Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Abnormal OB > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

when does fetal face development begin?

A

week 4 of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when does completion of major events occur with the face?

A

12 weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what do the complex process involve in the fetal face?

A
  • ectoderm
  • mesoderm
  • endoderm
  • neural crest cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 5 prominences that form the fetal face?

A 
Frontonasal 
Lateral nasal 
Medial nasal 
Maxillary 
Mandibular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is in the frontonasal prominence?

A

forhead and dorsum apex of nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is in the lateral nasal prominence?

A

nasal ala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is in the medial nasal prominence?

A

nasal septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is in the maxillary prominence?

A

upper cheecks and upper lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is in the mandibular prominence?

A

lower cheeck, lower lip, and chin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is seen on the sagital veiw of the fetal face?

A

nasal bone and madible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is seen on the modified sagital veiw of the fetal face?

A

palate and ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is seen on the coronal veiw of the fetal face?

A

orbit and lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is seen on the modified coronal veiw of the fetal face?

A

nose and lips, palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is seen on the transverse veiw of the fetal face?

A

mandible, maxillary, orbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is in the profile image?

A 
Forehead
 Nasal Bone
 Nasal tip
 Upper lip
 Lower lip
 Chin
 Anterior neck
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

facial angle decreases with what?

A

an increase in CRL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when measuring fetal facial angle, how do we modify our image?

A

magnify so fetal head and thorax occupy the whole image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the mid-sagital view of the face defined by?

A
  • Presence of the echogenic tip of the nose
  • Rectangular shape of the palate anteriorly
  • Translucent diencephalon in the centre
  • Nuchal membrane posteriorly.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how is the facial angle measured?

A

Between a line along the upper surface of the palate and a line along the upper corner of the anterior aspect of the maxilla extending to the external surface of the forehead, represented by the frontal bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does an increase in facial angle mean?

A

increased risk of triploidy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is encephalocele?

A

Abnormal protrusion of the brain and/or meninges through a defect in the skull or calvarium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is encephalocele associated with?

A

hypertelorism and midline facial clefting (an opening or gap in theface, or a malformation of a part of the face).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is proboscis?

A

A trunk-like soft tissue appendage situated between the orbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is proboscic associated with?

A

alobar holoprosencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is cyclopia?

A

fetus has only one single orbital fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is Dacryocystocele?

A

congenital obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct, resulting in cystic dilatation of the proximal part of the duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is hypotelorism?

A

Abnormally small distance between the orbits

-decreased inter-orbital diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is hypotelorism associated with?

A
  • Alobar holoprosencephaly
  • Cyclopia (single midline eye)
  • Absence of the nose
  • Proboscis
  • Trisomy 13 (also 18 and 21)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is hypertelorism?

A

Increased separation of the orbits

-Abnormal increase in inter-orbital diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is hypertelorism associated with?

A

anterior encephaloceles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is anophthalmia?

A

unilateral or bilateral absence of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

anophthalmia demonstrates an orbital diameter below what?

A

5th percentile for gestatonal age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

hypoplastic or absent nasal bone is seen with increase of what?

A

incidece with trisomy 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

why does cleft lip and cleft palate happen?

A

Usually result from the failure of the fusion of the medial nasal prominences and the maxillary prominences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is cleft lip and palate associated with?

A
  • chromosomal anomalies (trisomy 13 and 18)
  • structural abnormalties (heart, CNS)
  • familial (recurrance risk dependant on the number of family members affected)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what does a cleft lip involve?

A

opening from the upper lip to one or both nostrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

with a cleft in the palate, the opening in the roof of the mouth is__________

A

split

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

macroglossia

A

enlarged tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how may macroglossia appear?

A

protuberant extending from the oral cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is macroglossia associated with?

A 
Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome
-Macrosomia
-Macroglossia
-Omphalocele
-anomalies
Trisomy 21
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Micrognathia

A

small chin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Retrognathia

A

poorly displaced chin

-associated with trisomies 13 and 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Agnathia

A

absence of the lower jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is Agnathia associated with?

