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InfoSys > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe what is meant by an enterprise architecture

A

Specifies the connections between the IT systems of an organisation - applications, data and infrastructure

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2
Q

What is EA used for?

A

Ensure technology investment is aligned with business goals; ensure technology environment is integrated, secure, robust and flexible; help prioritise IT initiatives; help procure value-for-money and reusable solutions; avoid problems associated with reactive IT decisions

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3
Q

What are the average life spans of a business strategy vs IT infrastructure?

A

BS - 12 months or less, IT infrastructure = 5-7 years, often more than 10

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4
Q

Describe the EA corporate view

A

Group-wide rather than divisional view of IT investment

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5
Q

Describe the EA Long view

A

Long-term view of investment in IT, rather than implement short-term point solutions

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6
Q

Describe the EA end-to-end

A

Includes all elements of technology in the design (applications, data, infrastructure, connections)

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7
Q

Describe the EA standards based

A

Standards based components and common products/services where possible

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8
Q

What are the benefits of a business with EA

A

Reduced cost (standard components < customised solutions); faster, increased flexibility and time to market; better availability, security, performance and reliability; connected systems sharing functions & data

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9
Q

Whats are the cons of no EA

A

Expensive, point solutions; Isolated data; hard to connect internally and externally; difficult to maintain

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10
Q

Architecture principles: business focused

A

Align the architecture with business needs and make it comprehensible

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11
Q

Architecture principles: independent

A

Make the architecture independent of the organisational structure

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12
Q

Architecture principles: Standards based

A

Use industry based, web - enabled standard components

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13
Q

Architecture principles: State of the market

A

Use proven solutions as opposed to leading edge solutions

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14
Q

Architecture principles: Robust, reliable and supported

A

Adopt solutions with a well-defined owner, product map and maintenance commitment (limit use of free-ware and open source)

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15
Q

Architecture principles: Flexible

A

Allows business to accommodate change

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16
Q

Architecture principles: Reuse technology

A

Exploit value of existing IT investment where possible

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17
Q

Architecture principles: buy service first

A

Select ‘on-demand’ services (SaaS) as first choice, then off-the-shelf (COTS) products; custom solutions are last resort

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18
Q

List the limitations of IT systems and networks

A

Costly, unreliable (many elements - difficult to fix when they fails), most are inflexible and slow, limited connectivity to external parties, some systems are legacy, poor quality data, data can be replicated (different “version of the truth” in different systems), many systems/data sources so difficult to ensure security, unstructured - IT for a while was unprioritised, reactive - prone to responding to requests as opposed to planning long term, under-resourced (manpower), limited IT skills wrt. supporting future business requirements

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19
Q

What is meant by migration scenario

A

Planning to guide the business to the ‘target’ environment (basis for planning short term and medium term investment) - normally over a 5 year period. Complements normal business and IT planning cycles

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20
Q

List the migration principles

A

Evolutionary approach - gradual replacement of technology; business driven prioritisation - scale and timing determined by business (thus each investment justified by its own business case), IT infrastructure investment; shared components introduced; migration towards standard environment - moves the environment towards use of industry standards

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21
Q

Why use a TA?

A

Helps the designer make informed decisions about solutions (understand how software and hardware components fit together, determine which application component run on which hardware platform, assess what standards are appropriate, determine where cost trade offs can be made, deploy adequate control points and interfaces, identify where systems integration is required)

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22
Q

List some TA components

A

Software (data storage, data access logic, application logic, presentation logic), hardware (clients eg computers, tablets, phones etc, servers eg mainframes, networks eg LAN, WAN)

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23
Q

What is client based architecture?

A

Client performs most of the processing activity, server stores data

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24
Q

What is server based architecture?

A

Server performs all four application functions (DS, DA, AL, PL), client captures keystrokes

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25
Q

Pros/cons of client based

A

Simple to develop, but quickly overloaded

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26
Q

Describe client server architecture

A

Balanced processing between client/server. Highly scalable at incremental cost. Application must be written for both client and server. Thin clients do only PL. Thick clients do AL and PL

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27
Q

What is a 2 tier CSA?

A

One server for DS and DA, client does AL and PL

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28
Q

What is a 3 tier CSA?

A

DS and AL on one server, AL on another, client does PL

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29
Q

What is n tier CSA?

A

AL split between 2 servers, DL on another

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30
Q

Why use n tier CSA?

A

(Common in e-commerce applications) Better load balancing, more scalable than 2 or 3 tier systems. Places higher demands on the network

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31
Q

What is a service?

A

Discrete unit of functionality that can be accessed remotely and acted upon, updated independently

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32
Q

Service oriented architecture

A

Style of software design where services are provided by application components over a network

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33
Q

Infrastructure as a service IaaS

A

Virtualized computing resources (hardware, software, servers, storage) over the internet

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34
Q

Platform as a service PaaS

A

Resources and tools over the internet allowing customers to develop, run and manage applications

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35
Q

SaaS

A

Software applications over the internet

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36
Q

Business as a service BaaS

A

Complete business processes over the internet

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37
Q

What is involved in infrastructure design?

A

Components - network, hardware, OS, storage, resilience (redundancy, business continuity, disaster recovery), security

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38
Q

What is involved in network design?

A

Network design contains major components (routers, switches, nodes, geographical routes, firewalls etc). Purpose is to illustrate how system’s software components will fit together

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39
Q

What is involved in storage design?

A

Cables, host bus adapters, and switches. Includes storage devices - purpose is to provide fast, efficient, secure and resilient shared storage

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40
Q

What are the three phases of implementation?

A

Construct, install, support

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41
Q

What does the construction phase of implementation entail?

A

Development of all parts of the system: software, hardware, network configuration, documentation, procedures

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42
Q

What is usually the cause of project failure?

A

Poor analysis, design, testing

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43
Q

What is the most important activity in Construction?

A

Project management

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44
Q

What does this Project management entail?

A

Plan activities and resources, plan and manage the schedule, plan and manage budget, track Actions, Risks, Issues (ARI), report on progress, manage people

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45
Q

What is the purpose of testing?

A

Uncover as many errors as feasible (differences between what the system does and what it should do. Not about proving that the system is error free)

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46
Q

What does the test plan include?

A

Tests to be conducted and expected results of tests

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47
Q

What types of testing are there?

A

Unit, integration, system and user acceptance tests

48
Q

Describe each type of testing

A

Unit - focuses on single component or class. Integration - tests whether system components/classes work together properly. System - tests operation of system end to end: functional and non-functional. User acceptance (UAT) - tests conducted by users to determine that system does what it was meant to do

49
Q

Describe black box testing

A

Specification bases - tests the functionality of an application

50
Q

Describe white box testing

A

Tests internal workings of an application - tests that the code does what it is supposed to do

51
Q

What is meant by regression testing?

A

Verification that software which has been changed/integrated still works correctly (no new faults introduced/new software does not break old software)

52
Q

How does UAT take place?

A

Goal is to confirm that the system meets the business needs/is acceptance to users. Involves alpha testing (data is artificial) and beta testing (data is real but monitored for errors)

53
Q

What takes place during the Post-Implementation Review (PIR)

A

Determine what was successful/unsuccessful. Project team list what worked and what produced mistakes were made (repeat the good, eliminate the bad in future). Systems review - assess to what extent costs & estimated benefits actually accrue, determine whether or not the system provides the expected value (informs baseline costs for future projects)

54
Q

Why use automated software testing?

A

Allows for testing of large numbers of test conditions. Helps eliminate human error

55
Q

TCO stands for

A

Total cost of ownership

56
Q

What is meant by agile implementation?

A

Discovery -> alpha -> beta -> live -> discovery ->…… : live phase used to improve service based on user feedback, analytics, ongoing user research

57
Q

What is a contract?

A

Voluntary agreement between two or more parties enforceable by law (IS examples - build bespoke software, software licence, consulting contracts, outsourcing contracts)

58
Q

Name three versions of IS contracts, naming the predominant ‘risk-taker’ in each one

A

Fixed price - supplier (lump sum for work), Time and materials - shared risk (hourly rate), Usage based - Consumer (payment based on number of users/resources)

59
Q

How are contracts made flexible wrt. requirements?

A

Contracts often contain a ‘change control mechanism’ to account for change in requirements (this deals with a change in process/terms)

60
Q

What does a contract with a consultant in IT often provide, what does it deliver, and how is it payed?

A

Assignment of a specialist/team of specialists to complete a specific engagement such as developing an IT strategy. Deliverable can be a report or presentation - sometimes can be undefined. Payment basis is usually time and materials

61
Q

What is involved with an IT outsourcing contract?

A

Provision of IT services (possibly including people) to a client by a third party - development, operations, maintenance. Can be 3-5 years - exit conditions are difficult to define and implement

62
Q

What is involved with a packaged software contract

A

Buying a licence to use the software (not own it) - restrictions on number of users, server or desktop deployment, site usage

63
Q

What does the consumer rights act 2015 ensure?

A

Repair or replacement of digital products if faulty (includes digital content such as online films, games, music etc.)

64
Q

What is a business plan used for?

A

Management and planning, raising funds from investors, benchmarking progress

65
Q

Describe a limited company

A

Shareholder risk (‘liability’) limited to invested capital

66
Q

Describe a private limited company (ltd.)

A

Shares not available for public trading; must provide company details to Companies House a file annual report and accounts

67
Q

Describe a public limited company (plc)

A

Company that trades on a stock exchange; publicly traded shares; governed by strict regulations; must publish true financial position regularly

68
Q

What is meant by an Initial Public Offering IPO

A

Allows private company to sell its shares to the public - used to raise funds for expansion efforts of pay back debt, provide exit for investors, raise company profile or reward employees. Time consuming, and incurs ongoing compliance and governance costs

69
Q

What are the advantages of IT (for example) being a profession?

A

Ensures a standard of training is met, allows job title and/or function to be reserved

70
Q

What is a cookie?

A

Small file (letters/numbers) download to a device when user accesses certain websites - allows website to recognize user’s device

71
Q

What caused computer misuse to escalate?

A

Remote access - allowed misuse of internet networks and internet-connected computers

72
Q

What types of cybercrime are there?

A

Cyber-enabled crime (‘traditional’ crimes conducted online), advanced cybercrime (attacks against computer hardware and software), attack sources (formally individuals/small groups, now large interconnected cybercriminal networks), cyber defence (law enforcement agencies - no physical/virtual borders)

73
Q

What is malware?

A

Program inserted covertly inside another program with intent to destroy data, run intrusive or destructive programs, or otherwise compromise confidentiality, integrity, or availability of victims data, applications or OS

74
Q

What are APTs?

A

Advanced Persistent Threats - well-resourced, persistent application of intrusion technology and malware to selected targets

75
Q

Copyright

A

Protects literary and creative works including software

76
Q

Patent

A

Protects inventions

77
Q

Trade mark

A

Protects product names, logos, corporate symbols

78
Q

Confidence

A

Protects confidential information such as an idea for a film, or secret list of customer prospects

79
Q

Design rights

A

Protects new and original designs, such as a distinctive keyboard shape

80
Q

How does a piece of work qualify for copyright

A

Regarded as original, and exhibit a degree of labour, skill or judgement

81
Q

How does one apply for copyright

A

Don’t have to - comes into existence automatically

82
Q

When did software first come under copyright law

A

1992 amendment to cover computer programs; 1997 databases regulations, 2003

83
Q

What are the rights of a copyright owner

A

Give copies of you work to the public (free or not); give permission for someone to make copies; give permission to adapt a work (eg. Translation); make variations or derivatives of a work; sell or licence rights

84
Q

Databases were added to copyright law in 1997 - how long do database rights last for

A

15 years - database must be original/’substantial investment in obtaining, verifying or presenting the contents’.

85
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary infringement

A

Primary - breach of exclusive rights of the owner (owner claims damages or injunction to refrain), Secondary - breach of rights in commercial/business context (eg. Pirated software for commercial purposes) (results in fine, imprisonment, confiscation of material)

86
Q

How can copyright material fall under ‘fair dealing’

A

Decided case by case eg. Research, criticism, review, quotation, reporting, parody, teaching (as long as not commercial), libraries, archives, museum, galleries (can make copies of all types of works in their collections)

87
Q

Define DMCA and OSP

A

Digital millennium copyright act; online service providers

88
Q

OSP is safe from DMCA as long as they do what?

A

Must immediately block access to or removed alleged infringing material should a notification be received of infringement

89
Q

Are ISPs liable for copyright infringement

A

Only if they are aware of the infringement and have not acted expeditiously to remove or disable access to said infringing information

90
Q

Digital single market copyright directive forces internet platforms that host large amounts of user-generated content to do what?

A

Platforms such as google or facebook are responsible themselves for policing and enforcing copyright and taking down any infringing content

91
Q

What is the difference between package software and tailor-made software copyright

A

Package - customer buys a licence to use software, not the actual software; Tailor made - creator of content is first legal owner of copyright, customer gets copyright as well but creator may retain overall copyright on certain parts/may be open source elements/may be third party products build in

92
Q

Describe what is meant by ‘creative commons’

A

CC licences allow copyright owners to share their work while keeping copyright

93
Q

What types of CC licences are there

A

Attribution (copied, modified, distributed, displayed and performed if owner credited), non-commercial (all but no profit allowed to be made), no derivative works (all bar modification), share-alike (can be modified and distributed but must be covered by an identical licence)

94
Q

What is meant by copyleft?

A

Method for making a program and all derivatives of it free

95
Q

What does a patent apply to, and how long does it last?

A

Inventions, around 20 years

96
Q

How can one patent software

A

In US - if it part of a patentable device, controls a process that has some physical effects, or processing data arising from the physical world

97
Q

What qualifies something as a trademark

A

Graphical sign - cannot describe goods/services, must be distinctive, cannot be 3d, cannot have function or add value to goods, cannot be specially protected emblems (eg flag), cannot be deceptive

98
Q

Why was the freedom of information act brought in

A

To make public organisations more open and accountable

99
Q

Who does the freedom of information act apply to

A

Central and local government departments; NHS; education authorities; military services etc

100
Q

Why might certain information by exempt from the freedom of information act?

A

E.g. BBC is journalistic - protect sources of information

101
Q

Difference between absolute exemption and qualified exemptions

A

Qualified may under certain conditions by overruled, absolute may never be released

102
Q

2000 Protection of freedoms act did what?

A

Required public authorities to publish any requested data sets as part of their publication scheme

103
Q

Give examples of absolute exemptions

A

Information that is - accessible by other means, relates to or deals with security matters, release could breach data protections principles, confidential

104
Q

Describe the purpose of the environmental information regulations 2004

A

Right of access to environmental information held by uk authorities (info about air, water soil, emissions as well as decisions, policies, activities that affect the environment)

105
Q

What is a publication scheme

A

Public commitment to make certain information available; a guide to how that information can be obtained

106
Q

How long does a body have to provide requested information

A

Within 20 days (can delay with suitable explanation)

107
Q

What does GDPR stand for

A

General data protection regulation

108
Q

What is the purpose of GDPR

A

Give control to data subjects (people) over their personal data; govern circumstances when personal data is exported outside EU/EEA

109
Q

What does GDPR cover

A

Personal data - info that relates to an identified or identifiable individual

110
Q

GDPR - what is a controller

A

Determines the purposes and means of processing personal data

111
Q

GDPR - what is processor

A

Responsible for processing personal data on behalf of controller

112
Q

What is special category data?

A

Data that needs greater protection (eg. Information about an individuls race, ethnic origin, politics, sexual orientation etc.) - can be used to discriminate

113
Q

What are the seven principles of GDPR

A

Lawfulness, fairness and transparency; purpose limitation; data minimisation(only what you need); accuracy(not incorrect/misleading); storage limitation; integrity and confidentiality; accountability

114
Q

What rights does GDPR give an individual

A

Right to be informated, rights of access, right to rectification, right to erasure, right to restrict processing, right to data portability, right to object, rights in relation to automated decision making and profiling

115
Q

What are some of the global ethical impacts of computer networks?

A

Easy to present and spread false information - cas cause significant social and global unrest

116
Q

What are some more typical ethical issues with IT industry?

A

Gender imbalance in jobs, computer technology impact on the environment, tax avoidance by large IT corporations

117
Q

Describe the rough ethical analysis process

A

Identify all those affected (stakeholders), list all possible actions, consider the impact on each affected individual (risks, benefits, harms, costs), identify responsibilties of decision makers and rights of stakeholders, decide which choices are ethically wrong, ethically obligatory, or acceptable but not required (if several acceptable, consider the merits of each)

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