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test 3 > test 3 > Flashcards

test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

1) A skeletal muscle is composed of a bundle of ________, each composed of many muscle fibers wrapped by connective tissue.

A

fascicles

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2
Q

2) What structure, composed of connective tissue, transmits force from contracting skeletal muscle to bone?

A

tendons

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3
Q

3) The contractile portion of the thin filament is composed of what protein?

A

actin

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4
Q

4) What is the regulatory protein component of the thin filament that binds to calcium, thereby initiating skeletal muscle contraction?

A

Troponin

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5
Q

5) The shortening of a skeletal muscle fiber during contraction involves which of the following?

A

the sarcomeres shortening

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6
Q

6) In order for crossbridge cycling to occur, the actin-myosin complex must be broken by which of the following?

A

binding of ATP to myosin

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7
Q

7) The sequence of events that links the muscle’s action potential to changes in skeletal muscle force development is called what?

A

D) excitation-contraction coupling

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8
Q

9) The binding of calcium to troponin will directly allow which of the following?

A

the movement of tropomyosin, thereby exposing the myosin-binding site on the actin molecule

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8
Q

8) Contraction of skeletal muscle fibers is stimulated by what type of neuron?

A

D) parasympathetic

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9
Q

10) What is the function of T tubules?

A

They conduct action potentials from the sarcolemma to the interior of the muscle cell.

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10
Q

11) What is a motor unit?

A

a motor neuron, its axons, and all the muscle fibers it innervates

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11
Q

12) Which of the following is a property of eccentric skeletal muscle contraction?

A

Load is greater than the force generated by the muscle

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12
Q

13) Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of specific muscle fiber types

A

Slow oxidative fibers are quick to fatigue

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13
Q

14) As skeletal muscle is further stretched beyond the length where optimum force is developed

A

B) thin filaments are pulled away from thick filaments, thereby reducing actin’s ability to interact with myosin.

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14
Q

15) What is an increase in the number of active motor units that would increase the force developed by a skeletal muscle called?

A

A) recruitment

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15
Q

16) Which of the following is the correct order of muscle fiber recruitment, from first to last?

A

A) slow oxidative : fast oxidative : fast glycolytic

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16
Q

17) Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of skeletal muscle that would be observed in response to aerobic training?

A

D) an increase in the diameter of the skeletal muscle fibers

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17
Q

18) When blood moves through the body it travels in a circular pattern. The general pattern of blood flow follows which sequence of vessels as it leaves the heart?

A

C) arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins

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18
Q

19) The opening and closure of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves is driven by

A

D) differences in pressure across the valve.

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19
Q

20) The circulatory system consists of two divisions and is supplied with blood by different sides of the heart.
The right heart supplies blood to the _____ circuit, whereas the left heart supplies blood to the ______ circuit.

A

pulmonary : systemic

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20
Q

Blood supply to the heart comes from

A

coronary arteries

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21
Q

What is the primary function of the AV and semilunar valves?

A

to permit blood to flow forward while preventing it from flowing backward

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22
Q

23) What structure provides the pathway for the movement of electrical current between the cells of the conduction pathway and the ventricular muscle fibers?

A

gap junctions

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23
Q

24) Which of the following is the correct conduction pathway through the heart?

A

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

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24
Q

25) Which of the following is NOT a part of the excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle

A

Calcium binds to calmodulin in the cytosol.

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25
Q

26) The R-R interval is the time between the peaks of two successive QRS complexes and represents

A

the amount of time between heartbeats

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26
Q

27) What is occurring during ventricular ejection?

A

The AV valves are open and the semilunar valves are closed as blood is leaving the ventricles

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27
Q

28) The end-diastolic volume minus the end-systolic volume is the

A

stroke volume

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28
Q

29) Given end-diastolic volume = 130 mL and end-systolic volume = 65 mL, what is the stroke volume and ejection fraction?

A

SV = 65 mL, EF = 0.50

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29
Q

30) Cardiac output is determined by what two variables?

A

heart rate and stroke volume

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30
Q

31) Under resting conditions, heart rate is primarily under the control of what control system?

A

the parasympathetic nervous system

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31
Q

32) Which of the following would NOT result from an increase in ventricular contractility?

A

decreased end-diastolic volume

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32
Q

33) What factor would NOT increase the stroke volume?

A

decreased venous return

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33
Q

34) Which of the following equations correctly relates flow, pressure, and resistance?

A

pressure = flow × resistance

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34
Q

35) Which of the following would increase the rate of blood flow through a blood vessel?

A

increased pressure of the blood entering the vessel

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35
Q

36) The elastic nature of the largest blood vessel’s walls allows them to act as a ________, maintaining the driving force for blood flow while the heart is relaxed during diastole.

A

pressure reservoir

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36
Q

37) The blood vessels of largest diameter are the ______, and the medium sized blood vessels are the ______.

A
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37
Q

38) Resistance to blood flow is regulated primarily by what blood vessels?

A

arterioles

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38
Q

39) Which of following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel?

A

vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, fibrin clotting

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39
Q

40) Drugs that block angiotensin-converting enzyme would cause which of the following?

A

decreased mean arterial pressure

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40
Q

41) ________ describes the movement of fluid out of the capillary, while ________ describes the movement of fluid into the capillary.

A

Filtration: absorption

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41
Q

42) Under normal conditions, which Starling forces favor filtration?

A

capillary hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid osmotic pressure

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42
Q

43) What factor assists venous return to the heart?

A

valves in the vein

the muscle pumps in the legs

the respiratory pump

the lymphatic system returning interstitial fluid

E) all of the above assist venous return

43
Q

44) ________ are responsible for the detection of mean arterial pressure.

A

Arterial baroreceptors

44
Q

45) Which of the following would NOT increase blood pressure

A
45
Q

46) Which of the following may cause increased ADH release?

A
46
Q

47) Local regulation of some vessels may occur from

A
47
Q

48) During heavy exercise the blood flow to muscles may increase up to 20 times above resting levels.

A
48
Q

49) Edema may be caused by

A

high blood pressure

decreased plasmsa protein concentration

leakage of plasma proteins into the interstitial fluid

blockage of the lymphatic vessels

E) all of the above

49
Q

50) Stretch receptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus

A

serve as baroreceptors that affect vagus and sympathetic nerve activity

50
Q

51) The final electron acceptor in aerobic cell respiration is ________.

A

oxygen

51
Q

52) Anabolic reactions do not ________.

A

release energy

52
Q

Glycolysis converts glucose into two ________ molecules.

A

pyruvic acid

53
Q

54) To go through glycolysis, ________ ATP per glucose molecule must be “invested” in order to activate the glucose molecule.

A

two

54
Q

55) Which of the following antibodies would you find in the plasma of a person with type O blood?

A

anti-A and anti-B

55
Q

56) Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic and immune system?

A
56
Q

57) Which of the following molecules would be key intermediates or could go several different directions?

A

A) Pyruvic acid B) Acetyl CoA

Choices A and B

57
Q

58) Each turn of the citric acid cycle produces ________.

A

1 FADH2, 1 ATP, and 3 NADH

58
Q

59) The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain system is ________.

A

oxygen

59
Q

60) Which of the following would NOT occur in response to hypovolemic shock?

A

Release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).

60
Q

61) ATP formation in the electron transport system is called ________.

A

oxidative phosphorylation

61
Q

62) The opposite process of glycogenesis is ________.

A

glycogenolysis

62
Q

63) The Cori cycle converts ________ to pyruvic acid.

A

lactic acid

63
Q

64) Which of the following would NOT result in an increase in arterial blood pressure?

A

Increased arteriolar vasodilation

64
Q

65) The hydrolysis of triglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol is called ________.

A

lipolysis

65
Q

66) Beta-oxidation of an 18-carbon fatty acid will yield ________ acetyl CoA molecules

A

9

66
Q

67) Ketone bodies are produced due to ________.

A
67
Q

68) The process in which an amine group is transferred from one amino acid to another is called ________.

A

transamination

68
Q

69) Ammonia is produced through the process of ________.

A

oxidative deamination

69
Q

70) What type of tissue is especially dependent on adequate plasma glucose levels?

A

Nervous

70
Q

71) Anemia is defined as

A

a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced.

71
Q

72) The average life span of an erythrocyte in the circulation is

A

120 days

72
Q

73) Cardiac muscle fibers are electrically connected to neighboring fibers

A

gap junctions

73
Q

Compared to skeletal muscle fibers, the fibers of the heart are depolarized for ___ period of time

A

a longer

74
Q

75) The second heart sound (dupp) closely follows which of the events listed below

A

Semilunar valves opening

75
Q

76) Which part of the brain contains the cardiovascular center that regulates heart rate?

A

Medulla oblongata

76
Q

77) Which wave in an electrocardiogram represents repolarization of the ventricles?

A

T wave

77
Q

78) In comparison to a sedentary individual, a well-trained athlete will have these characteristics EXCEPT

A

higher resting cardiac output

78
Q

78) In comparison to a sedentary individual, a well-trained athlete will have these characteristics EXCEPT

A

higher resting cardiac output

79
Q

79) Which of the following cells is responsible for inflammatory reactions

A
80
Q

80) Which of the following structures is used to control the flow of blood through a capillary bed?

A

precapillary sphincters

81
Q

81) An entire skeletal muscle is composed of bundles of _____, which is surrounded by ____each composed of many muscle fibers wrapped by a(n) ______.

A

fascicles, perimysium, endomysium

82
Q

83) The sequence of events that links the muscle’s action potential to changes in skeletal muscle force development is called what?

A

excitation-contraction coupling

83
Q

A muscle fiber is composed ____ which is composed of many ____?

A

myofibrils, myofilaments

84
Q

Which of the following produces the power stroke in muscle contraction?

A

The release of Pi, and then ADP

85
Q

What is the state in a skeletal muscle when there is no relaxation is occurring?

A

tetanus

86
Q

Which of the following would you NOT find in smooth muscle?

A

troponin

87
Q

The main factor determining differences in energy requirements of individuals of the same gender and body size is the difference in ________.

A

physical activity

88
Q

Metabolic rate can be measured by the ________.

A

amount of heat generated and the amount of oxygen consumed by the body

89
Q

What is the average energy expenditure for an active man not engaged in heavy manual labor?

A

2500 kcal/day

90
Q

If an individual consumes excess calories as carbohydrates, the excess energy is eventually stored as ____.

A

adipose tissue

91
Q

Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?

A

Vitamin C

92
Q

Tissue damage by free radicals is prevented to some extent by all of the following EXCEPT _____.

A

vitamin D

93
Q

Excessive production of free radicals that can damage lipids, proteins, and DNA is called ________.

A

oxidative stress

94
Q

The main energy source for the brain is ________.

A

glucose

95
Q

Obesity in adults results primarily from adipocyte hypertrophy, rather than hyperplasia. TRUE OR FALSE

A

True

96
Q

Which of the following is an adipose tissue hormone that stimulates glucose utilization and fatty acid oxidation in muscle cells, thereby producing an insulin-sensitizing, antidiabetic effect?

A

Adiponectin

97
Q

The risk of cardiovascular disease is increased in someone with ________.

A

a large waist measure (>40 men, >35 women)

98
Q

Which condition is NOT found in metabolic syndrome?

A

Hypotension

99
Q

Which hormones are involved in long-term regulation of hunger?

A

Leptin and insulin

100
Q

What hormone is important in adaptive thermogenesis?

A

Thyroxine

101
Q

Lipolysis is increased by ________.

A

epinephrine

growth hormone

glucagon

D) All of the choices are correct.

102
Q

Insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes mellitus can cause ________.

A

increased hepatic secretion of glucose and decreased uptake by skeletal muscles

103
Q

The thyroid gland secretes all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A

parathyroid hormone

104
Q

Which of the following would be favorable to bone deposition?

A

Increased kidney reabsorption of calcium

test 3 (2 decks)

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