TEST 3 Flashcards

1
Q

DEFINITION: Uncontrolled and rapid cellular growth

A

CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2 ways cancer cells spread in tissue:

A
  1. Grow & invade adjacent tissues

2. Break away from original tumor mass and travel by means of the blood or lymphatic system to distant sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DEFINITION: is a disease or symptom that is the consequence of the presence of cancer in the body

A

PARANEOPLASTIC SYNDROMES (PNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

First Signs of Malignancy:

A
  1. Cachexia (most common) – like wasting

2. Fever, fatigue, weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

DEFINITION: Pharmacological treatment of cancer

A

CHEMOTHERAPY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2 groups of antineoplastic drugs:

A
  1. Cell cycle-nonspecific (CCNS)

2. Cell cycle-specific (CCS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? Antineoplast drugs target healthy and non-cancerous cells in different ways

A

FALSE - DO not differentiate between healthy and non-cancerous cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

DEFINITION: Original site of growth

A

PRIMARY LESION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

DEFINITION:
• Uncontrolled cell growth
• Secondary lesion in a new part of the body

A

METASTASIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

DEFINITION: Mass of new cells; tumor

A

NEOPLASM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

DEFINITION: can be benign or malignant (cancerous)

A

TUMOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

DEFINITION: cancers of epithelial tissue

A

CARCINOMAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

DEFINITION: cancers of connective tissue

A

SARCOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DEFINITION: cancers of bone marrow, lymph tissue

A

LYMPHOMAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DEFINITION: cancer cancers of blood

A

LEUKEMIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DEFINITION: Non-cancerous and not an immediate threat to life.

A

BENIGN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DEFINITION: Leakage of an intravenously or intra-arterially administered drug into the tissue space surrounding the blood vessel.

A

EXTRAVASATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DEFINITION: The absence of cellular differentiation.

A

ANAPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DEFINITION: A malignant neoplasm of blood-forming tissues.

A

LEUKEMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DEFINITION: A neoplasm of lymphoid tissue that is usually malignant but, in rare cases, may be benign.

A

LYMPHOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

DEFINITION: The process by which cancer spreads from the original site of growth to a new and remote part of the body.

A

METASTASIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DEFINITION: Antineoplastic drugs that are cytotoxic in any phase of the cellular growth cycle.

A

CELL-CYCLE NON-SPECIFIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

DEFINITION: A malignant neoplasm of the connective tissue arising in fibrous, fatty, muscular, synovial, vascular, or neural tissue.

A

SARCOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

DEFINITION: A permanent change in cellular genetic material (DNA).

A

MUTATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
DEFINITION: An alkylating agent.
CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDE
26
DEFINITION: A cytotoxic antibiotic.
BLEOMYCIN
27
DEFINITION: An antimetabolite.
METHOTREXATE
28
DEFINITION: A mitotic inhibitor.
VINCRISTINE
29
DEFINITION: A radiopharmaceutical.
SODIUM IODIDE I-131
30
DEFINITION: The lowest point in a fluctuating value.
NADIR
31
TRUE OR FALSE? SOME ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUGS HAVE CHARACTERISTICS OF BOTH OF CCNS & CCS DRUGS
TRUE
32
CELL CYCLE-NONSPECIFIC (CCNS) | _________________ during any phase of the cell cycle
Cytotoxic
33
CELL CYCLE-NONSPECIFIC (CCNS) | More effective against large, slowly growing ______________
tumors
34
2 kinds of CELL CYCLE-NONSPECIFIC (CCNS) drugs:
1. Alkylating drugs | 2. Cytotoxic antibiotics
35
ALKYLATING DRUGS | Are _______________ at any stage in the growth cycle of cancer cells
effective
36
ALKYLATING DRUGS | Prevent cancer cells from _________________ with the process of alkylation
reproducing
37
WHICH CLASS OF ALKYLATING DRUGS? * cyclophosphamide (Procytox) * mechlorethamine (Mustargen)
Classic alkylators (nitrogen mustards)
38
WHICH CLASS OF ALKYLATING DRUGS? * carmustine * lomustine * streptozocin
Nitrosoureas
39
WHICH CLASS OF ALKYLATING DRUGS? • Cisplatin
Probable alkylators
40
WHICH PROBABLE ALKYLATOR DRUG? • For treatment of solid tumors
CISPLATIN
41
2 CONSIDERATIONS FOR USE WITH CISPLATIN:
1. Do not administer AMINOGLYCOSIDES with Cisplatin as it increases risk of nephrotoxicity 2. Ensure client is adequately hydrated to prevent nephrotoxicity
42
ADVERSE EFFECTS FOR ALKYLATING DRUGS
1. Nephrotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, ototoxicity | 2. Extravasation causes tissue damage and necrosis
43
Patients taking alkylating drugs, what can prevent nephrotoxicity?
hydration
44
ALKYLATING DRUGS – NURSING IMPLICATIONS | Monitor for expected effects of __________ _____________ suppression
bone marrow
45
ALKYLATING DRUGS – NURSING IMPLICATIONS | Expect nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and _____________ (mouth ulcers – very painful)
stomatitis
46
ALKYLATING DRUGS – NURSING IMPLICATIONS | for patients with stomatitis
avoid high fiber, spicy, citric acid foods or foods of extreme temperature to decrease discomfort. Use soft bristle toothbrushes, etc…
47
ALKYLATING DRUGS – NURSING IMPLICATIONS | Report ANY ringing/roaring in the ears—possible __________________
ototoxicity
48
ALKYLATING DRUGS – NURSING IMPLICATIONS | Peripheral __________________ may occur—report tingling, numbness, pain in extremities
neuropathies
49
CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS | Used to treat cancer – too ____________ to treat infections
toxic
50
CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS | Can cause ___________ _____________ ___________ – except BLEOMYCIN
bone marrow suppression
51
CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS | Active in all phases of the __________ ______________
cell cycle
52
CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS | Act through alkylation & thereby ___________ DNA synthesis
block
53
WHICH CLASS OF CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS? • Daunorubicin • Doxorubicin
o Anthracycline antibiotics
54
WHICH CLASS OF CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS? | • Bleomycin
o Other cytotoxic antibiotics
55
INDICATIONS FOR WHAT KINDS OF DRUGS? | Used to treat a variety of solid tumors & some hematological malignancies
CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS
56
INDICATIONS FOR WHAT KINDS OF DRUGS? | Also used to treat AIDS related Kaposi’s sarcoma
CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS
57
3 ADVERSE EFFECTS FOR CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS
1. pulmonary toxicity or fibrosis (bleomycin) 2. heart failure (daunorubicin) or cardio myopathy (doxorubicin) 3. Liver, kidney & cardiovascular toxicities
58
CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS – NURSING IMPLICATIONS
Expect bone marrow suppression, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, stomatitis
59
CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS – NURSING IMPLICATIONS | Monitor ______________ status
pulmonary
60
CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS – NURSING IMPLICATIONS | Monitor for _____________, _____________ toxicity
nephrotoxicity | liver
61
CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS – NURSING IMPLICATIONS | Monitor __________________ status
cardiovascular
62
CYTOTOXIC ANTIBIOTICS – NURSING IMPLICATIONS | daunorubicin may turn the ____________ a reddish color
urine
63
WHAT KIND OF ANTINEOPLASTIC DRUGS? • Used to oppose effects of hormone and block sex hormone receptors • Used as adjuvants & in palliative therapy
HORMONAL ANTINEOPLASTIC DRUGS
64
WHAT TYPE OF NEOPLASM ARE THESE HORMONAL ANTINEOPLASTIC DRUGS USED FOR: • Tamoxifen • Medroxyprogesterone
FEMALE SPECIFIC NEOPLASMS
65
WHAT TYPE OF NEOPLASM ARE THESE HORMONAL ANTINEOPLASTIC DRUGS USED FOR: • Leuprolide
MALE SPECIFIC NEOPLAMS
66
WHAT KIND OF ANTINEOPLASTIC DRUGS? | • Used to treat a variety of cancers or symptoms caused by cancer
RADIOPHARMACEUTICALS
67
CELL CYCLE-NONSPECIFIC – NURSING IMPLICATIONS Monitor for _______________: REST & ELEVATE AFFECTED LIMB
extravasation
68
CELL CYCLE-NONSPECIFIC – 5 NURSING IMPLICATIONS IF EXTRAVASATION OCCURS?
1. STOP INFUSION. CALL DR. 2. LEAVE CATHETER IN PLACE 3. ATTEMPT TO ASPIRATE ANY RESIDUAL DRUG AND BLOOD FROM CATHETER 4. ADMINISTER ANDIDOTE AS PER PHARMACIST. 5. USE HOT/COLD PACKS AS INDICATED
69
CELL CYCLE-NONSPECIFIC – NURSING IMPLICATIONS ______________ is the best approach for extravasation & continuous ____________ of IV site is essential
Prevention monitoring
70
CELL CYCLE-NONSPECIFIC – NURSING IMPLICATIONS Assess baseline __________ _____________ before giving ANY antineoplastic drugs (drugs cause bone marrow suppression)
blood counts
71
WBCs NORMAL RANGE
5000-15000
72
TRUE OR FALSE? | If allergic to medication the client should still take the medication.
TRUE Unless anaphylactic.
73
CELL CYCLE-NONSPECIFIC – NURSING IMPLICATIONS 3 complications associated with bone marrow suppression
1. Anemia 2. Thrombocytopenia 3. Neutropenia
74
CELL CYCLE-NONSPECIFIC – NURSING IMPLICATIONS Monitor for oncological emergencies
1. Infections 2. Pulmonary toxicity 3. Allergic reactions 4. Stomatitis with severe ulcerations 5. Bleeding 6. Metabolic aberrations 7. Bowel irritability with diarrhea 8. Renal, liver, cardiac toxicity
75
CELL CYCLE-NONSPECIFIC – NURSING IMPLICATIONS Cytoprotective drugs may be used to reduce _____________
toxicities
76
Intravenous (IV) amifostine (Ethyol) to reduce renal toxicity associated with _______________
cisplatin
77
IV or oral allopurinol (Alloprim) to reduce ______________
hyperuricemia
78
CAREFUL WHEN ADMINISTERING '_______________' MEDICATIONS. DO NOT MIX THEM UP AS THEY HAVE DIFFERENT SIDE EFFECTS & INDICATIONS
‘RUBICIN’
79
A fever for a client taking CCNS antineoplastics is above ______________
37.8C
80
CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) | Cytotoxic during a ______________ cell cycle phase
specific
81
CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) | More effective against ______________ growing tumors
rapidly
82
CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) | Used to treat a variety of _________ tumors and some _____________ malignancies
solid hematological
83
``` WHICH KIND OF ANTINEOPLASTIC DRUG INCLUDES THE FOLLOWING? o Antimetabolites o Mitotic inhibitors o Topoisomerase I inhibitors o Antineoplastic enzymes ```
CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS)
84
WHICH CLASS OF ANTIMETABOLITES? Results in nonproduction of DNA & cell death (interferes with the use of folic acid)
Folate antagonists
85
WHICH CLASS OF ANTIMETABOLITES? methotrexate raltitrexed disodium
Folate antagonists
86
WHICH CLASS OF ANTIMETABOLITES? | Results in the interruption of the synthesis of DNA & RNA (interrupts metabolic pathways of purine nucleotides).
Purine antagonists
87
WHICH CLASS OF ANTIMETABOLITES? | Attacks tumor cells
Purine antagonists
88
WHICH CLASS OF ANTIMETABOLITES? • cladribine (Leustatin) – not widely used • fludarabine phosphate • allopurinol
Purine antagonists
89
WHICH CLASS OF ANTIMETABOLITES? | Results in interruption of synthesis of DNA & RNA (interrupts metabolic pathways of pyrimidine bases)
Pyrimidine antagonists
90
WHICH CLASS OF ANTIMETABOLITES? | o cytarabine fluorouracil
Pyrimidine antagonists
91
INDICATIONS FOR WHAT KINDS OF DRUGS? * Used in combination with other drugs * Treats solid tumors & hematological malignancies * Oral & topical forms are used for lose-dose maintenance and palliative cancer therapy
ANTIMETABOLITES
92
3 ADVERSE EFFECTS FOR ANTIMETABOLITES
* Alopecia (Hair loss) * Nausea & vomiting * Myelosuppression (Bone Marrow Suppression)
93
WHICH KIND OF ANTINEOPLASTIC DRUG INCLUDES THE FOLLOWING? * Natural products obtained from plants & trees * All work before, or during, mitosis
MITOTIC INHIBITORS
94
WHICH CLASS OF MITOTIC INHIBITORS: | o Etoposide
Epipodophyllotoxin derivatives
95
WHICH CLASS OF MITOTIC INHIBITORS: o Paclitaxel o Docetaxel
Taxanes – ‘taxel’ drugs
96
WHICH CLASS OF MITOTIC INHIBITORS: | o Vincristine
• Vinca alkaloids – ‘vin’ drugs
97
INDICATIONS FOR MITOTIC INHIBITORS: | • SLOWS ____________ ____________
CELL DIVISION
98
INDICATIONS FOR MITOTIC INHIBITORS: • USED TO TREAT A VARIETY OF ___________ TUMORS & SOME _______________ MALIGNANCIES
SOLID HEMATOLOGICAL
99
ADVERSE EFFECTS FOR FOR MITOTIC INHIBITORS:
* Liver, kidney, lung toxicities * Convulsions** * Extravasation
100
WHICH KIND OF ANTINEOPLASTIC DRUG INCLUDES THE FOLLOWING? • Inhibits DNA function & prevent DNA religation
TOPOISOMERASE I INHIBITORS
101
WHICH KIND OF ANTINEOPLASTIC DRUG INCLUDES THE FOLLOWING? o Irinotecan (Camptosar)
TOPOISOMERASE I INHIBITORS
102
INDICATIONS FOR WHAT KINDS OF DRUGS? • Ovarian & colorectal cancer • Small-cell lung cancer & others
TOPOISOMERASE I INHIBITORS
103
ADVERSE EFFECTS FOR TOPOISOMERASE I INHIBITORS
Cholinergic diarrhea (delayed, occurring 2 to 10 days after dosage) (irinotecan [Camptosar]) ***
104
WHICH KIND OF ANTINEOPLASTIC DRUG INCLUDES THE FOLLOWING? Synthesized using cultures of bacteria and recombinant DNA technology
ANTINEOPLASTIC ENZYMES
105
WHICH KIND OF ANTINEOPLASTIC DRUG INCLUDES THE FOLLOWING? | o Asparaginase o Pegaspargase (not commonly used Asparaguses)
ANTINEOPLASTIC ENZYMES
106
INDICATIONS FOR WHAT KINDS OF DRUGS? | • Acute lymphocytic leukemia
ANTINEOPLASTIC ENZYMES
107
ADVERSE EFFECTS FOR ANTINEOPLASTIC ENZYMES
• Impaired pancreatic function. Leads to: o Hyperglycemia o Severe or fatal pancreatitis
108
NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) Assess baseline blood counts before giving any antineoplastic drugs because of ______________ (bone marrow suppression)
myelosuppression
109
NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) Danger of ________________ of vesicants – leads to massive tissue injury or irritants – less damage if infiltrated
EXTRAVASATION
110
NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) Given IV – using ____________ venous IV catheters rather than _______________ catheters is recommended
central peripheral
111
NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) Remember rapidly dividing cells (normal & cancer cells) are effected & MONITOR FOR EFFECTS OR COMPLICATIONS ON THE FOLLOWING TISSUES
o Mucus membranes o Hair follicles o Bone marrow component
112
NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) Monitor for complications WITH GI mucus membranes:
Stomatitis (lesions & sores in mouth) – most distressful symptom Altered bowel function with high risk for poor appetite, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and inflammation and possible ulceration of GI mucosa
113
NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) Monitor for complications WITH HAIR FOLLICLES
• Loss of hair (alopecia)
114
NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) Monitor for WITH Bone marrow components
• Dangerously low blood cell counts (life-threatening)
115
NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) Take measures to monitor for and prevent infection in patients with _____________ or _______________
neutropenia leukopenia
116
NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) Monitor & prevent bleeding in patients with ________________ and __________
thrombocytopenia anemia
117
NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) Anemia may result in severe _______________
fatigue
118
NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) Anti-emetics work better if given ______-______ minutes before chemo
30-60
119
NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) Women of childbearing age need to use a nondrug form of _____________ (dick sock) during therapy & sometimes for months afterward because chemo is a ______________
contraception teratogen
120
NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR CELL CYCLE-SPECIFIC (CCS) Advise clients to avoid ______________ & persons with ______________
crowds infections
121
ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS • Treat all forms of __________________
Mycobacterium
122
``` • Common infection sites for what disease? o Lung (primary site) o Brain o Bone o Liver o Kidney ```
TUBERCULOSIS
123
_______________ is transmitted via droplets expelled by coughing or sneezing. Gains access to the body via inhalation
TUBERCULOSIS
124
_________________ is considered a pandemic
TUBERCULOSIS
125
Anti TB drugs can inhibit protein or cell wall __________________
synthesis
126
ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS • Before the results of susceptibility tests are known, begin a regimen with multiple anti-tuberculosis drugs (this reduces chances of developing _________________)
resistance
127
ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS • Once susceptibility is known, _____________ drug regimen
adjust
128
ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS Monitor adherence closely because non-adherence increases the incidence of _________-_____________ _____________
drug-resistant organisms
129
2 CONTRAINDICATIONS FOR ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS
* Major kidney or liver dysfunction | * Chronic alcohol use
130
WHICH CLASS OF DRUGS? ``` o Ethambutol (Etibi) o Isoniazid (Isotamine)* AKA INH o Rifampin (Rifadin, Rofact) ```
ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS | • Cell wall inhibitors
131
WHICH DRUG? | • Choice drug for TB treatment
Isoniazid (Isotamine)* AKA INH
132
WHICH DRUG? | • Metabolized in the liver through acetylation – watch for slow acetylators
Isoniazid (Isotamine)* AKA INH
133
WHICH DRUG? | • Usually used with rifampin
Isoniazid (Isotamine)* AKA INH
134
WHICH DRUG? | • Can be used alone or in combination with other drugs
Isoniazid (Isotamine)* AKA INH
135
2 ADVERSE EFFECTS – Isoniazid (Isotamine)* AKA INH
* Peripheral neuritis | * Hepatotoxicity
136
INTERACTIONS – WHICH DRUG • Reduces absorption of antacids (decreases isoniazid levels) • Reduces effectiveness of oral contraceptives • Additive effect with rifampin o Increases CNS & liver toxicity
Isoniazid (Isotamine)* AKA INH
137
NURSING IMPLICATIONS – Isoniazid (Isotamine)* AKA INH • Pyridoxine may be needed to combat _______________ adverse effects associated with INH therapy
neurological
138
2 ADVERSE EFFECTS – Rifampin (Rifadin, Rofact)
* Hepatitis * Should be told that their urine, stool, saliva, sputum, sweat, or tears may become reddish orange; even contact lenses may be stained
139
INTERACTIONS – WHICH DRUG? • Increases metabolism • Oral contraceptives
Rifampin (Rifadin, Rofact)
140
2 ADVERSE EFFECTS – Ethambutol (Etibi)
* Retrobulbar neuritis | * Blindness
141
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS Therapy may last for up to _____ months
24
142
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS Meds should be taken at the _________ time every day
same
143
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS Stress importance of strict _______________ to regimen
adherence
144
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS Advise clients they are ______________ during the initial period of their illness
contagious
145
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS Emphasize the importance of adequate ______________ and _____________
nutrition | rest
146
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS Should not consume ______________
alcohol
147
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS Be careful with ___________ drugs
OTC
148
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS Oral preparations may be given with _________ to reduce gastrointestinal (gi) upset, even though patients are recommended to take them 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals
meals
149
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS Watch for lack of clinical response to therapy, indicating possible drug ____________ (not necessarily due to non-compliance)
resistance
150
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS Instruct patients on the adverse effects that should be reported to the physician immediately, SUCH AS:
Fatigue, nausea, vomiting, numbness and tingling of the extremities, fever, loss of appetite, depression, jaundice
151
Purified protein derivative (PPD): ID injection used to detect TB ____________
exposure
152
Purified protein derivative (PPD): Positive Mantoux reaction is indicated by _______________ (not erythema) at the site of injection
induration
153
Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG): Is used worldwide to vaccinate __________ ______________ against TB
young children
154
Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG): _______________ active TB
Reduces
155
ANTI-FUNGAL DRUGS ‘AZOLE’ Treat infections caused by _____________ o Systemic o Topical
fungi
156
ANTI-FUNGAL DRUGS ‘AZOLE’ Infections caused by fungus are known as ________________
mycoses
157
ANTI-FUNGAL DRUGS ‘AZOLE’ Some ______________ are part of our normal skin, mouth, intestine & vaginal flora
fungi
158
ANTI-FUNGAL DRUGS ‘AZOLE’ Four types of mycotic infections:
o Cutaneous o Subcutaneous o Superficial o Systemic – can be life threatening, occurs in the immunocompromised
159
WHICH TYPE OF DRUG? * amphotericin B (Fungizone) * caspofungin (Cancidas) * fluconazole (Diflucan) * ketoconazole * griseofulvin
SYSTEMIC ANTIFUNGALS
160
WHICH IS THE DRUG OF CHOICE FOR MANY SEVERE FUNGAL INFECTIONS
amphotericin B (Fungizone)
161
WHICH TYPE OF DRUG? * miconazole * nystatin
TOPICAL ANTIFUNGALS
162
WHICH DRUG? Causes terrible adverse effects
Amphotericin B (Fungizone)
163
WHICH DRUG? Main concerns o Renal toxicity o Neurotoxicity: seizures and paraesthesias
Amphotericin B (Fungizone)
164
WHICH DRUG? Some side effects are pre-treated so they can receive the antifungal with less adverse effects
Amphotericin B (Fungizone)
165
WHICH DRUG? To reduce the severity of the infusion-related reactions, pretreatment with antipyretics (e.g., acetaminophen), antihistamines, antiemetics, or corticosteroids may be given
Amphotericin B (Fungizone)
166
3 CONTRAINDICATIONS – ANTIFUNGALS
* Liver failure * Renal failure * Porphyria (griseofulvin)
167
INTERACTIONS – ANTIFUNGALS
Many antifungal drugs are metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 enzyme system Drug interactions are significant with azole antifungals.
168
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-FUNGAL DRUGS ‘AZOLE’ Patients receiving intravenous (IV) infusions, monitor vital signs every _____ TO _____ minutes
15 to 30
169
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-FUNGAL DRUGS ‘AZOLE’ During IV infusions, monitor __________ and ___________, urinalysis results, liver and kidney function tests, and __________ _________ _________ to identify adverse effects
intake output complete blood counts
170
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-FUNGAL DRUGS ‘AZOLE’ Some oral forms should be given with __________ to decrease gastrointestinal upset; others require an empty stomach
meals
171
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-FUNGAL DRUGS ‘AZOLE’ _____________ given as an oral lozenge or troche (lozenge) should be slowly and completely dissolved in the mouth (not chewed or swallowed whole)
nystatin
172
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTI-FUNGAL DRUGS ‘AZOLE’ nystatin suspension should be _____________ thoroughly in the mouth as long as possible before _____________
swished | swallowing
173
ANTIMALARIALS More than one drug may be used for synergistic or additive ___________ ____________
killing power
174
ANTIMALARIALS Some drugs are used __________________ against malaria
prophylactically
175
3 CONTRAINDICATIONS FOR ANTIMALARIALS
* Tinnitus * Pregnancy (quinine) * Severe renal, hepatic, or hematological dysfunction
176
1 ADVERSE EFFECTS - ANTIMALARIALS
• Primarily GI
177
INTERACTIONS – chloroquine cimetidine decreases ______________ of chloroquine
metabolism
178
INTERACTIONS – chloroquine Hepatotoxic drugs and alcohol increase chloroquine levels in liver, thereby increasing ______________
hepatotoxicity
179
INTERACTIONS – primaquine and other hemolytic drugs Increase the risk for _______________ effects
myelotoxic
180
INTERACTIONS – mefloquine (Lariam) Increase the risk of ____________, ___________ __________, & __________________
dysrhythmia, cardiac arrest, & seizures
181
NURSING IMPLICATIONS – ANTIMALARIALS When used prophylactically, these drugs should be started ____ TO _____ WEEKS before potential exposure to malaria and continued for ______ weeks after leaving the malaria-endemic area
1 to 2 weeks | 4
182
NURSING IMPLICATIONS – ANTIMALARIALS • Taken ___________
weekly
183
NURSING IMPLICATIONS – ANTIMALARIALS Instruct patient to notify physician immediately if any of the following occurs:
``` o Ringing in the ears o hearing decrease o visual difficulties o nausea o vomiting o profuse diarrhea o abdominal pain ```
184
NURSING IMPLICATIONS – ANTIMALARIALS Alert patients to the possible ______________ of the symptoms of malaria so that they will know to seek immediate treatment
recurrence
185
ANTIPROTOZOAL DRUGS Patients with compromised ____________ __________ are at risk for acquiring protozoal infections which are often ___________ in this case
immune systems | fatal
186
WHICH TYPE OF DRUG? * atovaquone (Mepron) * metronidazole (Flagyl) * pentamidine * paromomycin (Humatin)
ANTIPROTOZOAL DRUGS
187
INDICATIONS - atovaquone (Mepron) Used to treat mild to moderate _____________ ____________ – infections HIV + people get
Pneumocystis jirovecii
188
2 ADVERSE EFFECTS - atovaquone (Mepron)
* Altered liver function | * Leukopenia
189
INDICATIONS - metronidazole (Flagyl) • Has ______________ activity
anthelmintic
190
1 ADVERSE EFFECT - metronidazole (Flagyl)
• Metallic taste
191
INDICATIONS - pentamidine Used to prevent and treat _____________ ____________ pneumonia
Pneumocystis jirovecii
192
INDICATIONS - pentamidine • Treats other _______________ infections
protozoal
193
1 ADVERSE EFFECT - pentamidine
Bronchospasms
194
INDICATIONS - paromomycin (Humatin) Used to treat ___________ and ____________ protozoal infections
amoebiasis | intestinal
195
ANTI-HELMINTIC Used to treat parasitic _________ infections
worm
196
ANTI-HELMINTIC Drug treatment is very ___________to the organism
specific
197
ANTI-HELMINTIC: mebendazole (Vermox) * Used to treat _________ ___________ * May cause ____________________
Pin Worms myelosuppression
198
ANTI-HELMINTIC: Pyrantel • Kills _________________ infections
roundworm
199
ANTI-HELMINTIC: praziquantel (Biltricide) _____________ worms’ musculature and ______________ their suckers
Paralyzes | immobilizes
200
ANTI-HELMINTIC: praziquantel (Biltricide) _________ ____________ is a contraindication
Liver disease
201
NURSING IMPLICATIONS: ANTIMALARIAL, ANTIPROTOZOAL, AND ANTHELMINTIC DRUGS Be sure to collect specimens before beginning ___________ _______________
drug therapy
202
NURSING IMPLICATIONS: ANTIMALARIAL, ANTIPROTOZOAL, AND ANTHELMINTIC DRUGS Some drugs may cause the _________ to have an asparagus-like odour or cause an unusual ___________ odour or a __________ ____________
urine skin metallic taste
203
NURSING IMPLICATIONS: ANTIMALARIAL, ANTIPROTOZOAL, AND ANTHELMINTIC DRUGS Administer all drugs as ordered and for the ______________ length of time
prescribed
204
NURSING IMPLICATIONS: ANTIMALARIAL, ANTIPROTOZOAL, AND ANTHELMINTIC DRUGS Most drugs should be taken with ________ to reduce GI upset
food
205
ANTIBIOTICS Used to treat _____________ infections
bacterial
206
WHICH TYPE OF DRUG? ``` o Sulfonamides o Penicillins o Cephalosporins o Macrolides o Tetracyclines o Aminoglycosides o Fluoroquinolones o Others: Carbapenems, Monobactams, Ketolides ```
ANTIBIOTICS
207
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIBIOTICS The most common adverse effects of antibiotics are nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea o ESPECIALLY _____________
MACROLIDES
208
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIBIOTICS All oral antibiotics are absorbed better if taken with at least _________ to ___________ mL of water
180 TO 240
209
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIBIOTICS Assess for signs and symptoms of ________________: fever, perineal itching, cough, lethargy, or any unusual discharge
superinfection
210
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIBIOTICS Patients should be instructed to take antibiotics exactly as prescribed and for the ___________ of time prescribed; they should not stop taking the medication early because they feel better – CONTRIBUTES TO _______________
length | RESISTANCE
211
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIBIOTICS If cultures are ordered, it is essential to obtain them from appropriate sites ______________ beginning antibiotic therapy
BEFORE
212
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIBIOTICS For safety reasons, check the __________ of the medication carefully because there are many drugs that sound alike or have similar spellings
name
213
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIBIOTICS 4 potential drug interactions
COUMANIN, SULFA DRUGS, DIURETICS, BIRTH CONTROL PILLS
214
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIBIOTICS Monitor for ______________ effects
therapeutic
215
SULFONAMIDES • Inhibit growth of ______________
bacteria
216
SULFONAMIDES In most cases, sulfonamides are ____________ with another antibiotic:
combined
217
INDICATIONS - SULFONAMIDES Treatment of ________
UTIs
218
INDICATIONS - SULFONAMIDES Prophylaxis and treatment of Pneumocystis jirovecii _____________ (co-trimoxazole)
pneumonia
219
CONTRAINDICATIONS - SULFONAMIDES Known drug allergy to sulfonamides or to chemically related drugs such as (2):
o Sulfonylureas | o Thiazide and loop diuretics
220
2 ADVERSE EFFECTS - SULFONAMIDES
* Photosensitivity | * Stevens-Johnson syndrome
221
INTERACTIONS - SULFONAMIDES Sulfonamides may: o Potentiate the _______________ effects of sulfonylureas in diabetes o Reduce the efficacy of ________ _______________
hypoglycemic | oral contraceptives
222
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - SULFONAMIDES Should be taken with at least _________ mL of fluid per day, unless contraindicated
2000
223
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - SULFONAMIDES Oral forms should be taken with food or _______ to reduce GI upset
milk
224
β-Lactam Antibiotics • Broad groups of drugs including these 2:
o Penicillins** | o Cephalosporins**
225
INDICATIONS - PENICILLINS Prevention and treatment of infections caused by susceptible bacteria, such as (3):
o Gram-positive bacteria o Streptococcus spp. o Staphylococcus spp.
226
ADVERSE EFFECTS - PENICILLINS
* MANY DRUG INTERACTIONS | * Oral contraceptives
227
NURSING IMPLICATIONS – PENICILLINS Any patient taking a penicillin for the 1st time should be carefully monitored for an __________ _____________ for at least 30 minutes after its administration
allergic reaction
228
NURSING IMPLICATIONS – PENICILLINS The ____________ of oral penicillins is decreased when taken with caffeine, citrus fruit, cola beverages, fruit juices, or tomato juice
effectiveness
229
CEPHALOSPORINS * 4 _______________ of drugs * ________________ a broad spectrum of bacteria
generations | Destroys
230
INDICATIONS - First Generation Cephalosporins Used for ___________ prophylaxis, upper respiratory tract infections, otitis media
surgical
231
INDICATIONS - Second Generation Cephalosporins * Have ___________ gram-negative coverage than first generation * Is used prophylactically for ______________
better | surgery
232
Third Generation Cephalosporins • Most potent group against gram-___________
negative
233
WHICH 3RD GENERATION CEPHALOSPORIN? * Both IV and IM – no oral form * Long half-life * Once-a-day dosing
o ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
234
WHICH DRUG - Fourth Generation Cephalosporins Broader spectrum of antibacterial activity than third-generation, especially against gram-positive bacteria
o cefepime (Maxipime)
235
ADVERSE EFFECTS - CEPHALOSPORINS Potential cross-sensitivity with penicillins if ______________ exist
allergies
236
NURSING IMPLICATIONS – CEPHALOSPORINS Some of these drugs may cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with _______________**
alcohol
237
CARBAPENEMS • Have very broad-spectrum ____________ action
antibacterial
238
CARBAPENEMS • Are reserved for complicated body cavity and connective tissue ______________
infections
239
CARBAPENEMS • May cause drug-induced _________ activity
seizure
240
CARBAPENEMS • Are all given ________________
parenterally
241
MACROLIDES ‘MYCINS’ • Prevent _____________ _____________ within bacterial cells
protein synthesis
242
MACROLIDES ‘MYCINS’ o ________________ (hardest on the stomach)
Erythromycin
243
4 INDICATIONS - MACROLIDES ‘MYCINS’
* Strep infections * Syphilis & Lyme disease * Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma * active ulcer disease
244
ADVERSE EFFECTS - MACROLIDES ‘MYCINS’
ERYTHROMYCIN PRIMARILY GI EFFECTS *** azithromycin (Zithromax) and clarithromycin (Biaxin) Fewer GI adverse effects, longer duration of action, better efficacy, better tissue penetration
245
INTERACTIONS - MACROLIDES ‘MYCINS’
Can reduce the efficacy of oral contraceptives
246
TETRACYCLINES Should not be used in children under age 8 or in pregnant or lactating women because __________ discoloration will occur
tooth
247
INDICATIONS - TETRACYCLINES
Acne
248
4 ADVERSE EFFECTS - TETRACYCLINES
o Discoloration of permanent teeth and tooth enamel in fetuses and children, or nursing infants o Superinfection o Diarrhea o Pseudomembranous colitis
249
NURSING IMPLICATIONS – TETRACYCLINES Milk products, iron preparations, antacids, and other dairy products should be ____________
avoided
250
NURSING IMPLICATIONS – TETRACYCLINES • Due to _____________________, avoid sunlight and tanning beds
photosensitivity
251
AMINOGLYCOSIDES • Often used in combination with other antibiotics for ________________ effects
synergistic
252
INDICATIONS - AMINOGLYCOSIDES Used to kill Gram-______________ bacteria
negative
253
INDICATIONS - AMINOGLYCOSIDES • Aminoglycosides are poorly absorbed through the gastrointestinal (GI) tract so are given _____________
parenterally
254
INDICATIONS - AMINOGLYCOSIDES **** neomycin, however, is given orally to decontaminate the GI tract before surgical procedures OR _____________
ENEMA
255
CONTRAINDICATIONS - AMINOGLYCOSIDES • Cause ____________ harm when administered to pregnant women
fetal
256
2 ADVERSE EFFECTS - AMINOGLYCOSIDES
* Ototoxicity (Vertigo may occur) | * Nephrotoxicity
257
INTERACTIONS - AMINOGLYCOSIDES • Aminoglycosides have an increased risk for nephrotoxicity when used with:
o vancomycin (Vancocin) o cyclosporine o amphotericin B (Fungizone)
258
INTERACTIONS - AMINOGLYCOSIDES • Use with loop diuretics increases the risk for _________________
otoxoticity
259
INTERACTIONS - AMINOGLYCOSIDES • Warfarin (Coumadin) _____________
toxicity
260
NURSING IMPLICATION - AMINOGLYCOSIDES • Monitor drug levels to prevent _____________
toxicity
261
NURSING IMPLICATION - AMINOGLYCOSIDES Monitor ____________ (LOWEST) levels every 3 days while on therapy or as ordered
trough
262
Symptoms of _____________ include dizziness, tinnitus, and hearing loss
ototoxicity
263
Symptoms of _________________ include urinary casts, proteinuria, and increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels, & WEIGHT GAIN
nephrotoxicity
264
FLUOROQUINOLONES • Oral absorption is reduced by _______________**
antacids
265
``` WHAT KIND OF DRUGS ARE THESE? o levofloxacin (Levaquin) o ciprofloxacin (Cipro) ```
FLUOROQUINOLONES
266
INDICATIONS - FLUOROQUINOLONES DRUG OF CHOICE FOR ________________
ANTHRAX
267
INDICATIONS - FLUOROQUINOLONES • Lower respiratory tract infections –___________________***
PNEUMONIA
268
CONTRAINDICATIONS - FLUOROQUINOLONES Avoid in clients taking _________________ drugs such as disopyramide and amiodarone as dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias can occur
antiarrhythmic
269
INTERACTIONS - FLUOROQUINOLONES Concurrent use of the following with quinolones greatly reduces their oral absorption: o ___________________
Antacids
270
clindamycin (Dalacin C) | • May cause pseudomembranous ____________
colitis
271
Linezolid | • Used for ______________
MRSA
272
metronidazole (Flagyl) | • Used for intra-abdominal and ______________ infections
gynecological
273
vancomycin (Vancocin) | • ________ ___________ syndrome may occur – LOOKS LIKE AN ALLERGIC REACTION
Red man
274
vancomycin (Vancocin) | • May cause ____________ and _____________
ototoxicity | nephrotoxicity
275
vancomycin (Vancocin) | • Should be infused over ______ minutes
60
276
vancomycin (Vancocin) | • Ensure adequate ____________ (2 L fluids/24 hr), if not contraindicated, to prevent nephrotoxicity
hydration
277
______________ medications kill or suppress viruses by: 1. Destroying virions or 2. Inhibiting their ability to replicate
Antiviral
278
ANTIVIRAL MEDICATIONS Drugs that destroy virions include THESE 2:
* Disinfectants | * Immunoglobulins
279
ANTIVIRAL MEDICATIONS 2 Drugs that inhibit viral replications are:
* Nonretroviral drugs | * Antiretroviral drugs
280
ANTIVIRAL DRUGS: Healthy cells are often killed also, resulting in serious ________________
toxicities
281
ANTIVIRAL DRUGS: Inhibit viral _______________
replication
282
INDICATIONS - ANTIVIRAL DRUGS • Used to treat infections caused by viruses other than ____________
HIV
283
CONTRAINDICATIONS - ANTIVIRAL DRUGS o Patients with severely compromised ____________ function o Pre-existing ___________________
kidney | hemoglobinopathies
284
amantadine • Active only against influenza ______
A
285
ADVERSE EFFECTS - amantadine • Central nervous system (CNS): _______________, _______________, ______________
insomnia, nervousness, lightheadedness
286
acyclovir (Zovirax) Used to suppress _______________ of: o HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV
replication
287
ganciclovir (Cytovene) • Used to treat _____________________ (CMV) • Used to treat CMV ____________
cytomegalovirus | retinitis
288
ribavirin (Virazole) used for hospitalized ______________ with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
infants
289
oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza) * These drugs act against _____________ types A and B, reducing the duration of illness * Treatment should begin within ______ days of symptom onset
influenza | 2
290
ANTIRETROVIRAL DRUGS | • Antiretroviral therapy (ART) includes at least ____ medications
3
291
ANTIRETROVIRAL DRUGS • Purpose is to reduce the _________ ___________
viral load
292
ADVERSE EFFECTS - ANTIRETROVIRAL DRUGS • Adverse effects are ______________ and vary with each drug
numerous
293
ADVERSE EFFECTS - ANTIRETROVIRAL DRUGS Goal: to find the regimen that will best __________ the infection with a ___________ adverse-effect profile
control | tolerable
294
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIRETROVIRAL DRUGS • Instruct patients to consult their physician before taking any other ________________
medication
295
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIRETROVIRAL DRUGS • Emphasize the importance of good __________
hygiene
296
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIRETROVIRAL DRUGS • Inform patients that antiviral drugs are not ____________ but do help to manage symptoms
cures
297
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIRETROVIRAL DRUGS • Instruct patients on the _______________ of taking these medications exactly as prescribed and for the full course of treatment
importance
298
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIRETROVIRAL DRUGS • Patients should be informed to start therapy with antiviral drugs at the _____________ sign of recurrent episodes of genital herpes or herpes zoster
earliest
299
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIRETROVIRAL DRUGS • Monitor for signs of ______________ diseases
opportunistic
300
DEFINTION: Treatment of an infection before specific culture information has been reported or obtained
Empirical therapy
301
DEFINTION: Treatment with antibiotics to prevent an infection, as in intra-abdominal surgery or after trauma
Prophylactic therapy (PREVENTION)
302
DEFINTION: Decrease in specific signs and symptoms of infection are noted (fever, elevated white blood cell count, redness, inflammation, drainage, pain)
Therapeutic response
303
DEFINTION: Signs and symptoms of infection do not improve
Subtherapeutic response
304
DEFINTION: INFECTION YOU GET WHEN YOUR IMMUNE SYSTEM IS WEAKENED BY ANTIBIOTICS
Superinfection* (in L.A.)
305
DEFINTION: DOESN’T WORK BECAUSE BACTERIA DEVELOP RESISTANCE
Antibiotic resistance
306
DEFINTION: one that kills bacteria
Bactericidal antibiotic
307
DEFINTION: one that inhibits growth of susceptible bacteria rather than killing them immediately; will eventually lead to bacterial death
Bacteriostatic antibiotic
308
DEFINTION: @ WHAT POINT YOU KILL IT
Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
309
DEFINTION: Varying degrees of reduced renal function
Nephrotoxicity
310
_______________ are difficult to kill because they live inside the cells
Viruses
311
TRUE OR FALSE. Any drug that kills a virus may also kill cells
TRUE
312
Viruses have four routes for entering the body:
o Inhalation o Ingestion o Transplacentally o Inoculation
313
Immunocompromised patients have frequent viral infections & NEED ____________
TREATMENT
314
DEFINITION o Are infections that would not normally harm an immunocompetent person o Occur in immunocompromised patients o Require long-term prophylaxis and anti-infective drug therapy
• Opportunistic infections
315
DEFINITION: Used to treat infections caused by viruses other than HIV
Antiviral drugs
316
DEFINITION: Used to treat infections caused by HIV, the virus that causes AIDS
Antiretroviral drugs
317
BRONCHODILATORS • Important part of therapy for ___________
COPD
318
3 classes of bronchodilators
o Beta Agonists o Anticholinergics o Methylxanthine derivatives
319
BETA AGONISTS (sympathomimetic bronchodilators) • Used during _____________ phase of asthma attacks
ACUTE
320
BETA AGONISTS (sympathomimetic bronchodilators) • Quickly ___________ airway constriction and restore normal airflow
reduce
321
BETA AGONISTS (sympathomimetic bronchodilators) • ___________ smooth muscles around the airway and allows for more air to flow in.
Relaxes
322
INDICATIONS - BETA AGONISTS (sympathomimetic bronchodilators) • Relief of ____________________
bronchospasm
323
INDICATIONS - BETA AGONISTS (sympathomimetic bronchodilators) • Treatment of hypotension and shock – especially in ____________ reaction
allergic
324
INDICATIONS - BETA AGONISTS (sympathomimetic bronchodilators) • To produce ____________ relaxation to prevent premature labour
uterine
325
INDICATIONS - BETA AGONISTS (sympathomimetic bronchodilators) • Treatment of severe ________________
hyperkalemia
326
CONTRAINDICATIONS - BETA AGONISTS (sympathomimetic bronchodilators) • ______________ cardiac dysrhythmias
Uncontrolled
327
CONTRAINDICATIONS - BETA AGONISTS (sympathomimetic bronchodilators) • High risk of ____________
stroke
328
ADVERSE EFFECTS - epinephrine • Can cause many issues – especially _________ ________________
HEART STIMULATION
329
2 ADVERSE EFFECTS - isoproterenol & salbutamol
* Tremor | * Vascular headache
330
WHICH MEDICATION if used too frequently, loses its β2-specific actions at larger doses
salbutamol
331
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - BETA AGONISTS • Encourage patients to get ____________ treatment for flu or other illnesses and to get vaccinated against pneumonia or flu
prompt
332
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - BETA AGONISTS • Patients should ___________ insomnia, jitteriness, restlessness, palpitations, chest pain, or any change in symptoms
report
333
ANTICHOLINERGICS Result is that ____________________ is prevented and airways dilate
bronchoconstriction
334
WHICH KIND OF DRUG? _______-______________ prevent constriction of bronchi & narrowing of airways
Anti-cholinergics
335
ANTICHOLINERGICS Have a slow and prolonged ____________
action
336
WHICH KIND OF DRUG? Are used to prevent bronchoconstriction
ANTICHOLINERGICS
337
WHICH KIND OF DRUG? Are NOT used for acute asthma exacerbations
ANTICHOLINERGICS
338
WHICH KIND OF DRUG? • ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) • tiotropium (Spiriva)
ANTICHOLINERGICS
339
WHICH KIND OF DRUG? | • Causes smooth muscle relaxation, bronchodilation, and increased airflow
(METHYL) XANTHINE DERIVATIVES
340
WHICH KIND OF DRUG? | • Stimulate cardiovascular system
(METHYL) XANTHINE DERIVATIVES
341
WHICH KIND OF DRUG? | • Has diuretic effect
(METHYL) XANTHINE DERIVATIVES
342
ANTILEUKOTRIENES montelukast (Singulair) Blocks _______________ in the lungs and relieves asthma symptoms
inflammation
343
``` ANTILEUKOTRIENES montelukast (Singulair) • Decrease __________ secretion ```
mucus
344
WHICH KIND OF BRONCHODILATOR? These are CONTROLLER meds. NOT FOR RAPID TREATMENT
ANTILEUKOTRIENES montelukast (Singulair)
345
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTILEUKOTRIENES montelukast (Singulair) • ________________ should be seen in about 1 week
Improvement
346
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTILEUKOTRIENES montelukast (Singulair) • Assess _________ function before beginning therapy
liver
347
CORTICOSTEROIDS • Have _______-______________ effects
anti-inflammatory
348
CORTICOSTEROIDS • Are used for __________ asthma
chronic
349
CORTICOSTEROIDS • May take _____________ weeks before full effects are seen
several
350
ADVERSE EFFECTS - CORTICOSTEROIDS * Pharyngeal irritation * Oral __________ infections
fungal
351
WHAT KIND OF DRUG? • fluticasone propionate • budesonide
CORTICOSTEROIDS
352
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - CORTICOSTEROIDS Teach patients to gargle and rinse the mouth with ________________ _____________ afterward to prevent the development of oral fungal infections
lukewarm water
353
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - CORTICOSTEROIDS the _______________ should be used several minutes before the ________________ to provide bronchodilation before administration of the corticosteroid
bronchodilator | corticosteroid
354
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - CORTICOSTEROIDS Encourage use of a ______________ device to ensure successful inhalations
spacer
355
ANTIHISTAMINES More effective in ________________ the actions of histamine rather than reversing them
preventing
356
ANTIHISTAMINES May cause _______________
drowsiness
357
ANTIHISTAMINE Does the ____________ of histamine Reduces - dilation of blood vessels - increased permeability of blood vessels - salivary, gastric, lacrimal, and bronchial secretions - capillary permeability, itching
opposite
358
2 TYPES OF ANTIHISTAMINES:
1. TRADITIONAL | 2. NONSEDATING
359
WHICH ANTIHISTAMINE? Have anticholinergic effects, making them more effective in some cases Include: • diphenhydramine (Benadryl) • chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Tripilon)
TRADITIONAL
360
WHICH ANTIHISTAMINE? Have a longer duration of action (increases compliance) Eliminate unwanted adverse effects, mainly SEDATION Include: • fexofenadine (Allegra) • loratadine (Claritin) • cetirizine (Reactine)
NONSEDATING
361
CONTRAINDICATIONS - ANTIHISTAMINES Should not be used for the sole drug therapy during ______________ asthmatic attacks
acute
362
2 ADVERSE EFFECTS - ANTIHISTAMINES
o Difficulty urinating | • Drowsiness
363
_________________ effects may be potentiated excessively by interactions with apple, grapefruit, and orange juice as well as St. John’s wort
Antihistamine
364
Alcohol, monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) – psych drug, and central nervous system (CNS) depressants may increase the CNS depressant effects - WHEN TAKEN WITH THIS:
ANTIHISTAMINE
365
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIHISTAMINES Use with caution in those with ______________, BPH (benign ___________ hyperplasia), & the usual other people
hypertension | prostatic
366
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTIHISTAMINES Instruct patients to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery; advise against consuming ___________ or other CNS depressants
alcohol
367
DECONGESTANTS 3 main types are used:
``` 1. Adrenergics (sympathomimetics) • Largest group 2. Anticholinergics (parasympatholytics) • Less commonly used 3. Corticosteroids (intranasal steroids) • Topical ```
368
DECONGESTANTS • Two methods of administration can be used:
1. 0ral | 2. inhaled/topical
369
WHICH METHOD OF DECONGESTANT ADMINISTRATION ? * Longer decongestant effect, but delayed onset * Less potent than topical * No rebound congestion * EX: Pseudophedrine
ORAL
370
WHICH METHOD OF DECONGESTANT ADMINISTRATION ? * Prompt onset * Potent effect * Result: Relieves stuffiness (not drippyness) * Decreases inflammation * Decreases congestion * Rebound congestion
TOPICAL
371
DECONGESTANTS Intranasal steroids (end in ‘ide’ or ‘sone’)
NOT A QUESTION... JUST A FUCKING HELPFUL TIP
372
CONTRAINDICATIONS - DECONGESTANTS
* Narrow-angle glaucoma * Hypertension * Prostatitis – swollen prostate * Diabetes
373
ADVERSE EFFECTS – ADRENERGICS
* Nervousness * Insomnia * Palpitations * Tremors
374
ADVERSE EFFECTS - STEROIDS
• Local mucosal dryness and irritation
375
ADRENERGIC systemic effects due to _____________ of the heart, blood vessels, and CNS
stimulation
376
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - DECONGESTANTS Decongestants may ___________ hypertension, palpitations, and CNS stimulation—avoid in patients with these conditions
cause
377
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - DECONGESTANTS Patients should avoid ____________ b.c of CNS stimulation
caffeine
378
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - DECONGESTANTS ADVISE PATIENTS ABOUT OVERUSE LEADING TO RISK OF ___________ ____________
REBOUND CONGESTION
379
2 TYPES OF ANTITUSSIVES
1 OPIOID | 2. NON-OPIOID
380
WHICH TYPE OF ANTITUSSIVE * Suppress the cough reflex by acting directly on the cough centre in the medulla * Include * codeine (Dimetane-C, Dimetapp-C, Robitussin AC, others) – all have C’s
OPIOID
381
WHICH TYPE OF ANTITUSSIVE? * Suppress the cough reflex by numbing the stretch receptors * Include * dextromethorphan (Benylin DM-E, Buckley’s, Dimetapp-DM, Robitussin-DM, Vick’s)
NON-OPIOID
382
___________________ Are used only for nonproductive coughs!
ANTITUSSIVES
383
________________ May be used in cases in which coughing is harmful
ANTITUSSIVES
384
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTITUSSIVES • Perform respiratory and cough ____________, and assess for _____________
assessment | allergies
385
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTITUSSIVES Instruct patients to avoid driving or operating heavy equipment due to possible ____________, ______________, or ____________
sedation, DROWSINESS, OR DIZZINESS
386
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTITUSSIVES Patients taking chewable tablets or lozenges should not ___________ _____________ for 30 to 35 minutes afterward
drink liquids
387
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - ANTITUSSIVES • Patients should be advised to report any of the following symptoms to their health care provider: o ______________ that lasts more than a week
Cough
388
WHICH KIND OF DRUG? Drugs that aid in the expectoration (removal) of mucus
EXPECTORANTS
389
WHICH KIND OF DRUG? Reduce the viscosity of secretions
EXPECTORANTS
390
WHICH KIND OF DRUG? Disintegrate and thin secretions
EXPECTORANTS
391
WHICH KIND OF DRUG? By loosening and thinning sputum and bronchial secretions, the tendency to cough is indirectly diminished
EXPECTORANTS
392
WHICH KIND OF DRUG? Used for the relief of productive coughs
EXPECTORANTS
393
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - EXPECTORANTS Expectorants should be used with caution in __________ ______________ or patients with asthma or respiratory insufficiency
older adults
394
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - EXPECTORANTS Patients taking expectorants should receive more ____________, if permitted, to help loosen and liquefy secretions
fluids
395
NURSING IMPLICATIONS - EXPECTORANTS A fever, cough, or other symptoms lasting longer than a ___________ should be reported
week