Test 2 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two parts of the corpus striatum?

A

caudate nucleus and putamen

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2
Q

What are the two parts of substantia nigra?

A

pars reticulata and pars compacta

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3
Q

What is the major role of the basal ganglia?

A

permission for initiation of movement by the upper motor neurons

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4
Q

Where do the medium spiny neurons receive input from?

A

from the cortex

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5
Q

What kind of input do MSNs receive?

A

Excitatory from glutaminergic synapses

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6
Q

Firing of MSNs is associated with _____ _______.

A

impending movement

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7
Q

The caudate is associated with ____ movements.

A

eye

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8
Q

The putamen is associated with ___ and ____ movements.

A

limb; trunk

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9
Q

When is tonic inhibition inhibited?

A

when the straitum is activated

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10
Q

When the thalamus is disinhibited what happens?

A

it can signal the upper motor neuron

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11
Q

What does the direct pathway do?

A

it facilitates initiation of volitional movement

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12
Q

What portion of the GP do the MSNs project to in order to tonically activate inhibitory neurons?

A

GPi (internal portion)

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13
Q

Disinhibition allows ______ of the upper motor neurons.

A

activation

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14
Q

Disinhibition of inhibitory synapse on thalamus = ________

A

movement

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15
Q

MSNs in straitum project to ____ ____ which then sends ________ projections back to the MSNs.

A

pars compacta; dopaminergic

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16
Q

D1 receptors are _____ GPCRs and they act on the ______ pathway.

A

excitatory; direct

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17
Q

D2 receptors are _____ GPCRS and they act on the _____ pathway.

A

inhibitory; indirect

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18
Q

D1 and D2 receptors both _____ inhibitory outflow to ______ excitability of UPM.

A

decrease; increase

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19
Q

Loss of _______ ______ neurons contributes to Parkinson’s disease.

A

nigrostriatal dopaminergic

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20
Q

Which pathway has sustained inhibition?

A

direct pathway

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21
Q

How does the indirect pathway impact the direct?

A

It augments direct pathway inhibition

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22
Q

What is a characteristic of inhibitory outflow in Parkinson’s disease?

A

it is abnormally high from the basal ganglia

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23
Q

What happens to inhibitory outflow of the basal ganglia?

A

upper motor neurons are activated by inappropriate signals

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24
Q

What causes Huntington’s?

A

a defective gene

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25
Q

How do you treat Huntington’s?

A

alleviate symptoms by blocking DA transmission (anti-psychotics)

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26
Q

What is the main function of the cerebellum?

A

error correction: it reduces the error and provides precision

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27
Q

____ _____ ____ are the main output with input from the cerebellar cortex.

A

deep cerebellar nuclei

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28
Q

What are the three divisions of the cerebellum?

A

1- cerebrocerebellum
2- spinocerebellum
3- vestibulocerebellum

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29
Q

What is the major function of the cerebrocerebellum?

A

execution of complex spatial and temporal sequences of movement

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30
Q

Where does the cerebrocerebellum receive input from?

A

directly from the cortex

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31
Q

Where is the cerebrocerebellum?

A

the lateral sides of the cerebellum

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32
Q

Where is the spinocerebellum?

A

median and paramedian zones

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33
Q

Where does the spinocerebellum receive input from?

A

directly from the spinal cord

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34
Q

What is the function of the spinocerebellum?

A

medial to lateral (in relation proximal to distal) regulation of muscles

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35
Q

Where is the vestibulocerebellum?

A

caudal-inferior lobes

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36
Q

Where does the vestibulocerebellum receive input from?

A

vestibular nuclei

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37
Q

What is the function of the vestibulocerebellum?

A

regulation of posture and equilibrium

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38
Q

What are the three cerebellar pathways?

A

1- middle cerebellar peduncle
2- inferior cerebellar peduncle
3- superior cerebellar peduncle

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39
Q

Which cerebellar peduncle(s) is/are afferent pathways?

A

middle cerebellar peduncle and inferior cerebellar peduncle

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40
Q

Where does the middle cerebellar peduncle receive input from?

A

the pontine nuclei

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41
Q

Where does the inferior cerebellar peduncle receive input from?

A

vestibular nuclei, spinal cord, and brainstem

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42
Q

Which cerebellar peduncle(s) is/are efferent pathways?

A

superior cerebellar peduncle

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43
Q

Where does the superior cerebellar peduncle give input to?

A

deep cerebellar nuclei to thalamus, motor cortex, and superior colliculus

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44
Q

______ ______ and superior colliculus neurons synapse on ______ ______.

A

cerebral cortex, pontine nuclei

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45
Q

Pontine nuclei relay inputs via ____ ______ ______>

A

middle cerebellar peduncles

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46
Q

Where does the inferior olive receive inputs from?

A

cortex, reticular formation, and spinal cord

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47
Q

Where does the inferior olive project to?

A

cerebellum via inferior cerebellar peduncle

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48
Q

What does the inferior olive do?

A

participates in learning and memory

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49
Q

What are the three layers for the cerebral cortex?

A

molecular, Purkinjie, and granule

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50
Q

What do input from pontine nuclei to cerebellum cross?

A

via mossy fibers

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51
Q

Input from pontine nuclei synpase on ____ ____ which give rise to parallel fibers that ascend to _____ ______.

A

granule cells; molecular layer

52
Q

Input from pontine nuclei system also synapse on dendrites of _____ _____ (output cells).

A

Purkinje cells

53
Q

Purkinje Neuron Input = _____ _______ ______

A

error correction signal

54
Q

Purkinje neurons in cerebellar cortex shapes _____ _____ generated by deep buclei neurons being excited by mossy and climbing fiber input.

A

discharge patterns

55
Q

How fast is cerebellum modification of movement?

A

it’s done in real time

56
Q

Modulation of ongoing movement leads to complex neuronal responses of both ____ __ and deep cellular nuclei whose timing is associated with the ___ _____.

A

Purkinje cells; motor function

57
Q

What is cerebellar ataxia?

A

difficulty in producing smooth coordinated movements

58
Q

What does movement look like in cerebellar ataxia?

A

jerky, imprecise actions and staggering gait

59
Q

How does alcohol abuse impact movement/cerebellum?

A

affects lower limb and anterior spinocerebellar region

60
Q

What does a lesion of vestibulocerebellar region lead to?

A

imbalance and nystagmus

61
Q

What does a cerebrocerebellar lesion lead to?

A

impaired learning of movements (i.e. guitar playing)

62
Q

___ ____ _____ from 3 motor nuclei innervate the extraocular muscles.

A

lower motor neurons

63
Q

Where does the abducens (CN VI) exit the brainstem?

A

from pons medullary junction

64
Q

What does the abducens innervate?

A

lateral rectus muscle

65
Q

Where does the trochlear nerve (CN IV) exit the midbrain?

A

caudal portion

66
Q

What does trochlear nerve innervate?

A

superior oblique muscle of eye

67
Q

Where does the oculomotor nerve (CN III) exit midbrain?

A

rostral midbrain just medial to the cerebral peduncle

68
Q

What are the two gaze centers?

A

horizontal and vertical; aka Paramedian Pontine Reticular formation and Rostral Interstitial nucleus

69
Q

What do the two gaze centers do?

A

innervate motor nuclei and eye muscles

70
Q

Activation of gaze centers in concert results in ____ ____.

A

oblique movements

71
Q

Where does input from the retina and visual cortex go to?

A

the superior colliculus

72
Q

Superior colliculus (and frontal eye field) neurons are activated by ___ ____ and firing generates ____ ____.

A

visual stimuli; saccade movements

73
Q

The frontal eye fields project to what two places?

A

1- superior colliculus

1- reticular formation gaze centers

74
Q

The frontal eye fields are essential for scanning visual field to locate _____ of _____ among distracting objects.

A

object of interest

75
Q

Lateral inhibition in frontal eye fields has what effect?

A

it enhances neural responses to the object of interest

76
Q

What is the function of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

fright, flight, fighting and fornication

77
Q

What is the function of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

produces energy

78
Q

What NT(s) do(does) the parasympathetic nervous system use?

79
Q

What NT(s) do(does) the sympathetic nervous system use?

A

ACH, epinephrine, norepinephrine

80
Q

Where is the innervation from the spinal cord in the sympathetic nervous system?

A

thoracic and lumbar

81
Q

Where is the innervation from the spinal cord in the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

brainstem and sacral

82
Q

Sympathetic ganglion cells (mostly) release ______ on _____ cells.

A

norepinephrine; target

83
Q

Parasympathetic ganglion cells use only ______.

A

acetylcholine

84
Q

What does the central autonomic network of the NTS do?

A

it coordinates integrative and voluntary controls of viscera and combines with emotion to make other functions happen

85
Q

What is the function of the nucleus of solitary tract?

A

it is the relay center for visceral sensory and motor integration

86
Q

Where does the nucleus of solitary tract provide input to? 3 places

A

1- visceral motor nuclei
2- reticular formation premotor cortex
3- integrative centers in amygdala and hypothalamus

87
Q

What is the Babinski reflex a sign of?

A

an upper motor neuron lesion

88
Q

How is the ventral horn organized?

A

topographically: proximal to distal is medial to lateral respectively

89
Q

What is the difference between an alpha and gamma cell?

A

Add answer

90
Q

What is a golgi tendon and what does it do?

A

it senses muscle tension and sends a signal to alpha and gamma cells to propogate

91
Q

Why does a single alpha neuron innervate different muslces?

A

so that it’s loss does not impact movement too much and so that the force is spread evenly throughout the muscle

92
Q

What is the function of inhibitory neurons in the muscles?

A

they create opposition to contraction (aka the muscle relaxes)

93
Q

What happens when a muscle is activated?

A

it contracts

94
Q

Where is the internal capsule?

A

it connects the forebrain to brainstem

95
Q

What is the function of the internal capsule?

A

its like a highway

96
Q

What do the connections of the internal capsule allow?

A

creation of movement

97
Q

What is the corticospinal tract responsible for?

A

conducts impulses from the brain to the spinal cord and is involved in voluntary movement

98
Q

What is the corticobulbar tract responsible for?

A

posture, balance, gaze

99
Q

Why is the pyramidal tract called this?

A

because they pass through the pyramids of the medulla.

100
Q

What are the extrapyramidal tracts important to?

A

vestibular related movement

101
Q

What is the lateral corticospinal tract responsible for?

A

highly skilled movement of distal limbs (aka fingers)

102
Q

Most movement originates ________.

A

contralateral

103
Q

What is another name for superior and inferior colliculus?

A

tectospinal tract

104
Q

What is the superior colliculus responsible for?

A

visual information

105
Q

What is the function of the colliculospinal tract?

A

it adjusts head movement (nonvestibular info)

106
Q

How are the 3 extrapyramidal tracts divided?

A

functionally

107
Q

Motor cortex is organized by _____ not ______.

A

movement; topographically

108
Q

What cells are in cortical layer 5?

A

Betz cells

109
Q

30% of upper motor neurons start from ____ _____.

A

premotor cortex

110
Q

When did the monkey’s mirror cells light up? 4 times

A

1- when the monkey made the action
2- when others made the action
3- when it observed its own action
4- when the action was performed behind a screen

111
Q

When did the motor neurons of the monkey not light up?

A

When other monkeys used tools

112
Q

What projects to MSNs?

113
Q

Where do MSNs project to?

A

globus pallidus

114
Q

What type of signal do the MSNs take/give?

A

excitatory and inhibitory (respectively)

115
Q

How is motor created in relation to the basal ganglia?

A

by disinhibition of

116
Q

What is Parkinson’s in relation to the function of the basal ganglia?

A

too much inhibition which limits movement

117
Q

Does the cerebellum initiate movement?

A

no it just corrects

118
Q

What is the main input to the cerebellum?

A

the pontine nuclei

119
Q

What is the inferior olive involved in?

A

muscle memory

120
Q

Is vestibular info contra or ipsilateral?

A

ipsilateral

121
Q

Vestibular info projects through ___ ____.

A

mossy fibers

122
Q

What is the main source of cerebellar output?

A

Purkinje fibers

123
Q

Climbing fibers –> ______ –> Deep cerebellar nuclei

A

Purkinje fibers

124
Q

How is the spinocerebellum organized?

A

topographically

125
Q

How many gaze centers are there?

126
Q

Where does the superior colliculus take input from?

A

the contralateral side

127
Q

How is information in the superior colliculus organized?

A

it retains the topography of the outside world