A

otocephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are improper alignment of the ear associated with?

A
  • noonan syndrome

- trisomies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are thickened NT in 1st trimester associated with?

A
  • Fetal aneuploidy
  • Cardiac defects
  • Other major malformations
  • Adverse pregnancy outcomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is nuchal fold thickening?

A

abnormal thickening of the fetal skin in the dorsal portion of the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how to meaure nuchal fold?

A

outer edge of occipital bone to the outer edge of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what measurement is associated with increased risk of trisomy 21 with NF?

A

over 6mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what kind of malformation is a cystic hygroma?

A

lymphatic malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is a cystic hygroma?

A

septated fluid collecton behind the fetal neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is cystic hygroma associated with?

A
  • Turner Syndrome (XO)
  • Chromosomal abnormalities
  • Cardiac structural abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the most common tumour in neonates?

A

teratomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

where are most teratomas located?

A

sacrum or coccyx (5% arise in the neck)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is a cystic teratoma?

A

Complex masses composed of both cystic and solid elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what does a cystic teratoma look like?

A
  • May have regions of calcifications
  • Solid components are vascular
  • May involve the thyroid gland
  • May impinge on the airway, interfere with fetal swallowing and result in polyhydramnios
  • May cause hyperextension of fetal neck
  • May protrude from the mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Neural tube defects (NTD) may be either _________

A

open (increases Maternal Serum AFP and amniotic fluid AFP) or closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is macrocephaly?

A

larger than expected head size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

why may macrocephaly occur?

A

family history of large heads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the goal of macrocephaly when scanning?

A

Exclude any intracranial abnormalities that may cause an increase in fetal head size
Ex. hydrocephalus, intracranial tumour or macrosomia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is microcephaly?

A

smaller than expected head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what distinguishes microcephaly from anencephaly and encephalocele?

A

intact calvarium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is microcephaly accociated with?

A

abnormal neurologic and subnormal intellectual development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the etiology of microcephaly?

A

Fetal infections
Anoxia
Chromosomal abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what are the key sonographic features of microcephaly?

A

-An abnormally small head size, defined as a BPD or HC 2 or 3 standard deviations below the mean expected for GA (usually 3 SD below the mean)
-Abnormal fetal biometric ratio (3 or more SD) may also be helpful for the sonographic diagnosis of microcephaly.
High FL/HC
Low HC/AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is brachycephaly?

A

head is rounder than usual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is brachycephaly associated with?

A

multiple pregnancy (intrauterine crowding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is dolichocephaly?

A

-Narrow BPD and a long occipitofrontal diameter (OFD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is dolichocephaly associated with?

A

oligohydramnios but can be due to Breech position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the lemon sign?

A

Describes a fetal head with bilateral denting of the frontal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is lemon sign associated with?

A

spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the clover leaf skull?

A

describes a tri-lobes appearance of the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is clover leaf skull associated with?

A
  • thanatophoric dysplasia

- homozygous achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is a strawberry skull?

A

describes a fetal head with a normal BPD and a narrow frontal diamter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how is strawberry shaped skull different from lemon sign?

A

Similar to Lemon Sign except for no obvious concavity to the frontal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what is strawberry shaped skull associated with?

A

Tri 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is spalding sign?

A

Describes a flattened and misshapen fetal head with overlapping of cranial bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is spalding sign associated with?

A

fetal demise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

when may fetal demise happen with spalding sign?

A

estimates place the precise time of fetal death at about 4–7 days before overlapping and separation of the fetal skull bones appear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what should the normal fetal scalp thickness be?

A

<3mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is scalp edema?

A

Manifestation of fetal hydrops and is seen as scalp thickening
(>3mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what are choroid plexus cysts?

A

Cysts arise from neuroepithelial folds in the choroid plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is the most common site for chorios plexus cysts?

A

arterial region of lateral ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is the typical appearance of choroid plexus cysts?

A
  • Unilateral
  • Spherical anechoic
  • Relatively small (Range: 1 to 20 mm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

when are choroid plexus cysts usually seen?

A

16-24 weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what is the treatment for choroid plexus cysts?

A

majortiy regress and disappear spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what may choroid plexus be associated with?

A

tri-18 and tri-21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

true or false, agenesis of the corpus collosum is only complete?

A

false, can be partial or complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is agenesis of the corpus collosum most commonly associated with?

A

Dandy Walker Malformation (DWM)

90
Q

what are the key sonographic features of agenesis of the corpus collosum (ACC)?

A
  • Absence of cavum septum pellucidum

- Colpocephaly (Disproportionate prominence of the occipital horns of the lateral ventricles).

91
Q

what excludes ACC?

A

presence of CSP

92
Q

what is the best view to diagnose ACC?

A

midline sagital view

93
Q

what are intracranial calcifications (ICC) most commonly the result of?

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

fetal viral infection

94
Q

where are ICC’s most often located?

A

bordering the wall of the lateral ventricles

95
Q

what are ICC’s associated with?

A

brain tumor-teratoma

96
Q

what do ICC’s appear as?

A

abnormal aggregates of high amplitude echoes with or without acoustic shadowing depending on beam resolution

97
Q

what is a frequent complication of brain tumors?

A

hydracephalus

98
Q

descrie teratoma

A
  • Most common
  • Contain a wide variety of tissue types
  • Benign but have malignant potential
  • May resemble a hemorrhage
99
Q

what is the vein of Galen or straight sinus?

A

major draining vein that lies in the transverse fissure within the subarachnoid space - posterior and slightly superior to the thalami.

100
Q

descrobe the vein of galen aneurysm?

A

A congenital aneurysm of the vein of Galen is a very uncommon anomaly but one with a pathognomonic sonographic and Doppler appearance. (if you see this sign, you know is the vein of galan anerysum)

101
Q

what is a pathognomonicsign?

A

a particular sign whose presence means that a particular disease is present beyond any doubt.

102
Q

how does a vein of galen aneurysm appear?

A
  • fusiform median cyst in the region of the transverse fissure immediately superior to the cerebellum
  • Doppler evaluation of the aneurysm demonstrates abnormal, turbulent Doppler signals within the aneurysm
103
Q

characteristic doppler signals associated with shunting?

A
  • turbulent
  • high velocity
  • low resistance flow between the feeding artery and the draining vein
104
Q

what is acrania?

A

Acrania is identified on U/S by absence of normal cranial vault with a normal appearing or disorganized brain above the orbits (Seen best: sagittal midline CRL view of the fetus).

105
Q

what are differential diagnosis of acrania?

A

conditions in which the cranial bones are absent or lack mineralization:

  • Amniotic band sequence
  • Large encephaloceles
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta
  • Hypophosphatasia
106
Q

what is anencephaly?

A

Absence of the cranial vault, cerebral hemispheres and diencephalic structures and replaced by a flattened amorphous vascular mass

107
Q

what is present in anencephaly?

A

facial structures and orbits

108
Q

what is the most reliable sonographic sign of anencephaly?

A

Failure to identify normal cranial morphology and brain tissue above the orbits

109
Q

what is a sign of anechaphy?

A

exophthalmos

110
Q

what is cephalocele?

A

herniation of intracranial structures through a defect in cranium

111
Q

what is a cranial meningocele?

A

If the cephalocele contains only meninges and CSF

112
Q

what is an encephalocele or meningoenceohalocele?

A

If the cephalocele also contains brain tissue

113
Q

do cephaloceles covered by normal scalp tissues cause an increase in maternal AFP?

A

no

114
Q

what is the sonographic feature of encephalocele?

A

cystic mass at the surface of the skull, typically in the midline.

115
Q

what are the differential diagnosis of Cephalocele and Encephalocele?

A
  • Cystic hygroma
  • Branchial cleft cyst (epithelial cyst that arises on the lateral part of the neck due to failure of obliteration of the second branchial cleft)
  • Epidermal scalp cyst
  • Cervical teratoma
  • Scalp edema or cephalohematoma (hemorrhageofbloodbetween theskulland theperiosteum)
  • Dacryocystocele: result of narrowing nasolacriminal duct
116
Q

what is Ventriculomegaly?

A

Dilation of the cerebral ventricles without defining the cause. Fetal head is normal, enlarged, or even small for GA

117
Q

what are the most common causes of ventriculomegaly (VM)?

A
  • Arnold-Chiari malformation (the 3rd and 4th ventricle and both lateral ventricles are dilated)
  • Open neural tube defects
  • Congenital double aqueductal stenosis (3rd ventricle and both lateral ventricles)
  • Dandy-Walker malformation
118
Q

is Ventriculomegaly usually bilateral or unilateral?

A

bilateral

119
Q

what is the best indicator of VM?

A

atrial measurment

120
Q

what is Hydrocephalus or Hydrocephaly?

A

Increased intracranial pressure usually due to a lesion causing obstruction of the Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) pathway

121
Q

what is holoprosencephaly?

A

It is the failure of division of the prosencephalon (fore brain) resulting in varying degree of prosencephalon midline defects.
- Incomplete separation of the two hemispheres.

122
Q

what is the clinical presentation of holoprosencephaly?

A

It is usually obvious at birth even if antenatal diagnosis has not been made, due to associated midline facial anomalies including:

  • Proboscis
  • Cyclopia
  • Cleft lip and / or palate
  • Ocular hypotelorism
  • Solitary median maxillary central incisor
123
Q

what is holoprosencephaly associated with (aneuploidic)?

A
  • MOST COMMONLY trisomy 13

- trisomy 18

124
Q

what is holoprosencephaly associated with (non-aneuploidic)?

A
  • Congenital renal anomalies
  • Congenital cardiac anomalies
  • Diabetic embryopathy
  • Facial anomalies
  • Shprintzen syndrome
125
Q

describe what Alobar holoprosencephaly is?

A
  • Thalami are fused

- Single large posteriorly located ventricle

126
Q

what is alobar holoprosencephaly associated with?

A

facial abnormalities such as:

  • cyclopia
  • ethmocephaly
  • cebocephaly
  • median cleft lip.
127
Q

what is semi-lobar holoprosencephaly?

A
  • Basic structure of the cerebral lobes are present: most commonly fused anteriorly and at the thalami
  • Olfactory tracts and bulbs are usually not present
  • Agenesis or hypoplasia of the corpus callosum.
128
Q

what is Lobar holoprosencephaly?

A
  • Least affected sub type
  • More subtle areas of midline abnormalities such as: fusion of the cingulate gyrus and thalami
  • Olfactory tracts are absent or hypoplastic
  • May be hypoplasia or absence of the corpus callosum
129
Q

what is the prognosis of holoprosencephaly?

A

The prognosis is dependant on the type of holoprosencephaly - almost all alobar and semilobar forms incompatible with a extra uterine life.

130
Q

what is the most common holoprosencephaly?

A

alobar

131
Q

what does alobar holoprosencephaly have an absent of?

A

midline structures (falx cerebri, corpus collosum, septi pellucidi)

132
Q

what is alobar holoprosencephaly associated with?

A

tri-13

133
Q

what is the sonographic findings of holoprosencephaly?

A
  • Enlarged monoventricular cavity with fused thalami with absence of the supra tentorial midline structure.
  • Choroid plexus is usually compressed and difficult to visualize.
134
Q

what is Hydranencephaly characterized by?

A

Gross ventriculomegaly due to complete or near complete absence of cerebral tissue

135
Q

is Hydranencephaly related to hyracephalus and anencephaly?

A

no

136
Q

what does Hydranencephaly appear as?

A

Absence of the cerebral hemispheres with an incomplete or absent falx and a sac-like structure containing cerebral spinal fluid surrounding the brainstem and basal ganglia.

137
Q

what is not affected in Hydranencephaly?

A
  • brain stem
  • cerebellum
  • cisterna magna
138
Q

what is the key sonographic feature for Hydranencephaly?

A

large cranial fluid collection lacking a mantle or rim of cerebral brain tissue (which is present in hydrocephalus).

139
Q

what is Schizencephaly?

A

Clefts in the cerebral mantle (usually bilateral), lined by pia-ependyma, with communication between the ventricles and subarachnoid space.

140
Q

what could Schizencephaly be the result of?

A

middle cerebral artery infarction or focal migration disorder

141
Q

what does Schizencephaly look like?

A

Pie-shaped areas of cystic necrosis extending to the calvarium

142
Q

what is Schizencephaly associated with?

A
  • absence of septum pellucidum
  • septo-optic displasia
  • dysgeneresis of corpus callosum
143
Q

what is dandy-walker malformation (DWM) and varients?

A

complete agenesis of cerebellar vermis resulting in a large central posterior fossa cyst, which communicates with the fourth ventricle (dilated).

144
Q

what is DWM associated with?

A

other CNC abnormalities including hydrocephalus (80% of cases) and agenesis of the corpus collosum

145
Q

what are the features of DWM?

A

A malformation of the roof of the fourth ventricle and of the cerebellum. The cerebellum is poorly developed and is displaced upwards and laterally.
-The enlarged fourth ventricle balloons out backward and is grossly misshapen

146
Q

what is DWM associated with?

A

atresia of the foramen of Magendie and, possibly, the foramen of Luschka

147
Q

what do true retrocerebellar arachnoid cysts do?

A

displace the fourth ventricle and cerebellum anteriorly and show significant mass effect

148
Q

what are retrocerebellar arachnoid cysts?

A

benign cysts that occur in the cerebrospinal axis in relation to the arachnoid membrane and that do not communicate with the ventricular system

149
Q

what are primary (congenital) arachnoid cysts?

A

result from benign accumulation of clear fluid between the dura and the brain substance throughout the CNS - related to the arachnoid membrane and do not communicate with the subarachnoid space

150
Q

what are secondary (aquired) arachnoid cyst?

A

result from haemorrhage, trauma, and infection and usually communicate with the subarachnoid space

151
Q

what are Porencephaly (Porencephalic Cysts)

A

Extremely rare congenital disorder

Results in cystic degeneration and encephalomalacia and the formation of porecephalic cysts

152
Q

what are what are Porencephaly (Porencephalic Cysts) caused by?

A

infarction or hemorrhage into brain parenchyma due to insult in utero (abruption, trauma, infection) causing focal or widespread ischemia

153
Q

Porencephaly (Porencephalic Cysts) are a less sever form of?

A

hydranencephaly

154
Q

what is arnold-chiari malformation characterized by?

A

prolapse of hindbrain structures below the level of the foramen magnum

155
Q

what is type 1 of arnold-chiari malformation?

A

just a lip of cerebellum is downwardly displaced with the tonsils, but the fourth ventricle remains in the posterior fossa. This is mainly an incidental CT discovery.

156
Q

what is type 2 of arnold-chiari malformation?

A

: usually involved in prenatal cases and is a congenital deformity characterized by displacement of cerebellar tonsils, parts of the cerebellum, fourth ventricle, pons, and medulla oblongata through the foramen magnum into the spinal canal

157
Q

in 95% of arnold-chiaari malformations what is it accompanied by?

A

hydrocephalus and myelomeningocele.

158
Q

what is type 3 of arnold-chiari malformation?

A

more severe form, with large herniation of the posterior fossa content and myelomeningocele and hydrocephalus.

159
Q

what is banana sign associated with?

A

arnold-chiari malformation

160
Q

what are associated anomalies for arnold-chiari malformation?

A
  • Hydrocephaly from obstruction of the foramina of Magendie
  • Syringomyelia
  • Diastematomyelia
161
Q

what are most congenital spinal problems a result of?

A

defective closure of the neural tube during 4TH WEEK of embryonic development

162
Q

what do neural tube defects (NTD’s) also involve?

A

tissues overlying the spinal cord:

  • meninges
  • vertebral arch
  • muscles
  • skin
163
Q

what do neural tube defects elevate?

A

AFP

164
Q

what is spinal dysraphism?

A

is a broad medical term given to a group of anomalies that relate to:

  • Malformations in the dorsum of the embryo.
  • Neurological disorders related to malformations of the spinal cord.
165
Q

what are some neurological disorders related to malformations of the spinal cord?

A
  • NTDs fall under this group.
  • Failed fusion of dorsal spinal elements.
  • The spinal cord may become excessively wide because of abnormal fat or fibrous tissue lying inside the spinal canal.
  • Leg, bladder, or bowel function may also be affected.
166
Q

open spinal dysraphism?

A
  • Meningocele

- Myelomeningocoele

167
Q

closed spinal dysraphism?

A
  • Spinal dermal sinus
  • Lipomyelomeningcoele
  • Diastematomyelia
  • Neurentric cysts
  • Thickened filum terminale
168
Q

Spinal dermal sinus

A

an epithelium-lined tract from the skin to the spinal cord, cauda equina, or arachnoid.

169
Q

Lipomyelomeningcoele

A

usually presents as a subcutaneous fatty mass just above the intergluteal cleft.

170
Q

Diastematomyelia

A

split cordmalformation

171
Q

Neurentric cysts

A

type offoregut duplication cyst, associatedeitherwith vertebral or CNS abnormalities. They most commonly occur in the thoracic region.

172
Q

Thickened filum terminale

A

thickened fatty filum terminale

173
Q

what is tight filum terminale syndrome caused by?

A

incomplete involution of the distal spinal cord during embryogenesis.

174
Q

what does tight filum terminale syndrome lead to?

A

development of an abnormally thickenedfilum terminale, which may be associated with lipomas or cysts within the filum

175
Q

what is tight filum terminale syndrome always associated with?

A

spinal cord tetheringand an abnormally positioned conus medullaris: below L2-3 (normal range: L1-L2)

176
Q

what are the clinical symtoms of tight filum terminale syndrome?

A

Neurologic deficiencies, pain or dysesthesia, and bladder or bowel dysfunction.
-Due to stretching of the spinal cord resulting in vascular insufficiency at the level of theconus medullaris.

177
Q

what are common findings for tight filum terminale syndrome?

A

associated verterbral body deformities and spina bifida

178
Q

what does tight filum terminale syndrome show on US?

A
  • abnormally thickened filum terminale

- the diameter of the filum terminale exceeds 2 mm (normal range, 0.5–2 mm) at the level of L5-S1

179
Q

what is tethered spinal cord a form of?

A

spinal dysraphism

180
Q

what happens in tethered spinal cord?

A

spinal cord is attached to surrounding tissue

181
Q

how is tethered spinal cord diagnosed?

A

detection of certain skin abnormalities along the midline of the back.

182
Q

what is spina bifida?

A

Neural tube defects (NTDs) involving the vertebral arches

183
Q

what are common to all types of spina bifida?

A

Non-fusion of the embryonic halves of the vertebral arches

184
Q

what is spina bifida occulta?

A

closed

  • Dorsal vertebrae not fused (but no underlying structures protrude through defect)
  • Often tuft of hair/dermal lesion over affeced area
185
Q

what is spina bifida aperta=cystica?

A

open

-defect of skin, underlying soft tissue, and vertebral arches

186
Q

Meningocele

A

meningeal membrane and CSF protrude through defect in vertebral arch (note: skin mostly intact)

187
Q

Myelomeningocele

A

meningeal membrane, CSF, and neural tissue (spinal cord) protrude through defect (note: skin partly covers defect)

188
Q

Myeloschisis

A

open, flattened spinal cord, exposed through a wide defect in the posterior neural arch + defect in musculature and skin (no skin or meningeal covering

189
Q

Rachischisis

A

Complete Spina Bifida) – cleft through entire spine from cervical to sacral region – open, flattened spinal cord (note: entire spinal cord is exposed)

190
Q

what is the indication if spina bifida occulta (closed)?

A

dimple, tuft of hair, or a red mark on the back

191
Q

what is the most severe and common spina bifida?

A

myelomeningocele

192
Q

Cystica

A

Involving protrusion of the meninges and spinal cord through the defect in the posterior vertebral arch.

193
Q

Spina Bifida with meningocele

A

If the mass contains only meninges with CSF

194
Q

what is the mildest form of spina bifida?

A

cystica

195
Q

where do the meninges protrude in cystica?

A

Meninges protrudeunder the skinthrough the cleft in the malformedvertebral arch

196
Q

Spina Bifida with meningomyelocele

A

If the spinal cord and/or nerve roots protrude in the mass

197
Q

what is the most severe form of myelomeningocele?

A

spina bifida with myeloschisis

198
Q

what does myeloschisis appear as?

A

a flattened, plate-like mass of nervous tissue with no overlying membrane.

199
Q

what can myeloschisis result in?

A

some degree ofparalysisand loss of sensation below the level of the spinal cord defect

200
Q

what is the most severe form of spina bifida aperta?

A

myeloschisis (rachischisis)

201
Q

how does myeloschisis (rachischisis)appear?

A

nerve tissue is fully bare and a dermal or meningeal covering is absent

202
Q

what do many individuals with spina bifida have?

A

an associated abnormality of thecerebellum, called theArnold Chiari II malformation.

203
Q

in 90% of people with myelomeningocele, what may occur with the brain?

A

hydrocephalus because of displaced cerebellum interfering with normal flow of cerebrospinal fluid

204
Q

with spina bifida the ___________ is abnnormally developed in 70-90% of individuas?

A

corpus collosum

205
Q

what are the sonographic signs of spina bifida?

A
  • Nonvisualization of cisterna magna
  • Deformation of cerebellum (banana sign)
  • Concave frontal bones (lemon sign)
  • Dilation of lateral ventricles
  • Chiari II malformation (97%)
  • Biparietal diameter lower than expected
206
Q

how does the banana sign happen?

A

produced by the caudal shift of the posterior contents of the skull, forcing the cerebellar hemispheres to wrap around the brain stems.

207
Q

what is spinal curvature most frequently associated with?

A

NTD and spinal bifida meningomyelocele

208
Q

scoliosis

A

lateral curvature of the spine

209
Q

Kyphosis

A

refers to an exaggerated rounding of the back in the sagittal plane.

210
Q

Hemivertebra

A

a type of vertebral anomaly and results from a lack of formation of one half of a vertebral body.

211
Q

what is a Sacrococcygeal Teratoma?

A

Tumours that arise from embryonic cells of the coccyx.

212
Q

what are the most common congenital tumors in the newborn?

A

Sacrococcygeal Teratoma

213
Q

what do Sacrococcygeal Teratoma appear as?

A

Most are large, external and solid or complex masses that extend outward from the lower part of the sacrum and buttock.

214
Q

are Sacrococcygeal Teratomas benign or malignant?

A

bengin

215
Q

what are Sacrococcygeal Teratomas not associated with?

A
  • Are not associated with a distinct vertebral abnormality

- Are not associated with cranial abnormalities

216
Q

what is caudal regression syndrome?

A

Spinal abnormalities include grossly distorted or absent vertebrae beginning at the thoracic level (sacral agenesis).

217
Q

what is caudal regression syndrome (CRS) strongly associated with?

A

poorly controlled diabetes

218
Q

what does sacral agenesis present as?

A
  • Caudal regression sequence or sacral agenesis (abnormal fetal development of the lower spine)
  • Sirenomelia sequence (legs are fused together)
  • Cloacal exstrophy sequence (defect of the ventral body wall)
  • VACTERL association
219
Q

what is vacterl associatation?

A
  • vertebral anomalies
  • imperforate anus
  • cardiac malformations
  • tracheoesophageal fistula
  • renal dysplasia
  • limb abnormalities
220
Q

spinal arachnoid cyst?

A

benign cystic lesions formed due to splitting of the arachnoid membrane

Abnormal OB (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions