Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Systems > Test 2- Flex Diesel, Security Diesel/UPS, Seismic, Refueling Equip/Ops, Sampling, CR Annunciators, Fire Detection/Protection, Process Rad Monitor, ARM, RW, HWC > Flashcards

Test 2- Flex Diesel, Security Diesel/UPS, Seismic, Refueling Equip/Ops, Sampling, CR Annunciators, Fire Detection/Protection, Process Rad Monitor, ARM, RW, HWC Flashcards

1
Q

How many, and which, 480V E-Busses can one Flex Diesel carry?

A

-1 Diesel can carry 2 480V E-Busses -Either Diesel can carry E-6 and/or E-8 and cross ties not to exceed 2 busses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the primary and back up refueling sources for the Flex Diesels?

A

Any 4 day tank and any 4 day tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the purpose of seismic monitoring and where does it detect it.

A

To sense and record earthquake ground motion (> or = of .01g) in the reactor building

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What defines an Operating Basis Earthquake (OBE)?

A

< or = to .08g at the reactor building foundation Effect of stresses are within the normal limits of the structures and equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What defines a Design Basis Earthquake (DBE)?

A

DBE is < or = .16g at the RB foundation, per FSAR should be fine as long as less than .2g Effect of stresses is within 90% of the minimum yield strength of all materials used in plant construction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of monitoring systems does Unit 2 have?

A

Passive and Active monitoring systems Passive: 117’, 20, -17’ Active: 89’, -17’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What causes a remote start of recorders in Unit 2?

A

The remote starter actuates at .01g.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do the following lights on the Seismic RECORDER indicate? 1. Yellow RUN light 2. Red EVENT light 3. Green CHARGE light 4. Red ALARM light

A
  1. Yellow RUN light: Processor is operational 2. Red EVENT light: Event recorded (solid) or activity on storage card (flashing) 3. Green CHARGE light: Power & battery is charging 4. Red ALARM light: Alarm threshold exceeded
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do the following R+89 and R-17 bar colors on the GUI indicate? 1. Green 2. Red 3. Blue 4. Pink 5. Cyan

A
  1. Green: Function normal 2. Red: Problem detected 3. Blue: File being retrieved 4. Pink: Triggered and Alarm indicated 5. Cyan: Data acquisition is disabled
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Power supply to seismic monitoring

A

32AB from E7(Normal) and E8(Alternate). Seismic UPS powers Alarm & Interconnect Panel and Central Controller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define CORE ALTERATION per Tech Specs.

A

CORE ALTERATION shall be the movement of any fuel, sources, or reactivity control components, within the reactor vessel with the vessel head removed and fuel in the vessel. The following exceptions are not considered to be CORE ALTERATIONS: a. Movement of source range monitors, local power range monitors, intermediate range monitors, traversing incore probes, or special movable detectors (including undervessel replacement); and b. Control rod movement, provided there are no fuel assemblies in the associated core cell. Suspension of CORE ALTERATIONS shall not preclude completion of movement of a component to a safe position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define Shut Down Margin per Tech Specs.

A

SDM shall be the amount of reactivity by which the reactor is subcritical or would be subcritical assuming that: a. The reactor is xenon free; b. The moderator temperature is 68°F; and c. All control rods are fully inserted except for the single control rod of highest reactivity worth, which is assumed to be fully withdrawn. With control rods not capable of being fully inserted, the reactivity worth of these control rods must be accounted for in the determination of SDM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Per TS 3.3.1.2 how many SRMs are required to be operable in Mode 5?

A

2 of 4 are required to be operable One in quadrant moving fuel and one in an adjacent quadrant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is supposed to happen if communications are lost between the control room and refuel bridge? What are normal types of communications?

A

All Core alterations are suspended if communications are lost. Bridge communicates the step number, BOTH before latching AND before lowering into the core AND step completion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the manning requirements on the refuel bridge for core alterations

A

Refuel Floor SRO, bridge operator, spotter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the neutronic bridge prerequisite to core alts?

A

ensures you can monitor the entire loaded area for inadvertent criticality load 4 bundles around EACH SRM load bundles in path between EITHER A and C or B and D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are reasons to stop fuel moves / suspend core alts?

A

ANY SRM doubles between any single bundle insertion ANY SRM 5x or greater from its baseline during multiple bundle insertions Loss of amber engaged light when grappled to something, this will go out if either hook is not closed. airborne security threats indications of criticality loss of comms malfunction of any NI dropped or damaged fuel bundle hi rad OR airborne on refuel floor Rx cavity level drops OR SFP level drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do you do if you have to stop fuel moves or suspend core alts?

A

ALWAYS put the component in a safe position PRIOR to stopping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the Slack Cable indication?

A

low load felt - 50 lbs + or - 25 lbs downward motion will be blocked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the Hoist Jam indication?

A

High load and upward motion is blocked. Fuel hoist (main grapple) is 1600 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the hoist override?

A

Allows hoist to be raised above the normal limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the hoist normal loads?

A

Fuel hoist (main hoist) normal load is 750 lbs All other hoists - 350 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the normal hoist release and engage control caveats?

A

Both hooks must be closed to get an amber Engaged Light. If the grapple does not open within 5 seconds it will auto re-engage Hooks fail as is on loss of air Hooks fail closed on loss of power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do you read core coordinates?

A

Read up then across - North - West convention… Always read North first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do you tell fuel bundle orientation?

A

the direction boss points in the direction of its orientation. Towards the control rod center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How can you verify the position of a fuel bundle?

A
  1. Serial # - readable from center 2. Channel fastener – on central corners secures channel to assembly 3. ID Boss – points towards center 4. Spacer buttons – adjacent to control rods maintain wide-wide gap 5. Cell to cell symmetry. Heights even across all bundles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the typical direction of the control rod bail handles?

A

East- West

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What refuel bridge functions are limited by rod blocks?

A

None. They are only control room functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the function of the refueling interlocks?

A

They limit the probability of an inadvertent criticality during refueling. If the interlocks fail, the chance of criticality is greatly increased. Changing reactivity by two or more independent means simultaneously is prohibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What distance is traveled by one core unit on the refuel bridge?

A

3”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the caveat of LCO 3.9.7 - Residual heat removal RHR - high water level

A

The required RHR shutdown cooling subsystem may be removed from operation for up to 2 hours per 8 hour period. applicability: mode 5 with fuel in the RPV and water level > or = 21’ 10” above RPV flange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the purpose of a double blade guide?

A

provide support to a control rod when more than 2 diagonally adjacent fuel assemblies are removed from a single fuel cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the inputs to the refueling interlocks associated with the grapple? How do the refueling interlocks affect the hoist?

A

Not full up OR Any hoist loaded resulting block: hoist motion block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the inputs to the refueling interlocks associated with the refuel bridge? How do the refueling interlocks affect the bridge?

A

Over the core (past LS1) resulting block: reverse motion block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the inputs to the refueling interlocks associated with control rod position? How do the refueling interlocks affect control rod movement?

A

All rods not full in (from green light on P603) resulting block: rod out block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The mode switch must be in what position for the refuel interlocks to be enforced?

A

Mode Switch in Refuel or Startup/Hot Standby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the circuit breaker that can be opened to remove all electrical power to the refueling bridge except for that power coming from the MCC supply?

A

CB50 - Main Refueling Bridge Supply Breaker

38
Q

How is motion restricted when the GRAPPLE FULL DOWN LIMIT light is in on the left hand console?

A

grapple is 2” above the top guide downward motion is blocked upward motion permitted

39
Q

How is motion restricted when the GRAPPLE NORMAL UP LIMIT light is in on the left hand console?

A

Grapple has reached normal up stop upward motion is blocked downward motion is permitted

40
Q

How is motion restricted when the HOIST LOADED light is in on the left hand console?

A

this is an indication of a normal load on the grapple (750#) no motion restriction

41
Q

How is motion restricted when the HOIST JAM light is in on the left hand console?

A

1600# load detected upward motion is blocked downward motion is permitted

42
Q

How is motion restricted when the SLACK CABLE light is in on the left hand console?

A

Low load detected (50# +/- 25#) downward motion blocked

43
Q

Where are the PASS sample points?

A

-Jet Pump 6&14 -RHR Hx A/B -4409/4410 DW/Torus 6’, DW 50’, DW 100’ -RB 20’ -SBGT Discharge

44
Q

What group isolation are RHR HX effulent PASS valves E11-F079/F080 A(B) and how can they be overridden?

A

Group 2 (LL1 166”, High DW 1.7#) Can be soft overridden using CAC AC Div 1/2 override switch and then they become Group 6 valves and will close on a Group 6 signal

45
Q

What does a slow flashing annunciator indicate?

A

An alarm has been received and not aknowledged

46
Q

What does a solid lit annunciator indicate?

A

An alarm has been received and acknowledged

47
Q

What does a fast flashing annunciator indicate?

A

An alarming condition has cleared

48
Q

What does a white annunciator tile indicate?

A

An abnormal condition requiring increased awareness

49
Q

Describe an annunciator tile that will require increased operator attention or action to prevent further degradation

A

Amber backlit with yellow bar

50
Q

An annunciator with a red backlight and blue bar will require the operator to do what?

A

EOP entry or EOP related

51
Q

Which type of annunciator indicates that a trip setpoint has been reached or prompt operator action is required?

A

Red backlight with Red Bar

52
Q

Fire protection panel and SJAE/AOG panel uses what type of annunciator? What is the power supply?

A

Beta 1000 120VAC AOG 125VDC Fire Protection

53
Q

An annunciator has been determined to be a nuisance, and will be past the end of shift, how is this flagged?

A

Green

54
Q

A black dot has been placed on an annunciator, what does this indicate?

A

Indicates annunciator audible alarm feature has been altered per temporary modification by installing a modified annunciator card.

55
Q

An annunciator will be removed from service, how is this flagged on the RTGB?

A

Blue dot placed on annunciator window.

56
Q

A trouble alarm annunciator with 4 inputs has 2 of its inputs disabled, how is this flagged?

A

Yellow dot.

57
Q

An annunciator with a red dot indicates what?

A

The annunciator is in due to clearance

58
Q

Which type of fire detector utilizes Americium-241 and how does it work?

A

Ionization Smoke particles impede current flow and generate alarm signal

59
Q

How does a thermal fire detector work?

A

Heat expands an inner tube, closing contacts

60
Q

Which fire detector will alarm after it senses a flame flicker for > 10 seconds?

A

Infrared (Flame)

61
Q

The DG building utilizes a detector that requires 2 signals to alarm, what type of detector is it?

A

UV and IR Flame

62
Q

How does a photoelectric detector work?

A

Smoke scatters light onto a photodiode and alarms after a 3 second delay

63
Q

A phone call from the Central Station Receiver will let you know there is a detector alarming where?

A

Non-Powerblock from System 3 or Honeywell MS2

64
Q

Cloud Chamber detectors are used in what building?

A

Control Building

65
Q

The HPCI room is protected by what type of suppression system?

A

Manually initiated CO2

66
Q

Ring Header pressure reaches 85 psi, what pumps are running?

A

Jockey Pump in Man Jockey Pump in Auto @ 120 psi Electric (P2) Pump @ 105 psi Diesel (P1) Pump @ 90 psi

67
Q

A loss of E2 occurs during firefighting activities and the Diesel Fire Pump (P1) fails to auto start, how can firefighting resume?

A

Electric (P2) Pump can be swapped manually from E2 to E4 at the MBT device (outside MWT)

68
Q

What will trip the Diesel Fire Pump? How is it secured normally?

A

Overspeed Normally secured locally at the Pump

69
Q

The Diesel Fire Pump fails to auto start on it’s first try, what happens?

A

After 15 seconds, it will swap battery banks and try again, up to 6 times.

70
Q

A Jockey Pump in AUTO will secure when?

A

After running for at least 90 seconds and header pressure is >= 130 psi

71
Q

How many gallons are required in the FP Tank and MUD Tank?

A

FP 240,380 gal (25’ 7.5”) MUD 90,000 (14’)

72
Q

When will SBGT deluge initiate?

A

Inlet temp <180 F and Charcoal Temp >210 F. Deluge valve will trip, but must be manually unisolated

73
Q

MSL Rad Monitor HI-HI trips, power and power supplies

A

-Close OG-V7 (MVP Suction) -Trip MVPs -1 out of 2, taken twice from RPS A (A/C), RPS B (B/D)

74
Q

SJAE rad monitor trips and power supplies

A

2 out of 2 logic from RPS A and RPS B. 15 min timer from UPS HI-HI, Downscale, or INOP starts 15 min timer then AOG-HCV-102 (AOG Bypass) and OG-SV-4907 (Loop seal drain) close With no power to timer, no time delay or trip

75
Q

Main stack rad monitor flows, power supplies, and trips

A

Normal: low activity, high flow Accident: High activity, low flow U2 UPS(normal), U1 UPS (alt) HI-HI Rad: dual unit Group 6, BFIV closure, SBGT starts

76
Q

RB Roof vent rad monitor sense?

A

Senses particulate, iodine, and noble gas. Alarm only

77
Q

List RB Ventilation rad monitor power supplies, trips

A

RPS A and B Recorder from UPS HI-HI Rad(4 mR/hr) or Hi temp (135F) will give Group 6, BFIV closure, SBGT start

78
Q

RFPTs are protected by what type of fire suppression system?

A

Deluge activated by thermal detectors

79
Q

What types of installed fire suppression are used in the DG Building?

A

Foam Water Halon

80
Q

Which tanks in radwaste can release to the discharge canal?

A

Floor drain sample tank waste sample tank salt water release tank DDT

81
Q

How are the control building ARMs powered and where is the panel located?

A

1AB in the U1 back panels Can also be powered by 2AB

82
Q

What radiation levels in the control room and control room ventilation will cause a CB ventilation isolation and CREV start? What is the logic?

A

control room: 1mR/hr CB ventilation ducts (U1 or U2): 7mR/hr 1 out of 3 logic (any can cause isolation and crev initiation)

83
Q

What is the purpose of the Drywell high range ARMs?

A

The purpose of the Drywell High Range Radiation Monitoring System is to detect significant radioactive releases inside the drywell, to assess these releases, to provide long-term post accident surveillance, and to provide emergency plan actuation.

84
Q

While releasing the U2 SWRT, a LOOP occurs on Unit 1. What actions must be taken?

A

LOOP signal will start all 4 DGs and a divisional start of NSW pumps on both units. The total number of running SW pumps will increase from the amount listed on the release permit, and therefore the release must be secured.

85
Q

The RO has set the RW Effluent Release monitor HI-HI to 3000 CPS IAW 0OP-06.4. Immediately after the RWAO starts releasing the A DDT, the RW Effluent Release monitor pegs high at 4300 CPS. What actions must be taken?

A

Verify the appropriate U-1(U-2) RW LIQ EFFLUENT DISCH VLVS, D12-V27A(D12-V27B) trip closed, then RWCO secure the release IAW 0OP-06.4.

86
Q

Requirements for IGSCC?

A

Susceptible material, tensile stress, O2

87
Q

HWC excess flow check valves trip setpoints:

A

H2- 500 cfm O2- 200 cfm

88
Q

List HWC trips

A

Scram Concentration of H2 in Breezeway/CBP >=2% H2 Injection flow HI O2 Injection flow LOW O2 SJAE concentration Power SJAE <1/2 Load

89
Q

Why does O2 trip after H2?

A

Allows for recombination of O2 Determined by PLC based on 7 min travel time

90
Q

Where do the PASS sample station waste lines drain to?

A

Suppression Pool

Systems (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions