Test 2 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

The nursing process is an organized sequence of

A

problem-solving steps used to identify and manage the health problems of client

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2
Q

Be able to identify the steps of the nursing process and what is done during each step.
Assessment

A

1st step

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3
Q

When does the assessment begin?

A

Assessment begins with the nurse’s first contact with a client and continues as long as a need for health care exists. During assessment, the nurse collects information to determine areas of abnormal function, risk factors that contribute to health problems, and client strengths

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4
Q

observable and measurable facts and are referred to as signs of a disorder. An example is a client’s blood pressure measurement

A

Objective Data

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5
Q

information that only the client feels and can describe, and these are called symptoms. An example is pain.

A

Subjective Data

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6
Q

Diagnosis is what step

A

2nd step

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7
Q

What are we identifying with diagnosis?

A

The identification of health related problems

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8
Q

A Nursing Diagnosis is a health issue

A

is a health issue that can be prevented, reduced, resolved, or enhanced through independent nursing measures. It is an exclusive nursing responsibility

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9
Q

Nursing Diagnoses are written to describe _____ nurses can ________.

A

Nursing Diagnoses are written to describe ___patient problems__ nurses can __solve______.

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10
Q

R/T

A

Related to

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11
Q

AEB

A

As evidence by

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12
Q

RF

A

Risk for

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13
Q

4th step of nursing process

A

Planning

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14
Q

To determine priorities nurses use

A

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Human Needs

Self actualization
Esteem needs
Social needs
Safety needs
Basic needs

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15
Q

Define Goals for planning

A

outcome criteria, identify specific evidence for each nursing diagnosis that a client’s problem is trending towards resolution or has been resolved

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16
Q

Explain short term goal

A

(outcomes achievable in a few days to 1 week) more often in acute care setting because most hospitals stays are only a few days or no longer 1 week

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17
Q

5 Characteristics: of planning

A

1 Developed from the problem portion of the diagnostic statement
2 Client-centered, reflecting what the client will accomplish, not what the nurse will accomplish
3 Measurable, identifying specific criteria that provide evidence of goal achievement
4 Realistic, to avoid setting unattainable goals, which can be self-defeating and frustrating
5 Accompanied by a target date for accomplishment (the predicted time when the goal will be met), which establishes a timeline for evaluation

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18
Q

Implementation is the _______ of nursing process

A

5th step

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19
Q

It means carrying out a

A

plan of care

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20
Q

Evaluation is the _____ step of nursing process

A

6th step

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21
Q

On evaluation has you patient reached________

A

Reached their goal

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22
Q

Are ideals that a person feels are important knowledge, wealth, financial security, martial fidelity, health

A

Values

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23
Q

Are concepts that a person holds to be true. Beliefs and values guide a persons actions

A

Beliefs

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24
Q

Means a full and balanced integration of all aspects of healthcare

A

Wellness

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25
Q

the aum of physical, emotional, social, and spiritual health. Determines how “whole” or well a person feels

A

Holism

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26
Q

What is Maslow’s Hierarchy of human needs? How do nurses use this tool? And Why?

A

( factors that motivate behavior) Physiologic ( first level), safety and security ( second level), love and belonging ( third level), esteem and self esteem ( fourth level) , and self actualization( fifth level)

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27
Q

is a state of being unhealthy when disease, deterioration, or injury impairs a person’s well being.

A

Illness

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28
Q

one that comes on suddenly and lasts a short time) is one method for classifying a change in health

A

Acute Illness: Onset

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29
Q

Sequelae ill effects that result from permanent or progressive organ damage caused by a disease or its treatment

A

Lasts

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30
Q

one that comes on slowly and lasts a long time) risk increases as people age

A

Chronic Illness: Onset

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31
Q

(one in which there is no potential for cure) is one that eventually is fatal. The terminal stage of an illness is one in which a person is approaching death.

A

Lasts Terminal Illness

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32
Q

(Incidence of a specific disease, disorder, or injury) refers to the rate or the number of people affected.

A

Morbidity: refers to the

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33
Q

Incidence of deaths) denotes the number of people who died from a particular disease or condition

A

Mortality: refers to the number of people who

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34
Q

one that develops independently of any other disease

A

Primary Illness

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35
Q

disorders that develop from a pre-existing condition.

A

Secondary Illness

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36
Q

is the disappearance of signs and symptoms associated with a particular disease

A

Remission

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37
Q

(reactivation of a disorder , or one that reverts from a chronic to an acute state) can occur periodically in clients with long standing diseases

A

Exacerbation

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38
Q

( disorder acquired from the genetic codes of one or both parents) may or may not produce symptoms immediately after birth.

A

Hereditary

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39
Q

(those present at birth but which are the result of faulty embryonic development) cannot be genetically predicted.

A

Congenital

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40
Q

is an illness of unknown case. Treatment focuses on relieving the signs and symptoms because the etiology is unknown

A

Idiopathic

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41
Q

Define the word VITAL

A

absolutely necessary or important; essential.

42
Q

When should vital signs be taken?

A

On admission, when obtaining database assessments
• According to written medical orders
• Once per day when a client is stable
• At least every 4 hours when one or more vital signs are abnormal
• Every 5–15 minutes when a client is unstable or at risk for rapid physiologic changes such as after surgery
• Whenever a client’s condition appears to have changed
• A second time, or more frequently, when there is a significant difference from the previous measurement
• When a client is feeling unusual
• Before, during, and after a blood transfusion
• Before administering medications that affect any of the vital signs and after to monitor the drug’s effect

43
Q

What is considered to be the 5th vital sign?

A

Pain

44
Q

How is body heat produced?

A

primarily from exercise and metabolism of food

45
Q

How is it lost? Briefly list the 4 ways body heat is lost.

A

through the skin, the lungs, and the body’s waste products through the processes of
1.radiation 2. conduction 3. convection 4. evaporation

46
Q

What is a normal shell temp of an adult? (use the Fahrenheit scale)

A

96.6° to 99.3°F

47
Q

What structure in the brain is the control center for temperature regulation?

A

Hypothalamus

48
Q

What does the anterior hypothalamus promote?

A

heat loss through vasodilation and sweating

49
Q

What does the posterior hypothalamus promote?

A

heat conservation and heat production

50
Q

How is heat conserved?

A

• Adjusting where blood circulates
• Causing piloerection (the contraction of arrector pili muscles in skin follicles), which stiffens body hairs and gives the appearance of what commonly is described as “goose flesh”
• Promoting a shivering response
• What do temperatures above 105.8F or below 93.2F indicate
• Briefly describe the factors that have an effect on body temp.

51
Q

Both exercise and activity involve muscle contraction. As muscle groups and tendons repeatedly stretch and recoil, the friction produces body heat. Shivering is another example of contractile thermogenesis

A

Exercise/Activity

52
Q

affect metabolic rate by triggering hormonal changes through the sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways of the autonomic nervous system

A

Emotions

53
Q

Diseases, disorders, or injuries that affect the function of the hypothalamus or mechanisms for heat production and loss alter body temperature, sometimes dramatically

A

Illness/Injury

54
Q

Various medications that affect body temperature begin with the prefix “anti.” When a pyrogen (bacterium) is introduced, the body temperature is elevated. Drugs known as antipyretics (such as aspirin, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen) directly lower body temperature by acting on the hypothalamus

A

Medications

55
Q

What are the four most practical sites to measure temperatures?

A

Tympanic membrane, mouth, rectum, axillary

56
Q

What are some things that would make an oral temp invalid?

A

Poor placement, drinking cold beverages, removing too soon

57
Q

What type of client would an oral temp be contraindicated for?

A

Uncooperative, very young, unconscious, prone to seizures, head oral surgery or are mouth breathers

58
Q

Why isn’t the rectal temp more like a core body temp?

A

Rapid fluctuations are identified for as long as an hour and retains heat longer than other sites

59
Q

Why is the axillary site the preferred site for taking temps in infants?

A

Can be injured internally, lose heat through skin are a greater rate

60
Q

What are some symptoms associated with a fever?

A

Pink/redish flushed skin, warm to the touch, poor appetite, irritability, restlessness, headsche, abnormal pulse rate and respiratory rate

61
Q

Nursing management of a fever would include….

A

apply cool cloths or ice packs, remove heavy clothing or blankets, provide liberal oral fluids

62
Q

Nursing management of a client with a subnormal temp would include….

A

Cover if shivering, limit activity , keep humidity low, apply tepid water to skin,

63
Q

What is a pulse?

A

A wave like sensation that can be palpated in prepherial artery is produced by the movement of body during the heart contraction

64
Q

What is a normal pulse rate in an adult?

A

80 (60-100 range)

65
Q

When is it considered tachycardia?

A

100-150 bpm

66
Q

When is it considered bradycardia?

A

below 60 bpm

67
Q

What are some factors that influence our pulse rates?

A

Age, gender, body build, excerise and activity, stress and emotions

68
Q

What is a pulse rhythm?

A

the pattern of the pulsations and the pauses between them

69
Q

What is arrhythmia or dysrhythmia? What should you do with this information?

A

an irregular pattern of heart beats. you should report promplty if it should become irregular

70
Q

Define pulse volume

A

the quality of palpated pulsations

71
Q

Describe a normal, thready, & bounding pulse.

A

N - (Normal Pulse) Pulsation is felt easily; moderate pressure causes it to disappear.

T- (Thready Pulse) Pulsation is not easily felt; slight pressure causes it to disappear.

B- ( Bounding pulse) Pulsation is strong and does not disappear with moderate pressure

72
Q

What is an apical heart rate? Where is the anatomical site?

A

• an apical heart rate is the number of ventricular contractions per minute
• it is located to the left of the sternum at the interspace below the fifth rib in midline with the clavicle

73
Q

Respiratory rate: What is the normal adult resp rate?

A

16 - 20 Breaths Per Minute (BPM)

74
Q

a rapid respiratory rate

A

Tachypnea

75
Q

a slower-than-normal respiratory rate at rest

A

Bradypnea

76
Q

rapid or deep breathing or both

A

Hyperventilation

77
Q

diminished breathing

A

Hypoventilation

78
Q

difficult or labored breathing

A

Dyspnea

79
Q

breathing facilitated by sitting up or standing

A

Orthopnea

80
Q

the absence of breathing

A

Apnea

81
Q

What are Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

A

aka Death Rattle. Occurs near the end of life

82
Q

What is stridor?

A

a harsh, high-pitched sound heard on inspiration when there is laryngeal obstruction

83
Q

the force the blood exerts within the arteries.

A

Define blood pressure

84
Q

Age

A

Blood pressure tends to become elevated with age as a result of arteriosclerosis, a process by which arteries lose their elasticity and become more rigid, and atherosclerosis, a process by which the arteries become narrowed with fat deposits. The rate of these conditions depends on heredity and lifestyle habits such as diet and exercise

85
Q

Gender

A

Women tend to have lower blood pressure than men of the same age

86
Q

Exercise/Activity

A

Blood pressure rises during exercise and activity, when the heart pumps more blood. Regular exercise, however, helps maintain blood pressure within normal levels

87
Q

Emotions/Pain

A

Strong emotional experiences and pain tend to increase blood pressure from sympathetic nervous system stimulation

88
Q

Misc

A

As a rule, a person has lower blood pressure when lying down than when sitting or standing, though the difference in most people is insignificant. Blood pressure also seems to rise somewhat when the urinary bladder is full, when the legs are crossed, or when the person is cold. Drugs that stimulate the heart such as nicotine, caffeine, cocaine, and methamphetamine also tend to constrict the arteries and raise blood pressure

89
Q

What is systolic pressure/diastolic pressure?

A

S Pressure within the arterial system when the heart contracts
D Pressure within the arterial system when the heart relaxes and fills with blood

90
Q

Blood pressure is most commonly measure over the brachial artery. In what situations can this site not be used? What is the alternative site?

A

• When the client’s arms are missing
• When both of a client’s breasts have been removed
• When a client has had vascular surgery (such as that which permits dialysis treatments for kidney failure)
• When plaster or fiberglass casts or dressings obscure the brachial and radial sites
It is also possible to use the lower arm and radial artery, the thigh and the popliteal artery, and the lower leg and the posterior tibial or dorsalis pedal artery

91
Q

How is a palpable blood pressure obtained?

A

A blood pressure cuff can be substituted for a rubber tourniquet. Whichever technique is used, the radial pulse should be palpable to indicate that arterial blood flow is being maintained.

92
Q

What is hypertension?

A

Hypertension (high blood pressure) exists when the systolic pressure, diastolic pressure, or both are sustained above normal levels for the person’s age

93
Q

What is white-coat hypertension?

A

• a condition in which a patient’s blood pressure readings are higher when taken at the doctor’s office compared to other settings

94
Q

What are some factors associated with HTN?

A

• unhealthy diets (excessive salt consumption, a diet high in saturated fat and trans fats, low intake of fruits and vegetables)
• physical inactivity
• consumption of tobacco and alcohol
• being overweight or obese

95
Q

What is low-blood pressure usually associated with?

A

with efficient functioning of the heart and blood vessels. People with low blood pressure, however, should continue to be monitored to evaluate its significance.

96
Q

What else can it indicate?

A

Low blood pressure measurements may indicate shock, hemorrhage, or side effects from drugs.
Postural or Orthostatic hypotension is…
Postural or orthostatic hypotension is a temporary drop in blood pressure when rising from a reclining position after 3 to 5 minutes of rest

97
Q

What is it associated with?

A

It is most common in those with circulatory problems—especially common in older adults, those who are dehydrated, and those who take diuretics or other drugs that lower blood pressure.

98
Q

What should you encourage your client to do if they suffer from orthostatic hypotension?

A

(1) ensure that the client remains seated after rising until dizziness passes, (2) restore adequate hydration if the client’s fluid volume is low, (3) increase consumption of salty foods and those containing sodium providing the client is not hypertensive, (4) apply compression stockings to the lower extremities to reduce pooling of blood upon standing, and (5) administer prescribed medications such as a synthetic mineralocorticoid that mimics aldosterone, an adrenal hormone, to reduce the loss of sodium in urine thus raising blood volume, or a sympathetic nervous system vasopressor, a drug that constricts blood vessels, causing an antihypotensive effect.

99
Q

What do temperatures above 105.8F or below 93.2F indicate?

A

Hyperperexia and hyperthermia

100
Q

Briefly describe the factors that have an effect on body temp.

A

smoking, drinking hot fluids,&& chewing gum

101
Q

Which food has the greatest thermic effect?

A

Protein