Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology II > Test 2 study guide > Flashcards

Test 2 study guide Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two major categories of lung cancers?

A

Small cell (SCLC) and Non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percent of lung cancers fall into SCLC and NSCLC?

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T or F: Non-small cell lung cancers behave similarly, so are treated similarly.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which category is worse, SCLC or NSCLC?

A

SCLC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which responds better to chemotherapy, SCLC or NSCLC?

A

SCLC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T of F: NSCLC tends to grow faster than SCLC.

A

False, SCLC tends to grow the fastest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three types of NSCLC?

A

Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Large cell undifferentiated carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which type carries a greater risk of metastasis, SCLC or NSCLC?

A

SCLC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

SCLC is often called:

A

Oat cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The (older/younger) a person is when they start smoking, the (greater/lesser) their risk of getting lung cancer.

A

Younger/greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Malignant neoplasm that arises in the lung tissue:

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T or F: Quitting smoking for 10 years reduces the risk of cancer to that of a non-smoker.

A

False, risk is reduced, but not to non-smoker status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes are common with ________ (NSCLC or SCLC)

A

SCLC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Histologically, SCLC shows (small/large) (light/dark) staining epithelial cells with (scant/copious) cytoplasm.

A

small/dark/scant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The first sign of SCLC might be:

A

paraneoplastic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Weight loss occurs in what % of lung cancer?

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dyspnea occurs in what % of lung cancer?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The most common symptom in lung cancer? %?

A

Cough; 75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most common clinical presentation of lung cancer?

A

50s, symptoms of several months duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Adenocarcinoma is typically found:

A

In the periphery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

SCLC is typically found:

A

Centrally, near the hilum, but may be found anywhere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Large cell undifferentiated carcinomas are typically found:

A

anywhere in the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Squamous cell carcinomas are typically found:

A

centrally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Adenocarcinoma can be described with the 3 P’s:

A

Peripheral
Pigmented
Puckered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Adenocarcinoma is a __________ epithelial tumor that produces _______ .

A

Glandular

Mucin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Adenocarcinoma is ofter first found:

A

On a routine CXR, & often having already spread.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Adenocarcinoma accounts for ____ of lung cancer.

A

33%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most frequently diagnosed type of cancer:

A

Adenocarcinoma

29
Q

How is Squamous cell carcinoma characterized?

A

Keratinization in the form of pearls, or

individual cells with eosinophillic dense cytoplasm.

30
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma arises from:

A

The main, lobar, or segmented bronchi.

31
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma is thought to be related to:

A

Chronic inflammation

Injury of bronchial ciliated columnar epithelium

32
Q

Large cell carcinoma is an epithelial tumor with (small/large) nuclei and (small/moderate/large) amounts of cytoplasm.

A

large/moderate

33
Q

T of F: LCC and large cell undifferentiated carcinoma are the same thing.

A

True

34
Q

Most common primary lung neoplasm in children:

A

Bronchial carcinoid tumors

35
Q

T of F: Bronchial carcinoid tumors are considered a separate type of lung neoplasm.

A

True

36
Q

Bronchial carcinoid tumors may present with:

A

Diarrhea
Facial flushing
Wheezing
(Usually with liver metastasis)

37
Q

Most pancoast tumors are SCLC or NSCLC?

A

NSCLC

38
Q

S/Sx of Pancoast tumors:

A

general CA
Horner’s syndrome
SVC syndrome
Neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome

39
Q

SVC syndrome is characterized by:

A

Obstruction of venous drainage
Dilation of neck veins
Neck/facial edema
Redness

40
Q

Horner’s syndrome is characterized by:

A

Miosis (pupil constriction)
Anhidrosis (inability to sweat)
Ptosis (drooping eyelids)
Enopthalmos (posterior eye displacement)

41
Q

What are the potential complications of Otitis Media?

