global progress
on addressing disability in light of the 2006 Convention on the Rights of Persons with
Disabilities. It was determined that not only must governments seek improvements in the lives of
individuals and families living with disability, but every citizen needs to participate in their
country’s development.
Government at every level may play a most significant role, but there are important roles for
service providers, academic institutions, the private sector, communities, and especially people
with disabilities and their
families.

190
Q

When describing the importance of the World Health Report to a group of students, the
instructor would emphasize which of the
following?
A) It challenged the world community to focus more attention on unhealthy behaviors that
lead ultimately to chronic disease, disability,
and early mortality.
B) Lifestyle choices are not one of the key
contributors to morbidity and mortality levels in either affluent or poor countries.
C) Infectious disease is the major threat.
D) Malnutrition is the only threat.

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
The World Health Report challenged the world community to focus more attention on
unhealthy behaviors that ultimately lead to chronic disease, disability, and early mortality. It recognized that although infectious disease and malnutrition require ongoing vigilance because they continue to plague many parts of the world, they are not the only threats. Lifestyle choices are also one of the key contributors to morbidity and mortality levels in both affluent and poor countries.

191
Q

After teaching a class about the International Classification of Functioning, Disability,
and Health (ICF), the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students
identify which of the following as a personal
factor?
A) Problems with ambulation
B) Working
C) Coping styles
D) Amputation

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Personal factors are the features of an individual’s background, life, and living that are
not part of a health condition or health status, such as gender, race, age, other health conditions,
fitness, lifestyle habits, upbringing, coping styles, social background, education, profession, past
and current experience, overall behavior pattern and character style, individual psychological
assets, and other characteristics. Problems with ambulation would be considered an activity
limitation. Working would be an
activity. Amputation would be an impairment.

192
Q

A community health nurse is planning to apply the International Classification of
Functioning, Disability, and Health to clinical care in the community. The nurse could use this
document as a basis for which of the
following?
A) Curriculum design
B) Needs assessment
C) Quality of life measures
D) Policy design

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
In clinical care, the ICF document would be helpful with a needs assessment. Using the
ICF document for curriculum design would reflect education; using it for quality of life measures
would reflect research; using it for
policy design would reflect social policy.

193
Q

A community health nurse is working with a group of visually impaired individuals and
is developing a program to promote self- confidence and self-respect. Which of the following
organizations would be a valuable
resource for the nurse?
A) American Foundation for the Blind
B) American Council of the Blind
C) Guide Dogs for the Blind
D) National Federation of the Blind

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
The nurse would contact the National Federation of the Blind whose focus is on helping
blind individuals achieve self- confidence and self-respect. The American Foundation for the
Blind advocates for the visually impaired through increased state and federal funding. The
American Council of the Blind provides services such as information and referral, scholarship
assistance, public education, and industry consultation, governmental monitoring, consultation,
and advocacy. The Guide Dogs for the Blind
makes guide dogs available for the visually impaired.

194
Q

A community health nurse is making a home visit to a family. The family has a son with
a disability who requires a motorized wheelchair. The family asks for the nurse’s assistance. Which response by the nurse
would be most appropriate?
A) His disability should automatically cover the
cost of the chair.
B) We’ll need to check with the insurance
company about coverage.=
C) You’ll probably be able to get it if you pay
for half the cost.=
D) You might be able to get a regular wheelchair, but a motorized one is
impossible.=

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
One major obstacle for families with a disabled or chronically ill member may be
obtaining needed assistive devices and technology. Just because the technology exists does not
mean that it can be obtained. Often the insurance carrier, whether private or governmental, sets limits on which products can be obtained or which brands are acceptable. Thus the nurse
working with the family would need to check with the insurance company first and determine
what if anything is covered and then determine how
to go about obtaining what the son needs.

195
Q

A community health nurse is developing a plan of care for a family who is providing
round-the-clock care in their home for a daughter who is chronically ill. Which of the following would be most important for the
nurse to integrate into the plan?
A) Insurance limitations
B) Skill teaching
C) Flexible visiting
D) Respite care

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Respite care is another area of great importance for families of the disabled and the
chronically ill. It can be emotionally draining to meet the daily needs of a member who cannot
perform self-care. This often leads to caregiver fatigue and increased stress. It is also important
to recognize the effect of the situation on noncaregivers in the family, particularly nondisabled
siblings of a disabled child. Respite care offers some needed relief to the family and allows for
uninterrupted attention to the nondisabled children.
Whatever the source, some type of respite care is often vital to the family’s health and should be
a priority in the overall treatment plan of the family. Although insurance considerations,
teaching, and flexible visiting would be issues to be addressed, respite care
is a priority.

196
Q

When developing programs to assist individuals with disability and chronic illness, which
of the following would be most
important?
A) Narrow focus
B) Holistic practice
C) Orientation to the present
D) Episodic care

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
The role of the community health nurse with respect to disabilities and chronic illness
requires a holistic practice and broad focus. Strong and sustained efforts are needed to achieve
results. The community health nurse addresses current needs and plans for the future

197
Q

A community health nurse is providing information handouts that describe the need for
annual gynecologic exams to local health clinics that provide care for individuals with
disabilities. The nurse is fulfilling which role?
A) Advocate
B) Coordinator
C) Researcher
D) Educator

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Providing information handouts is a method for teaching. Therefore, the nurse is
assuming the role of an educator at the community level. In the advocate role, the nurse would
assist in arranging for the population to receive the appropriate screening, ensuring that any
special modifications or adaptations would be available. In the coordinator role, the nurse might
arrange for screening to be performed during a routine visit made by a client to a facility or make
arrangements for transporting the clients to a facility for the screening. In the researcher role, the
nurse might contact other community health nurses about their experience in ensuring screening
for this population to discover if they have
similar needs or problems.

198
Q

A community health nurse is reviewing the effects of the Americans with Disabilities Act
of 1990. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a major result of this
legislation?
A) Employers with five or more employees must
abide by the American with Disabilities Act.
B) Architectural barriers must be removed from
pathways so that they are accessible by wheelchair.
C) The disabled are eligible to receive telephone
services in their home at no cost to them.
D) Individuals with disabilities who wish to vote
must be provided transportation to polling places to vote.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
A major accomplishment of this law was the removal of architectural barriers; curbs, stairs, handicap toilets, etc. so that the disabled in wheelchairs can freely move about. Employers with 15 or more employees must follow this law. Adapted telephone services are provided for those who are hearing or physically impaired, but the telephone service is not free. Polling places must be accessible to the disabled and absentee ballots and voter
registration can be done from home.

199
Q

When reviewing the concept of universal design with a group of community developers,
the community health nurse recognizes that the emphasis is on which of
the following as the underlying theme?
A) Disability needs
B) Adaptation
C) Access
D) Safety

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
The underlying theme of universal design is ensuring access. Universal design is the
design of products and environments to be usable by all people, including those with disability
needs as well as chronic illness. The concept incorporated issues of adaptive design and safety
measures such as reinforcement in bathroom walls to allow for installation of grab bars, but the
key issue is
accessibility.

200
Q

Which one of the following statements about
the benefits of universal design for all persons is the most accurate?
A) It is the right thing to do to allow access to the built environment for all persons including
persons with disabilities.
B) A healthier population may be achieved with attention to the environmental barriers that
impede healthy lifestyles for all persons, including those with chronic or disabling
conditions.
C) The built environment refers to the naturally
occurring features of the planet.
D) Access implies universal design.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
A healthier population may be achieved with attention to the environmental barriers that impede healthy lifestyles for all persons, including those with chronic or disabling conditions. Universal design is the right thing to do for persons with disabilities but is not the most accurate or best reason to ensure universal design. The built environment refers to the physical parts of where we live and work (e.g., homes, buildings, streets, open spaces, and infrastructure).
Universal design incorporates access, but access does not necessarily imply universal design.

201
Q

A community health nurse is meeting with a group of individuals who have been
diagnosed with a serious mental illness. The nurse interprets this to mean which of the
following?
A) The clients have impaired level of functioning
and quality of life.
B) The clients’ disorder is chronic and persistent.
C) The clients have issues of impaired control
and dependency.
D) The clients have a significant behavior
syndrome with present distress.

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Serious mental illness (SMI) is mental illness that has compromised both the client’s level
of function and his or her quality of life.
Serious and persistent mental illness (SPMI) is the preferred term for serious mental illness of a
chronic nature. Impaired control and dependency are components of addiction. A significant
behavior syndrome with present
distress characterizes a mental illness.

202
Q

When developing appropriate programs for adult mental health promotion, the nurse
incorporates knowledge about the most prevalent mental disorders. Which of the following
would the nurse identify as the
most prevalent?
A) Major depression
B) Bipolar disorder
C) Anxiety disorders
D) Schizophrenia

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
For American adults, the most prevalent mental disorders are anxiety disorders, followed
by mood disorders, especially major depression and bipolar disorders.
Schizophrenia, which affects approximately the same number of adults as bipolar disorder, is
problematic because it is so persistently disabling

203
Q

After teaching a group of women in the community about common mental health
disorders affecting them, the community health nurse determines that the teaching has been
effective when the group identifies
which one of the following?
A) Anxiety disorders and mood disorders occur
twice as frequently in men as in women.
B) Women of color, women on welfare, poor women, and uneducated women are more
likely to experience depression than women
in the general population.
C) The three main types of eating disorders
affect more men than women.
D) The three main types of eating disorders include undereating due to food
unavailability.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Women of color, women on welfare, poor women, and uneducated women are more
likely to experience depression than women in the general population. Anxiety disorders and
mood disorders occur twice as frequently in women as in men. The three main types of eating
disorders affect more women than men. The three main types of eating disorders (anorexia,
bulimia nervosa, and binge eating)
also affect more women than men.

204
Q

A community health nurse is part of community discussion group on alcohol. The nurse
recommends that adult males should
have less than
A) 6 standard drinks weekly.
B) 8 standard drinks weekly.
C) 10 standard drinks weekly.
D) 14 standard drinks weekly.

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
For the general male adult population, the recommended drinking limits are fewer than
five standard drinks daily or 14 weekly. For the general female adult population, the
recommended drinking limits are fewer than four standard drinks daily or eight weekly, and forpeople age 65 and older, recommended drinking limits are no more that one standard drink daily
or seven standard drinks weekly.

205
Q

When determining a target population for education about alcohol use, which age group
would the community health nurse most
likely plan to address?
A) 18- to 25-year-olds
B) 30- to 40-year-olds
C) 45- to 55-year-olds
D) 65 years of age and older

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Trends in alcohol use in the United States differ across subsets of the population. Young
adults (age 18 to 25) have the highest incidence of problem drinking. Thus the community health
nurse would most likely
address this age group.

206
Q

After teaching a class about commonly used illicit substances, the instructor determines
that the teaching was successful when the class identifies which of the following as the
most frequently reported illicit drug?
A) Heroin
B) Methamphetamine
C) Marijuana
D) Cocaine

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Although heroin, methamphetamine, and cocaine are frequently used illicit drugs,
marijuana is the most frequently reported
illicit drug.

207
Q

A community health nurse is discussing alcohol use disorders and is explaining what is
meant by a standard drink. Which of the following would the nurse include as an
example? Select all that apply.
A) Two 12-oz. cans of beer
B) 5-oz. glass of wine
C) 1.5 oz. of an 80-proof spirit
D) 3 oz. of a cordial
E) Two bottles of wine cooler

A

Ans: B, C, D
Feedback:
A standard drink contains about 14 g of alcohol (0.6 fluid ounces or 1.2 tablespoons),
which is equivalent to one 12-oz. bottle of beer or wine cooler; 8 to 9 oz. of malt liquor; one 5-
oz. glass of table wine; 3 to 4 oz. of fortified wine, 2 to 3 oz. of cordial, liqueur, or aperitif; 1.5
oz. of brandy; or 1.5 oz. of 80-
proof distilled spirits.

208
Q

When assessing a group of individuals for factors related to an increased risk for alcohol
use disorders, which of the following would
the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply.
A) Academic engagement/achievement
B) Antisocial peer affiliations
C) Decreased impulsivity
D) Positive mother3child/father3child
relationships
E) Stressful life events

A

Ans: A, B, E
Feedback:
Individual factors associated with the development of AUDs include problems with
academic engagement/achievement, antisocial peer affiliations, problems in the mother3
child/father3child relationship, and other
stressful life events.

209
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the etiology of substance use disorders is most accurate?
A) It is believed that nurture has substantially
more influence on the development of substance use disorders than nature.
B) With the mapping of the human genome, hope has decreased that the genes related to
substance use disorders could be identified.
C) Alcohol dependence is thought to be a multigenomic disorder influenced by the
environment (gene3environment interaction).
D) Only genetic heritability is involved in the
etiology and course of substance use disorders.

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Alcohol dependence is thought to be a multigenomic disorder influenced by the
environment (gene3environment interaction). It is believed that genetics is a risk factor in the
range of 50% to 50%. With the mapping of the human genome, hope has increased that the genes
related to substance use disorders could be identified. In addition to genetic heritability, both
personal and environmental factors are involved comparably in the etiology and course of
substance use
disorders.

210
Q

The community health nurse is using effect theory to design a prevention program for behavioral health. Which of the following would be the most likely place for the nurse to start?
A) Identifying antecedent factors leading to the
problem
B) Identifying the specific health problem
C) Determining the desired health problem
impact
D) Specifying the health problem outcome

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
When using effect theory to design a prevention program for behavioral health, a good
place to start is to identify the specific health problem and then the desired health problem
impact and health problem outcome. As the program is developed, the community health nurse
starts by identifying the antecedent factors that lead to behavioral health problems. This provides
a clear rationale for why the intervention should
provide the desired impact.

211
Q

A community health nurse is providing an in- service program to the agency staff about effect theory, which will be used to develop behavioral intervention programs. The nurse determines that the staff needs additional teaching when they identify which of the
following as a component of the theory?
A) Determinant theory
B) Intervention theory
C) Impact theory
D) Process theory

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Process theory is a theoretical framework used in community/public health science. It is
not a component of effect theory. Effect theory has four components: determinant theory,
intervention theory, impact theory, and
outcome theory.

212
Q

A community health nurse is applying the Institute of Medicine model based on Gordon’s
Classification of Disease Prevention model to address prevention of alcohol use during
pregnancy and prevention of fetal alcohol syndrome. Which of the following populations would
the nurse target indicated
prevention strategies?
A) Local women in the community of
childbearing age
B) Women of childbearing age living in a city
C) Women of childbearing age considered at risk
D) Pregnant women who have a child with fetal
alcohol syndrome

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Indicated prevention strategies would be designed to prevent the use of alcohol in
pregnant women who had screened positive for alcohol use during pregnancy or already had a
child diagnosed with FAS or FASD. Universal prevention strategies would address the entire
population of women of childbearing age (national, local community, school, neighborhood),
with messages and programs aimed at preventing the use of alcohol if pregnancy is a possibility.
Selective prevention strategies would target subsets of women of childbearing age who are
deemed to be at risk for alcohol use by virtue of their
membership in a particular population segment.

213
Q

A community implements a plan to enforce the underage drinking law. The community
health nurse interprets this action as reflecting
which public health model?
A) Primary prevention
B) Behavioral prevention
C) Environmental prevention
D) Clinical prevention

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
Environmental prevention relies on a societal commitment for the implementation of the
interventions and aims to alter the environment by reducing risk (e.g., community-wide decrease
in availability of the substance; underage drinking law enforcement). Primary prevention is
conducted when no disease is present in the target population with the primary goal being
prevention of disease development.
Behavioral prevention includes a broad array of strategies aimed at changing lifestyles (e.g.,
exercise, smoking cessation, balanced nutrition). The goal of the intervention is to change
behaviors that put the person at risk for developing the disease or to prevent consequences of the
disease. Clinical prevention is based on the medical model for preventive services. It relies on
one-to-one, provider-to-patient interaction and occurs within the traditional health care delivery
system.

214
Q

Which of the following statements about the
National Alliance on Mental Illness (NAMI) is most accurate?
A) NAMI focuses on the needs of the people
who actually have mental illness.
B) NAMI is committed to enhance the care of those with mental illness and improve the
quality of life of those who are affected.
C) The NAMI Web site contains some information that is intended to be used
exclusively by care providers.
D) All services of NAMI are provided at the
main headquarters.

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
NAMI is committed to enhance the care of those with mental illness and improve the
quality of life of those who are affected.
NAMI focuses on the needs of the families, peers, and consumers of Mental Health services. The
NAMI Web site contains extensive information that can be utilized by both consumer and care
providers. NAMI is a nationwide organization with chapters in each
state and county.

215
Q

Which one of the following statements about nonprofit organizations that serve those
with
mental health issues is most accurate?
A) They are all associated with the government.
B) A for-profit organization that promotes mental
health is Mental Health America, which was established in 1909.
C) The organization National Mental Health
Association is a scam.
D) They focus on advocacy, education, service,
and funding research endeavors.

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Nonprofit organizations focus on advocacy, education, service, and funding research
endeavors. They are not all associated with the government. Mental Health America was
formerly known as National Mental Health Association, which is a leading nonprofit
organization that promotes mental health.

216
Q

Healthy People 2020 objectives focus on tobacco, alcohol, and illicit drug use education. Which of the following are steps in the process to providing this education? Select all that apply.
A) Identifying the impact of substance use on the
environment
B) Identifying trends of substance use to develop
a prevention program
C) Understanding the consequences of substance
use that affect a community as a whole
D) Differentiating between legal and illegal
substance use
E) There are no differences in prevention
programs for different populations

A

Ans: B, C, D
Feedback:
The three steps in the process for providing tobacco, alcohol, and illicit drug use
education are in order (1) identifying trends,
(2) differentiating legal versus illegal use, and
(3) consequences of use. Identifying the impact of substance use on the environment is not
one of the steps. There are differences in prevention programs4if the target population is young
adults, the prevention of binge drinking might be a top concern; if homeless adults, the focus will
be on chronic alcohol, cocaine, and heroin use; cultural and ethnic differences in alcohol and

217
Q

A community health nurse is involved in a screening program for alcohol use with an
ethnically diverse population. Which of the following would be the best instrument to
use?
A) Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test
(AUDIT)
B) CAGE questionnaire
C) Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test (MAST)
D) Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST)

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
For alcohol use, the screening instrument recommended by the NIAAA is the AUDIT.
WHO developed this instrument for use across populations, and it has established high reliability
and validity across ethnic groups.
Other tests that can be used include the CAGE questionnaire and MAST. The DAST
would be appropriate to screen for drug use.

218
Q

Which of the following would the community health nurse identify as a major limitation
for using biological markers for screening for
substance use?
A) Sensitivity of the test
B) Cost of the test
C) Factors influencing the test
D) Ease of obtaining a specimen

A

Ans: B
Feedback:
Biological screening tests are rarely used in a community-based screening program due to
the cost and the problems with obtaining biological specimens. In addition, numerous factors can
influence sensitivity and specificity of biological markers, including other metabolic disorders or
other diseases,
medication use, and reliability of the method.

219
Q

Which of the following statements about Healthy People 2020 and reducing substance
use and addressing mental health needs is
most accurate? Select all that apply.
A) After a diagnosis is established, the nurse can decide on an intervention that can address
the specific public health issue identified in the diagnosis using the Healthy People 2020
objectives.
B) It could be considered a priority as two of the
top ten health indicators relate to substance use and mental health.
C) Target benchmarks and data derivation for
each objective can be used to guide program development.
D) Reducing substance abuse and addressing mental health needs are not priority with
Healthy People 2020.
E) The goals are to improve mental health through prevention and to reduce substance abuse
to protect the health, safety, and quality
of life for all, especially children.

A
220
Q

Which of the following would a community health nurse address as a means for
enhancing
the life of the public?
A) Proper nutrition
B) Healthy sleep patterns
C) Use of community supports
D) Creative outlets

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
Life-enhancing activities to enhance public well-being include meaningful work, whether
through or outside of employment, creative outlets, interpersonal relationships, recreational
activities, and opportunities for spiritual and intellectual growth. Proper nutrition, healthy sleep
patterns, and use of community supports are life-sustaining
activities.

221
Q

A community health nurse has completed a community assessment. Which of the
following would be next?
A) Decide on an intervention
B) Locate an appropriate the specific focus area
in Healthy People 2020
C) Establish a community diagnosis
D) Determine the level of prevention

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
After completing a community assessment, the nurse then establishes a community
diagnosis. Once this is done, the next step is to decide on an intervention that can address the
specific public health issue identified in the diagnosis. A good starting point in the development
of community/public health intervention is to begin with the Healthy People 2020 objectives,
locating the specific focus area that matches the community diagnosis. Once the nurse identifies
the focus of the intervention, the next step is to
determine the level of prevention.

222
Q

A community health nurse is working with a political group to lobby for changes in
funding for a mental health promotion program. The nurse is functioning in which
role?
A) Educator
B) Collaborator
C) Advocate
D) Case manager

A

Ans: C
Feedback:
The advocacy role requires being politically involved by serving on decision-making
boards and committees, lobbying for legislative changes, and helping to influence mental health
policy development that will better serve this population. In the educator role, the community
mental health nurse teaches clients individually and in groups about their mental health
conditions, their treatment protocols, ways to function more independently in the community,
prevention and health-promoting strategies, and much more. In the collaborator role, the nurse
works with others, pooling the groups professional expertise to enhance the quality and
effectiveness of services. In the case manager role, the nurse is involved with screening,
assessment, care planning, arranging for service delivery, monitoring, reassessment, evaluation,
and discharge, often within the context of a community mental health center (CMHC). Case
management helps the person with an SMI to access services and live as independently as
possible.

223
Q

Which one of the following are the primary roles that the community health nurse must
use to understand and serve populations with
mental illness?
A) Advocate
B) Educator
C) Case manager
D) Consumer of epidemiologic data

A

Ans: D
Feedback:
The access and use of epidemiologic data to
understand and serve populations with mental illness are primary.

224
Q

Which of the following are involved in accessing and using epidemiologic data to understand and serve populations with mental illness? Select all that apply.
A) Identifying the incidence and prevalence of
mental disorders
B) Understanding that all data are accurate
C) Examining the causes and risk factors
associated with mental illness
D) Identifying the needs of people with mental
disorders

A

Ans: A, C, D
Feedback:
This means identifying the incidence and prevalence of mental disorders, examining the
causes and risk factors associated with mental illness, and identifying the needs of populations
with mental illness. However, not
all data are accurate.