Test #2 Flashcards

1
Q

This is a structure of a long bone that stores energy.

a. Diaphysis
b. Epiphysis
c. Metaphysis
d. Periosteum
e. Marrow

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This is the region of a long bone that articulates with other bones.

a. Diaphysis
b. Epiphysis
c. Metaphysis
d. Periosteum
e. Marrow

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This is the shaft of a long bone.

a. Diaphysis
b. Epiphysis
c. Metaphysis
d. Periosteum
e. Marrow

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
This is a layer of hyaline cartilage that reduces friction between bones involved in
the joint.
a. Periosteum
b. Distal epiphysis
c. Nutrient foramen
d. Articular cartilage
e. Epiphyseal plate
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This is a layer of hyaline cartilage that allows the Diaphysis to grow in length.

a. Periosteum
b. Distal epiphysis
c. Nutrient foramen
d. Articular cartilage
e. Epiphyseal plate

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This is the region in mature bone where the diaphysis and the epiphysis join.

a. Epiphyseal plate
b. Epiphyseal line
c. Metaphysis
d. Diaphyseal line
e. Diaphyseal plate

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This is a lining found in bone that promotes bone growth in width

a. Periosteum
b. Endosteum
c. Marrow
d. Epiphysis
e. Metaphysis

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Put the bones cells in order of their maturation from unspecialized to specialized.

a. Osteogenic, osteoblast, osteocytes
b. Osteogenic, osteoblast, osteocytes
c. Osteogenic, osteocytes, osteoblast
d. Osteogenic, osteocytes, osteoclast
e. None of the above

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

These are considered bone-building cells.

a. Osteogenic
b. Osteoclast
c. Oscteocytes
d. Osteoblasts
e. All of the above

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

These are considered bone-dissolving cells.

a. Osteogenic
b. Osteoclast
c. Oscteocytes
d. Osteoblasts
e. All of the above

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following structures contains osteocytes?

a. Haversian
b. Volkmann’s
c. Concentric
d. Lacunae
e. Canaliculi

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

These are extensions of the lacunae and are filled with extracellular fluid.

a. Volkmann’s canals
b. Haversian canals
c. Osteons
d. Canaliculi
e. Periosteum

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Osteons in compact bone tissue are aligned along

a. Horizontal to the metaphysis
b. Parallel to the epiphysis
c. Lines of stress
d. Randomly between the Epiphyseal plate
e. Parallel to blood vessels

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Bone remodeling does NOT

a. Occur through out life
b. Involve bone resorption
c. Involve bone deposition
d. Occur at different rates at different locations
e. Affect compact bone tissue but does affect spongy bone tissue

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The renewal rate for compact bone tissue is

a. 4% per year
b. 15% per year
c. 20% per year
d. 25% per year
e. No way to measure

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following minerals is needed when bones are growing?

a. Chlorine
b. Sulfur
c. Magnesium
d. Both Chlorine and Sulfur
e. All of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The correct sequence of processes that occur during bone elongation at the epiphyseal plate are:

a. calcification, resting, proliferation, hypertrophication
b. resting, proliferation, calcification, hypertrophication
c. proliferation, resting, hypertrophication, calcification
d. resting, proliferation, hypertrophication, calcification
e. hypertrophication, calcification, proliferation, resting

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

During adulthood, which of the following does NOT contribute to bone remodeling and growth?

a. Calcium
b. Vitamins
c. Enzymes
d. Sex hormones
e. Human growth hormone

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is usually seen in children.

a. Open
b. Comminuted
c. Impacted
d. Greenstick
e. Stress

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

About 25% of all stress fractures involve which bone? a. Rib

b. Clavicle
c. Humerus
d. Ulna
e. Tibia

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bone reduction

a. Is the alignment of Epiphyseal plates
b. Can be open or closed
c. Is followed by a period of mobilization
d. Is the alignment of epiphyseal plates and can be open or closed
e. All of the above

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bone mass reduction is promoted by which hormone?

a. Calcitriol
b. Calcitonin
c. Human growth hormone
d. Parathyroid
e. Insulin

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An increase in bone growth is promoted by which hormones? a. Calcitriol and human growth hormone

b. Calcitonin and Calcitriol
c. Human growth hormone and Parathyroid
d. Parathyroid and Insulin
e. Insulin and human growth hormone

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The branch of medicine that deals with correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system is called

a) Rheumatics
b) Podiatry
c) Orthopedics
d) Cardiology
e) Interologist

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many bones are found in the adult human skeleton? a) 200

b) 206 c) 212 d) 227 e) 250

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is not true?
a) The axial skeleton has 80 bones
b) The appendicular skeleton has 126 bones
c) The axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of
the body.
d) Children have more bones than adults.
e) The appendicular skeleton does not include the girdles.

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following is NOT found in the axial skeleton?

a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) V ertebrae
d) Carpals
e) Sternum

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following is found in the axial skeleton?

a) Tarsal
b) Tibia
c) Sphenoid
d) Scapula
e) Clavicle

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which type of bone is the femur?

a) Long bone
b) Short bone
c) Flat bone
d) Irregular bone
e) Sesamoid bone

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which type of bone is the occipital?

a) Long bone
b) Short bone
c) Flat bone
d) Irregular bone
e) Sesamoid bone

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

This is a bone located within ankles or wrists.

a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone
c) Irregular bone
d) Sesamoid bone
e) Short bone

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of surface markings on bone.

a) They allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels.
b) They provide attachments for muscles.
c) They provide movement within the bone.
d) They help form joints.
e) They can be a depression or a projection.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Bones in the following area protect the brain.

a. Cranium
b. Vertebral column
c. Sacrum
d. Face
e. Ribcage

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following is not a facial bone?

a) Parietal
b) Nasal
c) Maxillae
d) Zygomatic
e) Palatine

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which is not true of the skull bones?

a) They include mucous membranes
b) The only movable bone in the skull is the mandible
c) The skull contains foraminas but no fissures
d) The facial bones provide support for entrance into the digestive system
e) They include sinus cavities

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following bones is not visible from the anterior view of the skull?

a) Parietal
b) Frontal
c) Mandible
d) Occipital
e) Maxilla

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
These floor.
bones form the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial
a) Frontal
b) Temporal
c) Parietal
d) Occipital
e) Nasal
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

These bones include the organs of hearing and balance and articulate with the mandible.

a) Frontal
b) Temporal
c) Parietal
d) Occipital
e) Nasal

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The mastoid process

a) Is a rounded projection of the parietal bones
b) Is the point of attachment for several neck muscles
c) Is anterior to the external auditory meatus.
d) Bothaandb
e) All of the above

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

These projections on either side of the foramen magnum articulate with depressions on the first cervical vertebrae.

a) Mastoid processes
b) Temporomandibular joint
c) Foramen magnum
d) Occipital condyles
e) Sella turcica

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which cranial bone articulates with every other cranial bone?

a) Occipital
b) Frontal
c) Ethmoid
d) Nasal
e) Sphenoid

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

This cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones. It contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.

a) Ethmoid
b) Frontal
c) Palatine
d) Maxilla
e) Temporal

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

This facial bone articulates with teeth.

a) Lacrimal
b) Palatine
c) V omer
d) Maxillae
e) Nasal

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following is not a facial bone?

a) V omer
b) Palatine
c) Lacrimal
d) Occipital
e) Mandible

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone?

a) V ertebrae
b) Ethmoid
c) Sternum
d) Hyoid
e) Ilium

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death?

a) Natural causes
b) Cardiac arrest
c) Gun shot
d) Strangulation
e) Choking

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus?

a) To compress the vertebral bones
b) To absorb vertical shock
c) Calcium storage
d) Spinal fluid reservoir
e) Muscle attachment

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Primary curves of the vertebrae include

a) Thoracic curve
b) Sacral curve
c) Lumbar curve
d) Cervical curve
e) All of the above

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The function of vertebral processes is

a) Attachment site for muscles
b) Calcium storage
c) To support the body of the vertebrae
d) To hold the hyoid in place
e) To allow passage of the spinal cord

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What bone feature of the second cervical vertebrae articulates with the first cervical vertebrae?

a) Primary projection
b) Occular process
c) Odontoid process
d) Cervical projection
e) Cervix

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Of the following, which is the largest individual vertebrae?

a) C5
b) L4
c) T4
d) C7
e) T12

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

These are the inferior articular processes of the fifth sacral vertebrae.

a. Sacral cornua
b. Sacral hiatus
c. Lateral sacral crest
d. Anterior sacral foramina
e. Median sacral crest

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly?

a) Females
b) Males
c) Both genders
d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the junction between the manubrium and the body of the sternum called? a) Suprasternal notch

b) Xiphoid process
c) Sternal angle
d) Sternoclavicular joint
e) Manubrium joint

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is inflammation of the costal cartilage called? a) Costochondritis

b) Floating ribs
c) Cartilaginous distension
d) Costal angle
e) Intercostals space distension

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

This is the anterior bone that articulates with the manubrium of the sternum at the sternoclavicular joint.

a. Scapula
b. Clavicle
c. Xiphoid
d. Sternum

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

This bone’s shape comes from the medial half of the bone being convex anteriorly and the lateral half is concave anteriorly.

a. Sternum
b. Scapula
c. Humerus
d. Clavicle

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the following do the pelvic girdles articulate with?

a. V ertebral column
b. Humerus
c. Sacrum
d. None of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

This part of the clavicle is rounded and articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.

a. Acromial end
b. Conoid tubercle
c. Sternal extremity
d. Costal tuberosity

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The following is/are attachment sites on the clavicle.

a. Conical tuberosity
b. Acromial tuberosity
c. Costal extremity
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Why is the clavicle one of the most broken bones in the human body?

a. Due to the pressure from the lungs
b. Due to the weakness of the Acromial joint
c. Due to weakness of the junction of the curves
d. Due to its position to the humerus
e. Due to rubbing against the first rib

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which of the following bones is located in the posterior thorax between the second and seventh vertebrae?

a. Sternum
b. Clavicle
c. Pelvis
d. Scapula
e. None of the above

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is found in the glenoid cavity?

a. Subscapular fossa
b. Acromion
c. Supraspinous fossa
d. Spine
e. Humerus

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

This is the edge of the scapula closest to the humerus.

a. Axillary border
b. Medial border
c. Infraspinous fossa
d. Coracoid process
e. Acromion

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which is more superior on the scapula.

a. Infraspinous fossa
b. Supraspinous fossa
c. Acromion
d. Subscapular fossa
e. Scapular notch

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the following is found anteriorly on the scapula?

a. A) Infraspinous fossa
b. B) Supraspinous fossa
c. C) Subscapular fossa
d. Bothaandb
e. None of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the scapular notch used for?

a. A) Ligament attachment
b. B) Tendon attachment
c. C) Passageway for a nerve
d. Bothaandb
e. None of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which of the following is fully visible with the scapula in a lateral orientation.

a. A) Coracoid process
b. B) Glenoid cavity
c. C) Acromion
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges.
b. There are 8 carpals, 6 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
c. There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 12 phalanges
d. There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
e. There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The glenohumeral joint includes:

a. The humerus, radius and ulna
b. The humerus and radius
c. The humerus and clavicle
d. The humerus and ulna
e. The humerus and scapula

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The anatomical neck of the humerus includes the:

a. Epiphyseal line
b. Greater tubercle
c. Intertubercular sulcus
d. Surgical neck
e. Bothaandc

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The lesser tubercle of the humerus:

a. Articulates with the ulna
b. Articulates with the radius
c. Is found in the glenohumeral joint
d. Projects anteriorly
e. Is distal to the glenohumeral joint

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The deltoid tuberosity of the humerus is found:

a. At the distal end
b. At the proximal end
c. At the midpoint of the shaft
d. At the Epiphyseal plate
e. None of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The capitulum:

a. A) Articulates with the head of radius
b. B) Is a rounded knob on the lateral aspect of the humerus
c. C) Projects anteriorly
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

On the proximal end of the humerus is found:

a. The capitulum
b. The radial fossa
c. The trochlea
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

This is a spool shaped surface of the humerus medial to the capitulum that articulates with the ulna.

a. Coronoid fossa
b. Trochlea
c. Medial epicondyle
d. Lateral epicondyle
e. Lesser tubercle

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
The medial and lateral epicondyle are found on the distal end of the humerus and
are used for
a. A) Muscle attachment
b. B) Tendon attachment
c. C) Groove for nerves
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which is the longer bone? a. Radius

b. Phalange c. Clavicle d. Ulna
e. 1st rib

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which is found in the elbow?

a. A) Acromion
b. B) Surgical neck
c. C) Olecranon
d. Lesser tubercle
e. Bothaandc

A

C

80
Q

Which of the following receives the trochlea of the humerus?

a. A) Olecranon
b. B) Coronoid process
c. Bothaandb
d. None of the above

A

D

81
Q

Which notch is found between the olecranon and coronoid process?

a. Ulnar notch
b. Radial notch
c. Olecranal notch
d. Trochlear notch
e. Epicondyle notch

A

D

82
Q

Where does the biceps brachii muscle attach itself to the ulna?

a. Radial tuberosity
b. Styloid process
c. Ulnar tuberosity
d. Coronoid process
e. None of the above

A

E

83
Q

The ulna and radius connect with each other at how many points? a. 1
b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5

A

C

84
Q

What is the function of the interosseous membrane between the ulna and radius? a. A) Joins the shafts of both bones

b. B) Tendon attachment
c. C) Site or bone repair
d. Bothaandb
e. None of the above

A

D

85
Q

This depression is found laterally and inferior to the trochlear notch.

a. Radial notch
b. Elbow notch
c. Proximal radioulnar joint
d. Ulnar notch
e. Styloid process

A

A

86
Q

The distal end of the radius articulates with how many bones of the wrist? a. 1
b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5

A

C

87
Q

How are the carpal bones arranged?

a. 2 transverse rows of 5
b. 2 parallel rows of 5
c. 2 transverse rows of 4
d. 2 parallel rows of 4
e. Randomly

A

C

88
Q

Which of the following carpal bones is found most distally? a. Lunate

b. Scaphoid c. Triquetrum d. Hamate
e. Pisiform

A

D

89
Q

What is included in the carpal tunnel? a. A) Pisiform

b. B) Trapezium c. C) Deep fascia d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above

A

E

90
Q

The carpometacarpal joint consists of:

a. Base of metacarpal bone and distal end of carpal bone
b. Base of carpal bone and proximal end of metacarpal bone
c. Head of metacarpal bone and distal end of carpal bone
d. Head of carpal bone and proximal end of metacarpal bone
e. None of the above

A

A

91
Q

How many phalanges in each hand? a. 10

b. 12 c. 14 d. 16 e. 20

A

C

92
Q

The coxal bones unite posteriorly at a joint called:

a. Pubic symphysis
b. Bony pelvis
c. Pelvic girdle
d. Acetabulum
e. None of the above

A

E

93
Q

What is the function of the pelvic girdle?

a. A) Support for vertebral column
b. B) Attachment site for lower limbs
c. C) Aids in height
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above

A

D

94
Q

Which of the following hipbones is superior?

a. A) Ilium
b. B) Pubis
c. C) Ischium
d. Bothaandc
e. All of the above

A

A

95
Q

The auricular surface

a. Is a point of attachment for the sacroiliac ligament
b. Is a point of attachment for tendons of the iliacus muscles
c. Articulates with the sacrum
d. Is a point of attachment for the gluteal muscles
e. Articulates with the sacrum

A

C

96
Q

This is the largest foramen in the skeleton

a. Acetabulum
b. Obturator foramen
c. V ertebral foramen
d. Cranial foramen
e. None of the above

A

B

97
Q

This extends superiorly and laterally along the superior ramus to merge with the arcuate line of the ilium.

a. Iliopectineal line
b. Ischial tuberosity
c. Anterior gluteal line
d. Inferior gluteal line
e. Greater sciatic notch

A

B

98
Q

The hip joint is comprised of the

a. A) Femur
b. B) Pelvic girdle
c. C) Acetabulum
d. Bothaandb
e. Bothaandc

A

E

99
Q

This is bordered by the lumbar vertebrae posteriorly, the upper portion of the hip bones laterally and the abdominal wall anteriorly.

a. A) False pelvis
b. B) Greater pelvis
c. C) True pelvis
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above

A

D

100
Q

The pelvic inlet

a. A) Is the superior opening of the pelvic cavity
b. B) Does not contain pelvic organs
c. C) Begins posteriorly at the sacral promontory
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above

A

A

101
Q

The female pelvis is

a. Wider
b. Shallower
c. Larger in the pelvic inlet
d. Larger in the pelvic outlet
e. All of the above

A

E

102
Q

Each lower limb has

a. 30 bones in 3 location
b. 30 bones in 4 locations
c. 32 bones in 3 locations
d. 32 bones in 3 locations
e. 34 bones in 4 locations

A

B

103
Q

The shaft of the femur is slightly angled

a. Medially
b. Laterally
c. Anteriorly
d. Posteriorly
e. It is not angled at all

A

A

104
Q

Which ridge serves as an attachment point for tendons of the thigh muscles?

a. A) Gluteal tuberosity
b. B) Linea aspera
c. C) Intertrochanteric crest
d. Bothaandb
e. Bothbandc

A

D

105
Q

Which is found medially?

a. Lesser trochanter
b. Greater trochanter
c. Scaphoid
d. Radius
e. Styloid process of radius

A

A

106
Q

This is a bone that develops in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle. a. Ischium
b. Ilium c. Pubis d. Patella e. Femur

A

D

107
Q

The medial and lateral condyles of the femur fit into what part of the patella?

a. Articular facets
b. Patellofemoral joint
c. Tibiofemoral joint
d. Apex
e. None of the above

A

A

108
Q

The tibiofemoral joint includes

a. A) Femur condyles
b. B) Condyles of the tibia
c. C) Condyles of the fibula
d. Bothaandb
e. All of the above

A

D

109
Q

The shin is also known as the

a. Anterior border
b. Tibial tuberosity
c. Medial condyle
d. Tibiofemoral joint
e. Intercondylar eminence

A

A

110
Q

The lateral malleolus is found on the distal end of what bone?

a. Tibia
b. Fibula
c. Tarsal
d. Metatarsals
e. None of the above

A

B

111
Q

Which is not a tarsal bone? a. Talus

b. Calcaneus c. Navicular d. Cuneiform e. Capitate

A

E

112
Q

Which is not found in the foot?

a. Pollex
b. Hallux
c. Interphalangeal joints
d. Longitudinal arch
e. Transverse arch

A

A

113
Q

This type of joint is held together by a fibrous connective tissue.

a) A. Fibrous joint
b) B. Cartilaginous joint
c) C. Synovial joint
d) Bothaandb
e) All of the above

A

A

114
Q

This type of joint lacks a synovial cavity.

a) A. Fibrous
b) B. Cartilaginous
c) C. Synovial
d) BothAandB
e) All of the above

A

D

115
Q

This type of joint is freely movable.

a) A. Synarthrosis
b) B. Amphiarthrosis
c) C. Diarthrosis
d) Bothbandc
e) All of the above

A

C

116
Q

This is a fibrous joint composed of a thin layer of dense fibrous connective tissue.

a) A. Syndesmoses
b) B. Gomphosis
c) C. Suture
d) Bothaandb
e) None of the above

A

C

117
Q

How is a suture joint classified functionally?

a) Synarthrosis
b) Amphiarthrosis
c) Diarthrosis
d) Synovial
e) Cartilaginous

A

A

118
Q

In this type of fibrous joint, the connective tissue is arranged either as a bundle or as a sheet.

a) A. Suture
b) B. Gomphoses
c) C. Syndesmoses
d) Bothaandb
e) Bothbandc

A

C

119
Q

Another term for this joint is dentoalveolar joint. a) Syndesmoses

b) Gomphoses
c) Synchondroses d) Symphyses
e) Suture

A

B

120
Q

Which of the following can be classified as synarthrosis joints?

a) A. Gomphosis
b) B. Synchondrosis
c) C. Suture
d) Bothaandc
e) All of the above

A

E

121
Q

An example of this type of joint is the epiphyseal plate. a) Gomphosis

b) Suture
c) Symphysis
d) Synovial
e) Synchondrosis

A

E

122
Q

The joint between the first rib and the manubrium of the sternum is classified as

a) Synchondrosis
b) Synarthrosis
c) Cartilaginous joint
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

A

D

123
Q

Where do symphyses occur?

a) Upper limbs
b) Lower limbs
c) Axial skeleton
d) Ankles
e) Knees

A

C

124
Q

Synovial joints do NOT

a) Include a cavity
b) Are freely moveable
c) Have bones covered in hyaline cartilage
d) include elastic cartilage
e) have ligaments

A

D

125
Q

Which of the following is made from dense regular connective tissue?

a) Ligaments
b) Fibrous capsule of articular cartilage
c) Articular fat pads
d) Synovial membrane
e) Synovial fluid

A

A

126
Q

Examples of these include the fibular and tibial collateral ligaments of the knee joint.

a) Synovial membranes
b) Articular fat pads
c) Menisci
d) Extracapsular ligaments
e) Tendon sheath

A

D

127
Q

Another term for menisci are

a) Articular fat pads
b) Articular discs
c) Articular spaces
d) Capsular fat pads
e) Capsular discs

A

B

128
Q

Articular discs

a) A. Maintain the stability of a joint
b) B. Direct flow of the synovial fluid
c) C. Are made of hyaline cartilage
d) D. Are only found in the vertebral column
e) Bothaandb

A

E

129
Q

This is used to reduce friction in joints.

a) A. Bursae
b) B. Synovial fluid
c) C. Accessory ligaments
d) D. Elastic fibers
e) Bothaandb

A

E

130
Q

Which of the following is not used to reduce friction at joints?

a) Tendon sheaths
b) Synovial fluid
c) Bursae
d) Menisci
e) All of the above reduce friction

A

D

131
Q

This type of motion results from relatively flat bone surfaces moving back and forth and from side to side with respect to one another.

a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Gliding
d) Circumduction
e) Hyperextension

A

C

132
Q

This is a type of movement where there is a decrease in the angle between articulating bones.

a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Gliding
d) Circumduction e) Rotation

A

A

133
Q

Bending the trunk forward at the intervertebral discs is an example of what type of angular movement?

a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Lateral flexion
d) Hyperextension
e) None of the above

A

A

134
Q

Flexion and extension usually occur along which plane?

a) Frontal
b) Transverse
c) Sagittal
d) Oblique
e) None of the above

A

C

135
Q

Examples of this type of movement include moving the humerus laterally at the shoulder joint.

a) Lateral flexion
b) Hyperextension
c) Adduction
d) Abduction
e) Gliding

A

D

136
Q

This type of movement is a continuous sequence of flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction.

a) Gliding
b) Lateral flexion
c) Hyperextension
d) Circumduction
e) Elevation

A

D

137
Q

Which of the following is not considered a special movement?

a) Depression
b) Protraction
c) Elevation
d) Supination
e) All of the above are special movements

A

E

138
Q

Which of the following bones can NOT be elevated or depressed? a) Hyoid

b) Clavicle c) Ribs
d) Maxilla e) Mandible

A

D

139
Q

What type of movement can be seen in your clavicles at your acromioclavicular and sternoclavicular joints by crossing your arms?
a) Protraction b) Retraction c) Inversion d) Eversion e) Supination

A

A

140
Q

This special movement occurs when you stand on your heels.

a) Inversion
b) Eversion
c) Dorsiflexion
d) Plantar flexion
e) Supination

A

C

141
Q

This special movement includes the ability of your thumb to move across the palm to touch the tips of the fingers on the same hand.

a) Pronation
b) Supination
c) Eversion
d) Retraction
e) None of the above

A

E

142
Q

Which of the following is not a structural category of synovial joint? a) Planar

b) Hinge
c) Condyloid d) Inversion e) Saddle

A

D

143
Q

In this type of joint, the rounded or pointed surface of one bone articulates with a ring formed partly by another bone and partly by a ligament.

a) Pivot joint
b) Planar joint
c) Hinge joint
d) Ball-and-socket joint
e) Saddle joint

A

A

144
Q

A condyloid joint

a) Is also called ellipsoidal
b) Is biaxial
c) Can have flexion–extension or abduction–adduction
d) Found in the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints for the second through fifth digits
e) All of the above

A

E

145
Q

This refers to the range through which the bones of a joint can be moved.

a) Axial
b) Biaxial
c) Multiaxial
d) Range of motion
e) Disuse

A

D

146
Q

Which of the following is not a factor in affecting range of motion?

a) Structure of articulating bones
b) Tension of the muscles
c) Hormones
d) Disuse
e) Mineral homeostasis

A

E

147
Q

How much of the total body weight of the average adult is muscle tissue? a) 20-30%
b) 30-40% c) 40-50% d) 50-60% e) 60-70%

A

C

148
Q

The different types of muscle tissue differ from each other by: a) A. Microscopic anatomy

b) B. Location
c) C. Type of Control
d) Bothaandb
e) All of the above

A

E

149
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major function of muscle tissue.

a) Moving blood throughout the body
b) Generating heat through contractions
c) Stopping the movement of joints
d) Promoting movement of body structures
e) Storing energy

A

E

150
Q

This is the property of muscle that gives it the ability to stretch without damage.

a) Electrical excitability
b) Contractility
c) Extensibility
d) Elasticity
e) Thermogenesis

A

C

151
Q

In an isometric contraction the muscle develops tension but does not

a) Lengthen
b) Widen
c) Shorten
d) Conduct electrical current
e) Exhibit elasticity

A

C

152
Q

This is a band of connective tissue that surrounds muscles. a) Tendon

b) Ligament
c) Endomysium d) Epimysium e) Perimysium

A

D

153
Q
When
a) Perimysium
connective tissue extends as a broad flat layer, the tendon is referred to as
b) Deep fascia
c) Fascicle
d) Aponeurosis
e) Endomysium
A

D

154
Q

For every nerve that penetrates a skeletal muscle there are general how many arteries and veins?

a) One artery and one or two veins
b) Two arteries and two veins
c) Three arteries and two veins
d) One artery and three veins
e) One artery and a varied amount of veins

A

A

155
Q

Axon terminal clusters at the ends of neuromuscular junctions are referred to as:

a) Myelin bulbs
b) Neuromuscular bulbs
c) Synaptic end bulbs
d) Axon collateral bulb
e) Tubule bulb

A

C

156
Q

After the fusion of myoblasts, the muscle fiber loses its ability to do what?

a) Grow
b) Lengthen
c) Contract
d) Go through mitosis
e) All of the above

A

D

157
Q

The sequence that muscle action potentials must go through to excite a muscle cell

a) Sarcolemma, axon of neuron, T tubules
b) T tubules, sarcolemma, myofilament
c) Muscle fiber, axon of neuron, myofibrils
d) Axon of neuron, sarcolemma, T tubules
e) Myofibrils, myofilaments, mitochondria

A

D

158
Q

The mitochondria in muscle fiber are arranged

a) Randomly
b) In circles
c) Around the nuclei
d) In rows
e) Closest to the sarcolemma

A

E

159
Q
These
a) Myofibrils
are the contractile organelles of the muscle fiber.
b) Myoglobin
c) Mitochondria
d) Z disc
e) M line
A

A

160
Q

This part of the skeletal muscle cell releases calcium when stimulated by the T tubules.

a) Myofibrils
b) Sarcoplasm
c) Terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum
d) Sarcomeres
e) None of the above

A

C

161
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum is used for storing a) Oxygen

b) ATP c) PO4- d) Na+ e) Ca+

A

E

162
Q

Which of the following contain thin filaments

a) A. I band
b) B. A band
c) C. H zone
d) Bothaandb
e) All of the above

A

D

163
Q

Which of the following contain thick filament?

a) A. Zone of overlap
b) B. A band
c) C. H zone
d) Bothbandc
e) All of the above

A

E

164
Q

Myofibrils contain

a) Contractile proteins
b) Regulatory proteins
c) Structural proteins
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

A

D

165
Q

Which of the following functions as a motor protein in all three types of muscle tissue?

a) Actin
b) Myosin
c) Troponin
d) Titin
e) Tropomyosin

A

B

166
Q

What regulatory proteins can be found on an actin molecule? a) Troponin and Titin

b) Tropomyosin and Troponin c) Myosin and Titin
d) Titin and Tropomyosin
e) Titin and Actin

A

B

167
Q

Titin is found in a sarcomere

a) In the A band only
b) In the H zone only
c) From Z disc to Z disc
d) From M line to Z disc
e) In the I band only

A

D

168
Q

Which of the following is used to reinforce the sarcolemma? a) Troponin

b) Tropomyosin c) Myosin
d) Actin
e) Dystrophin

A

E

169
Q

In the sliding filament mechanism, the thin filament is being pulled towards the

a) Z disc
b) sarcolemma
c) M line
d) A band
e) I band

A

C

170
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions into the cytosol

a) At the beginning of a contraction
b) Throughout the entire contraction
c) During the midpoint only of the contraction
d) After the contraction ends
e) All of the above

A

A

171
Q

What energizes the myosin head? a) The actin filaments

b) Calcium ions
c) Potassium ions
d) A TP hydrolysis reaction e) ADP synthesis

A

D

172
Q

What is needed for the contraction cycle to continue? a) Ca

b) ATP
c) ACh
d) All of the above

A

D

173
Q

This results from a muscle action potential propagating along the sarcolemma and into the T tubules.

a) Summation
b) Relaxation
c) Excitation
d) Release channel
e) A TP hydrolysis

A

C

174
Q

The signal to excite a muscle cell must cross the neuromuscular junction by the diffusion of acetylcholine across the

a) Motor neuron axon
b) Synaptic cleft
c) Sarcolemma
d) Synaptic vesicles
e) Myofibril

A

B

175
Q

How many molecules of acetylcholine need to bind to open the ion channel of the ACh receptor?

a) 100
b) More than 1000
c) 10
d) An unknown amount
e) None of the above

A

B

176
Q

How do muscles produce ATP?

a) Creatine phosphate
b) Anaerobic cellular respiration
c) Aerobic cellular respiration
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

A

D

177
Q

Creatine phosphate and ATP together create enough energy for a muscle to contract for

a) 15 seconds
b) 15 minutes
c) 1.5 minutes
d) Less than 5 seconds
e) One minute

A

A

178
Q

This consists of a somatic motor neuron plus all the skeletal muscle fibers it stimulates.

a) Sarcomere
b) Motor unit
c) Neuromuscular junction
d) Somatic motor neuron
e) Muscle fiber

A

B

179
Q

This is a brief contraction of all muscle fibers in a motor unit in response to a single action potential.

a) Recovery oxygen uptake
b) Motor unit movement
c) Muscle fatigue
d) Refractory period
e) Twitch contraction

A

E

180
Q

This is also referred to as the period of lost excitability.

a) Refractory period
b) Contraction period
c) Latent period
d) Relaxation period
e) Wave summation

A

A

181
Q

A sustained contraction is

a) Myogram
b) Muscle tone
c) Flaccid
d) Tetanus
e) Twitch

A

D

182
Q

Increasing the number of active motor units is called

a) Wave summation
b) Fused tetanus
c) Motor unit recruitment
d) Muscle tone
e) Flaccid

A

C

183
Q

This is the least powerful type of muscle fiber.

a) Slow oxidative fiber
b) Fast oxidative fibers
c) Fast glycolytic fiber
d) Slow glycolytic fibers
e) None of the above

A

A

184
Q

Which of the below structures is found in cardiac muscle tissue but not skeletal muscle tissue?

a) Myosin
b) Tropomysoin
c) Sarcomeres
d) Intercalated discs
e) Striations

A

D

185
Q

Which of the following exhibits autorhythmicity?

a) Cardiac muscle fibers
b) Actin fibers
c) Mutli-unit smooth muscle fibers
d) Intermediate fibers
e) All of the above

A

A

186
Q

Smooth muscle tone is due to the prolonged presence of what in the cytosol?

a) ATP
b) Calcium ions
c) Phosphate ions
d) Myoglobin
e) None of the above

A

B

187
Q

Hyperplasia is

a) An increase in the size of muscle fibers
b) A decrease in the size of muscle fibers
c) An increase in the number of muscle fibers
d) A decrease in the number of muscle fibers
e) None of the above

A

C

188
Q

Most muscles cross at least one

a. tendon
b. joint
c. bone
d. ligament
e. body plane

A

B

189
Q

The attachment of a muscles tendon to the stationary bone is called the ______; the attachment of the muscles other tendon to the movable bone is called ______.

a. origin, action
b. insertion, action
c. origin, insertion
d. insertion, origin
e. insertion, action

A

C

190
Q

This is an inflammation of the synovial membrane surrounding a joint.

a. tenosynovitis
b. tendonitis
c. synovitis
d. tendon inflammation
e. capsule inflammation

A

A

191
Q

A lever is acted on at two different points by two different forces which are

a. fulcrum and resistance
b. leverage and load
c. lever and resistance
d. effort and load
e. lever and effort

A

D

192
Q

Motion will occur in a muscle when the ______ supplied exceeds the _______.

a. effort, load
b. resistance, lever
c. load, effort
d. load, resistance
e. lever, effort

A

A

193
Q

Which of the following is not a fascicle arrangement? a. pennate

b. triangular c. oval
d. parallel e. fusiform

A

C

194
Q

This type of fascicle arrangement has the fascicles spread over a broad area and converges at a thick central tendon.

a. triangular
b. pennate
c. circular
d. fusiform
e. multipennate

A

A

195
Q

What is another name for a prime mover? a. antagonist

b. agonist
c. synergist d. asynergist e. fixator

A

B

196
Q

This type of muscle works by stabilizing the origin of a prime mover so that it can act more efficiently.

a. synergist
b. agonist
c. antagonist
d. fixator
e. secondary mover

A

D

197
Q

Which of the following is not one of the descriptive ways to name a muscle?

a. Size
b. Shape
c. Number of origins
d. Sites of origins
e. Number of cells

A

E