A 
Spread to mastoid
Tympanic membrane perforation
Hearing loss
Speech delay in babies
Cholesteatoma
42
Q

Meniere’s disease S/Sx:

A

Overproduction of endolymph
Tinnitus
Vertigo
Sensorineural hearing loss

43
Q

Benign tumor of the Schwann cells of CN XIII:

A

Acoustic neuroma

44
Q

S/Sx of acoustic neuroma:

A 
Progressive unilateral hearing loss (hallmark)
Tinnitus
Dizziness
Otalgia
Trigeminal neuralgia
Hemiparesis
45
Q

A cholesteatoma is:

A

an epidermoid cyst located in the middle ear, TM, or mastoid; filled with amorphous debris, sometimes cholesterol.

46
Q

Progressive enlargement of a cholesteatoma causes:

A

erosion of the soft tissues and bones (ossicles, labyrinth, adjacent skull bone)

47
Q

Cholesteatomas are lined with what type of epithelium?

A

Keratinized squamous or columnar (mucus producing)

48
Q

Cholesteatoma sequelae:

A 
Grow into ossicles
Deafness
Facial paralysis
Infection
Intercranial abcess
49
Q

What is the typical pathogen in Malignant Otitis Externa?

A

Psuedomonas aeruginosa

50
Q

S/Sx of malignant otitis externa:

A

Foul smell
Purulent otorrhea
Severe otalgia
Granulation tissue is apparent in external canal

51
Q

Scleritis:

A

Inflammation of the white of the eye, connective tissue layer covering the choroid, deep to bulbar conjunctiva.

52
Q

Conjunctivitis:

A

Inflammation of the surface tissue of the globe and inner surface of the eyelid.

53
Q

Causes of conjunctivitis:

A

Allergic
Infectious
Granulomatous

54
Q

T of F: Conjunctivitis is more dangerous than Scleritis.

A

False. Scleritis is much more dangerous;
May result from systemic dz like RA;
May point to inflammation of the uvea.

55
Q

How can scleritis be differentiated from conjunctivitis?

A

In scleritis, deep vessels do not constrict with phenylephrine, and are non-displaceable, vs. the surface vessels of the conjunctiva.

56
Q

Glaucoma:

A

collection of conditions the lead to changes in the visual field, accompanied by elevated intraocular pressure; lack of drainage in anterior chamber.

57
Q

Most common form of glaucoma:

A

Primary open-angle

58
Q

Two types of glaucoma:

A

Open-angle, and angle-closure. (refers to anterior angle btw constrictor muscle and cornea; in open-angle, iris is ‘back’ nearer lens)

59
Q

Describe the microcirculatory changes seen in DM.

A

Thickened basement membranes of retinal vessels.
Frequent microaneurysms.
Exudates.
Micro occlusions of the small vessels leads to macular edema; cause of vision loss, risk of retinal detachment.
Neovascular membrane of new blood vessels forms.

60
Q

How is blood volume restored after acute blood loss?

A

Shift of water from the interstitial fluid compartment.

61
Q

Immediately after acute hemorrhage, what is the HCT? Later?

A

Immediately normal - volume of RBCs to plasma still the same. After influx of interstitial fluid into vasculature HCT goes down (hemodilution).

62
Q

What triggers production of erythropoietin (EPO)?

A

Decreased oxygenation of tissues.

63
Q

Bone marrow can increase capacity of RBC production by how much?

A

7-8 fold above baseline.

64
Q

Dogs bled out 30%, died when transfused with ________ and lived when transfused with ______________.

A

Whole blood
Saline
(Whole blood transfusion made them hyperosmotic)

65
Q

Hemolytic anemia leads to:

A 
Gallstones
Pulmonary HTN
Jaundice
SOB
Fatigue
66
Q

Direct Coomb’s Test:

A

Warm AIHA
IgG antibody
Chronic disease: SLE, RA

67
Q

Indirect Coomb’s Test:

A

Cold AIHA
IgM antibody
Acute, self-limiting disease: mycoplasma, mono, virus

68
Q

Intravascular hemolysis leads to:

A

mechanical trauma: heart valves, physical trauma
antibody fixation: mismatch blood transfusion
toxic injury to RBCs: malaria, septic shock

69
Q

Extravascular hemolysis leads to:

A

structural changes: less deformable (sickle cell, hereditary spherocytosis)

Pathology II (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions