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microbio chapter 8 > test 2 (chapter 5,6,8,) > Flashcards

test 2 (chapter 5,6,8,) Flashcards

1
Q

What is a gene composed of

A

DNA that transcribes to produce an RNA molecule during transcription.

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2
Q

what is mRNA and what does it do

A

Messenger RNA and it provides the information for the ribosome to catalyze protein synthesis in translation.

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3
Q

what is gene expression?

A

the synthesis of a specific protein with a sequence of amino acids that is encoded into a gene.

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4
Q

What is central dogma

A

the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to protein.

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5
Q

what is a cells genotype

A

its full collection of its genes it contains.

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6
Q

What is a cells phenotype

A

The set of observable characteristics from those genes.

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7
Q

semiconservative replication

A

after replication each parent strand has a new and an old strand

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8
Q

What is DNA pol 3

A

is required from DNA synthesis and adds deoxyribose nucleotides one by one on the 3’ -OH strand.

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9
Q

what are DNA pol 1 and 2 for

A

repair.

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10
Q

what is a histone

A

a protein that provides structural support for a chromosome.

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11
Q

What happens if DNA is supercoiled?

A

it is inaccessible.

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12
Q

How does DNA get un-supercoiled?

A

Topoisomerase(gyrase)

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13
Q

What does helicase do

A

break the DNA structure by destroying the hydrogen bonds.

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14
Q

What nucleotide has fewer hydrogen bonds?

A

AT

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15
Q

What is primer?

A

a free 3’ -OH group that start the DNA synthesis.

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16
Q

what is primer synthesized by

A

RNA primase.

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17
Q

Ligase

A

Seals the gaps between the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand to create one continuous DNA strand

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18
Q

DNA pol 1

A

Exonuclease activity removes RNA primer and replaces it with newly synthesized DNA

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19
Q

Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase)

A

Relaxes supercoiled chromosome to make DNA more accessible for the initiation of replication; helps relieve the stress on DNA when unwinding, by causing breaks and then resealing the DNA

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20
Q

Topoisomerase IV

A

Introduces single-stranded break into concatenated chromosomes to release them from each other, and then reseals the DNA

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21
Q

A segment of DNA that codes for a functional product

A

gene

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22
Q

What process converts one parental DNA strand into 2 identical offspring molecules

A

transcription

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23
Q

In DNA replication the newly added nucleotide is joined to the growing DNA strand by

A

DNA polymerase

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24
Q

DNA polymerase adds nucleotides specifically to the what prime side of the growing strand?

A

3 prime

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24
Q

Which one of the following enzymes joins DNA
strands, joins Okazaki fragments, and mends
gaps in the DNA backbone during excision repair

A

DNA Ligase

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24
Q

What carries the coded information for making
specific proteins from DNA to ribosomes?

A

mRNA

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25
Q

Which molecules recognize specific codons and
transport amino acids to translate those specific
codons?

A

tRNA

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25
Q

A group of three nucleotides on mRNA is called
a(n)

A

codon

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26
Q

Transcription begins when RNA polymerase
binds to the DNA at the

A

promoter

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27
Q

of the 61 codons how many are sense codons

A

61 (3 are the telomeres)

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28
Q

between 60 to 80 percent of genes are not regulated by the cell but are ______ in nature

A

constitutive

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29
Q

What is the process that turns on the transcription
of a gene or genes?

A

induction

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30
Q

A group of genes that are transcribed together
and controlled by one promoter defines a(n)

A

operon

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31
Q

Inhibition of the metabolism of alternative carbon
sources by glucose is called

A

catabolite repression

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32
Q

ionizing radiation causes

A

DNA strand breaks

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33
Q

Single-stranded RNA molecules that inhibit
protein production in eukaryotic cells are known
as

A

microRNAs

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34
Q

thymine dimers can be repaired by light repair enzymes called

A

photolyases

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35
Q

What is the most common type of mutation which
involves single base pairs?

A

base substitution

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36
Q

Mutations in which one or a few nucleotide pairs
are deleted or inserted in the DNA are called

A

frameshift mutations

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36
Q

Approximately what percentage of substances
found by the Ames test to be mutagenic are also
carcinogenic in animals?

A

90%

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37
Q

The process of bacteria passing their genes to
other microbes of the same generation is known
as

A

horizontal gene shift

38
Q

Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a
donor to a recipient cell via

A

naked DNA in solution

39
Q

The process in which bacterial DNA is transferred
from a donor cell to a recipient cell inside a
bacteriophage is called

A

transduction

40
Q

The process for gene transfer which requires cell-
to-cell contact and a particular type of plasmid is
called

A

conjugtion

40
Q

Which type of plasmids carry genes for sex pili
and for the transfer of the plasmid to another cell?

A

conjugative plasmids.

41
Q

What are the small segments of DNA that can
move from one region of a DNA molecule to
another?

A

transposons

42
Q

The building of complex organic molecules from
simpler ones is called

A

anabolism

43
Q

The breakdown of complex organic compounds
into simpler ones is called

A

catabolism

44
Q

Inhibitors that fill the enzyme’s active site and
compete with the normal substrate are

A

competitive

45
Q

Enzymes increase the speed of a chemical
reaction by

A

lowering the activation energy

46
Q

Many apoenzymes are inactive by themselves
and must be activated by

A

cofactors

47
Q

The addition of phosphate to a chemical
compound is called

A

phosphorylation

48
Q

In what process does the aerobic electron
transport chain participate?

A

oxidative phosphorylation

49
Q

A molecule that undergoes reduction

A

gains electrons

50
Q

the energy from catabolic reactions is used to produce

A

ATP

51
Q

In which one of the following processes is light
energy converted to ATP, which is then used to
synthesize organic molecules?

A

photosynthesis

52
Q

In which one of the following processes is light
energy converted to ATP, which is then used to
synthesize organic molecules?

A

2 pyruvic acids, 2 atp, and 2 NADH

53
Q

In prokaryotes, how many ATP molecules are
produced from the breakdown of one glucose via
aerobic respiration

A

38

54
Q

The pentose phosphate pathway provides a
means to break down glucose and

A

five carbon sugars

55
Q

The FIRST step in the Krebs cycle is combination
of an acetyl group with oxaloacetic acid, leading
to the formation of

A

citric acid

56
Q

In anaerobic respiration, the final electron
acceptor is

A

an inorganic molecule other than oxygen

57
Q

Where does photosynthesis take place in
eukaryotic cells?

A

chloroplasts

58
Q

In the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis

A

ADP is converted to ATP

59
Q

In the Calvin-Benson cycle

A

carbon dioxide is used to synthesize sugars

60
Q

Photosynthesis in plants, algae, and
cyanobacteria produces

A

oxygen

61
Q

use electrons from reduced inorganic
or organic compounds as a source of energy and
CO2 as a source of carbon

A

chemoautotrophs

62
Q

In cyclic photophosphorylation, the electrons

A

return to chlorophyll

63
Q

In lipid biosynthesis, glycerol is derived from
dihydroxyacetone phosphate formed during

A

glycolisis

64
Q

If an amine group added to a precursor comes
from a preexisting amino acid, the process is
called

A

transamination

65
Q

The five-carbon sugars of nucleotides are
derived from either the

A

pentose phosphate pathway; entener duodorff pathway

66
Q

Metabolic pathways that function in BOTH
anabolism and catabolism are called ________
pathways

A

amphiobolic

67
Q

In fermentation

A

the final electron acceptor is organic.

68
Q

an optimum PH for most bacteria is near

A

7

69
Q

A psychrophile has an optimal growth
temperature of about

A

15C

70
Q

Organisms that require high salt concentrations
for growth are called

A

obligate halophiles

71
Q

What is/are the energy source(s) utilized by
primary producers in the hydrothermal vents on
the ocean floor?

A

sulfur compounds

72
Q

Addition of salts preserves foods because they

A

increase osmotic pressure

73
Q

Chemoautotrophs and photoautotrophs derive
their carbon from

A

carbon dioxide

74
Q

Some microorganisms use gaseous nitrogen
directly from the atmosphere in a process called

A

nitrogen fixation

75
Q

An organism that uses oxygen when present but
can grow without oxygen is called a(n)

A

facultative anaerobe

76
Q

Which organism is killed by atmospheric oxygen?

A

obligate anaerobe

77
Q

One of the following enzymes found in some
bacteria which can break down toxic hydrogen
peroxide into water and oxygen is

A

catalase

78
Q

Generation time can best be defined as

A

the time it takes for a cell to divide.

78
Q

Bacterial growth is usually graphed using
________ axis scales.

A

logarithmic

79
Q
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91
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92
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94
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A

microbio chapter 8 (1 decks)

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