Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Classical Conditioning

A
  • type of learning in which a stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoked by another stimulus
  • Ivan Pavlov: Russian psychologist who stumbled onto conditioned responses while collecting data for the role of saliva in digestion
  • Includes US, UR, CS, CR, extinction, spontaneous recovery, and stimulus generalization
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2
Q

Unconditioned Stimulus?

Unconditioned Response?

A
  • Evokes a response without previous conditioning
  • Typically a reflexive unlearned reaction to an unconditioned stimulus
  • Conditioned and unconditioned response are usually the same
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3
Q

Conditioned Response?

A
  • The learned reaction to a conditioned stimulus

- Ex: just seeing Marge in kitchen makes Homer salivate

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4
Q

Conditioned Stimulus?

A
  • A stimulus that was previously neutral but has become paired or associated with an unconditioned stimulus
  • It’s a learned stimulus
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5
Q

Extinction?

A
  • Describes the gradual weakening or disappearance of a conditioned response
  • Because you aren’t exposed to it as much, it’s just going away
  • Ex: boyfriend location no longer associated with him
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6
Q

Spontaneous Recovery?

A
  • The reappearance of an extinguished behavior
  • Response/behavior comes about again
  • Ex: older sibling starts to act like baby
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7
Q

What type of response was the dog’s response to the unconditioned stimulus (food)?

A

Unconditioned response

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8
Q

Stimulus Generalization?

A

-Occurs when an organism has a learned response to a specific stimulus and responds the same way to other stimuli that are similar to the original stimulus

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9
Q

What type of response was the dog’s response to the bell?

A

Conditioned response; salivating

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10
Q

Operant Conditioning

A
  • A form of learning in which voluntary responses come to be controlled by their consequences
  • B.F. Skinner: he was a behaviorist, but not as much as John B. Watson; responsible for operant conditioning
  • Includes consequence (positive/negative reinforcement and positive/negative punishment) and shaping
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11
Q

Consequence?

A
  • The outcome of a behavior

- Includes reinforcement and punishment

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12
Q

Reinforcement?

A

-Type of consequence that INCREASES the likelihood of an organism to reproduce that behavior again.

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13
Q

Punishment?

A

-Type of consequence that DECREASES the likelihood of an organism to reproduce that behavior again

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14
Q

Positive vs. Negative?

A
  • Positive: something’s being added

- Negative: something’s being taken away

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15
Q

Positive Reinforcement?

A
  • A response is strengthened at the presentation of a rewarding stimulus
  • Something’s being added and increases likelihood of it happening again
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16
Q

Positive Punishment?

A
  • A response is weakened at the presentation of an aversive stimulus
  • Something’s being added & decreases likelihood of it happening again
  • Ex: like spraying cat with water, so it stops doing something
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17
Q

Negative Reinforcement?

A
  • A response is strengthened at the removal of an aversive stimulus
  • Something’s being taken away & increases likelihood of it happening again
  • Ex: being cold, so put on sweater
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18
Q

Negative Punishment?

A
  • A response is weakened at the removal of a rewarding stimulus
  • Something’s being taken away & decreases likelihood of it happening again
  • Ex: taking away door for bad grades
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19
Q

Stella cleaned her house and then her mother gave her five dollars. Next week, Stella cleaned her house again. What type is this?

A

Positive Reinforcement.

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20
Q

Glen stayed out past curfew. The next day, Glen’s parents grounded him for two weeks. Next time Glen went out with his friends, he came home on time. What type is this?

A

Negative Punishment.

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21
Q

Shaping?

A
  • The reinforcement of closer and closer approximations of a desired response
  • She gave example of learning to ride bike
  • Common Example: potty training
  • Doesn’t have to be something physical (like candy); can just be praise
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22
Q

Observational Learning?

A
  • Occurs when an organism’s response is influenced by the observation of others
  • Albert Bandura’s discovery
  • Ex: learning how to cook by watching mom
  • Ex: parents involved with politics, so you may be more likely to join too
  • Ex: kid sees aggressive behavior, so they’ll be more aggressive
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23
Q

The reappearance of a conditioned response after extinction and a period of rest is called?

A

-Spontaneous recovery

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24
Q

Jenna got straight A’s and then her mother gave her the week off from chores. Next semester, Jenna tried hard and got straight A’s again. What is this called?

A

-Negative reinforcement

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25
Q

What are the 3 key processes (and order)?

A

-Encoding → Storage → Retrieval

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26
Q

Encoding?

A
  • Involves forming a memory code
  • Like entering data through keyboard
  • Pay attention!
  • Requires attention (it’s critical)
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27
Q

Attention?

A
  • Focusing awareness on narrowed range of stimuli or events

- Selective attention (the selection input) is critical

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28
Q

Divided Attention?

A
  • Focus on two or more inputs simultaneously
    • Results in decrements in memory performance
  • It’s not multitasking, it’s task switching
  • Ex: testing during lecture
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29
Q

Storage?

A
  • Involves maintaining encoded information in memory over time
  • Like saving data in file on hard disk
  • Includes sensory memory, short-term memory, rehearsal, chunking, working memory, and long-term memory
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30
Q

Retrieval?

A
  • Involves recovering information from memory stores
  • Like pulling up file and displaying data on monitor
  • Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon: failure of retrieval
  • Retrieval cues: hints, related information or partial recollections; can help with tip-of-the-tongue
  • Context cues: she says it’s like going by chapter on tests (ex: asks question about behavior, then question about Watson)
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31
Q

Ways of improving memory?

A
  • Elaboration
  • Visual Imagery
  • Motivation to remember
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32
Q

Elaboration?

A
  • The linking of a stimulus to other information at the time of encoding
  • Making connections or applying the idea to your life
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33
Q

Visual Imagery?

A
  • The creation of visual images to represent the other words to be remembered
  • Easier for concrete objects than abstract concepts
  • Dual-code theory
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34
Q

Motivation to Remember?

A

-Perceived importance – extra effort, attention, and organization

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35
Q

Memory Storage Model?

A

Sensory Input → Sensory Memory → Attention (if you don’t tend to it, it will be lost) → Short-Term Memory (needs rehearsal) → Storage → Long-Term Memory

Long-Term Memory → Retrieval→ Short-Term Memory

*Look in Chapter 7 Packet! Page 2

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36
Q

Which memory can go out the quickest if you don’t tend to it?

A

-Sensory Memory

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37
Q

Sensory Memory?

A

-Information is preserved in its original sensory form for a very brief time (¼ of a second)

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38
Q

How long is information held in sensory memory if not tended to?

A

¼ of a second

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39
Q

Short-Term Memory?

A
  • STM
  • Limited capacity store that can maintain unrehearsed information for up to about 20 seconds
  • Capacity:
    • Magical number: 7 plus or minus 2
    • Miller
    • More like 4 plus or minus 1
    • Cowan
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40
Q

Chunking?

A
  • Grouping of familiar stimuli stored as a single unit
  • (usually in threes)
  • Ex: FBI-NBC-CIA-IBM
  • A lot of books and stuff use chunking to make things easier
  • Good way to remember different strings of #s
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41
Q

Working Memory?

A
  • Modular system for temporary storage and manipulation of information
  • Working to help you solve problems
  • People with ADHD have problem with working memory
  • Includes phonological loop, visuospatial sketchpad, central executive, and episodic buffer
  • Ex: math problem (uses most working memory because uses multiple steps and task-switching)
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42
Q

A math problem is using multiple steps. What type of memory is it using?

A

Working memory.

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43
Q

Phonological Loop?

A

-Recitation to hold information

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44
Q

Visuospatial Sketchpad?

A

-Temporarily holds and manipulates visual information

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45
Q

Central Executive?

A

-Controls attention (switching, dividing attention)

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46
Q

Episodic Buffer?

A

-Integrates information, interface between STM and LTM

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47
Q

Working Memory Capacity?

A
  • One’s ability to hold and manipulate information in conscious attention
  • Stable personality trait (it’s related to personality)
  • Influenced by situational factors (stress, anxiety)
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48
Q

Long-Term Memory?

A
  • Unlimited capacity store for holding information for long periods of time
  • Probably most important type of memory
  • Includes flashbulb memories
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49
Q

Flashbulb Memories?

A
  • Usually vivid and detailed recollections of momentous events
  • Not as accurate as once believed
  • People tend to be overly confident about accuracy
  • Emotionally intense
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50
Q

Reconstructing Memories?

A
  • Memories are reconstructions
  • May be distorted and inaccurate
  • Misinformation Effect
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51
Q

Misinformation Effect?

A
  • Reconstruction of an event is altered by introducing misleading post-event information
  • Adding/taking out details
  • Ex: eye witnesses; criminals do it to justify their actions
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52
Q

Forgetting?

A

-Retention: the proportion of material remembered

  • Retention Interval: length of time between the presentation and the measurement of forgetting
    • How long you’re able to retain information without forgetting it
  • How do we measure retention or forgetting?
    • Recall: freely; no information to go based off of
    • Recognition: answers are right in front of you
    • Relearning
    -Easier to recognize than recall!
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53
Q

Why We Forget

A
  • Ineffective Encoding
  • Decay Theory
  • Interference Theory
  • Repression
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54
Q

Ineffective Encoding?

A
  • Pseudoforgetting (not really forgetting, just didn’t learn it)
  • Lack of attention
  • Ex: Studying when tired
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55
Q

Decay Theory?

A
  • Forgetting occurs because memory traces fade with time

- Ex: You remember what you learned last week better than in high school

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56
Q

Interference Theory?

A
  • Forgetting occurs because of competition from other material
  • Ex: master at your classes in the fall, but once you begin spring semester, you forget some fall stuff
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57
Q

Repression?

A
  • Keeping distressing thoughts and feelings buried in the unconscious
  • Freudian
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58
Q

The anatomy of memory?

A
  • Extensive memory loss can aid in the study of the anatomical bases of memory
  • Retrograde Amnesia
  • Anterograde Amnesia
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59
Q

Retrograde Amnesia?

A
  • Loss of memories for events that occurred prior to injury

- Can be caused by traumatic brain injury

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60
Q

Anterograde Amnesia?

A
  • Loss of memories for events that occur after an injury

- Ex: think 50 First Dates

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61
Q

Patient H.M.

A
  • Suffered from epileptic seizures
  • Had his hippocampus and adjacent regions removed
  • Anterograde amnesia
    • Could not remember anything that happened since 1953
    • Loss the ability to form long-term memories
    • Could only remember the most recent 20 seconds
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62
Q

Where is memory in the brain?

A

-Prefrontal Cortex, Cerebral Cortex, and Hippocampus

  • Consolidation: the gradual conversion of new, unstable memories into stable, durable memory code stored in LTM
    • Takes time and rehearsal for info to stick
    • Hippocampus

-Memory code is stored throughout the cortex

  • Reconsolidation: retrieved memories may be weakened, strengthened, or updated
    - Possible distortions
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63
Q

Different types of memory systems?

A
  • Declarative Memory
    • Semantic memory
    • Episodic memory

-Nondeclarative (Procedural) Memory

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64
Q

Declarative Memory?

A

-Factual Information

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65
Q

Semantic Memory?

A
  • General knowledge that is not tied to the time when the information was learned
  • Type of factual memory
  • Ex: when you learned who the first president was (don’t know where you learned it, but you just know it)
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66
Q

Episodic Memory?

A
  • Chronological or temporally dated recollections of personal experience
  • Like episode of your life
  • Kind of related to flashbulb (she says flashbulb is type of episodic memory)
  • Ex: high school graduation
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67
Q

Nondeclarative (Procedural) Memory?

A
  • Memory for actions, skills, and conditioned responses
  • More automatic, like skills
  • Ex: riding bike
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68
Q

What type of memory is riding a bike?

A

Nondeclarative (a.k.a. procedural)

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69
Q

What type of memory is first trip to Disneyland?

A

Episodic

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70
Q

“Who was the first president?” What type of memory is this?

A

Semantic

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71
Q

“What is a bicycle?” What type of memory is this?

A

Semantic

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72
Q

What type of memory is your high school graduation?

A

Episodic

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73
Q

Retrospective Memory?

A
  • Remembering events from the past; previously learned information
  • Ex: Any type of memory from the past
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74
Q

Prospective Memory?

A
  • Remembering to perform actions in the future

- Ex: remembering to pack when you get home

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75
Q

Things to remember about memory

A

-Attention is inherently selective

  • Memory is fallible; memory is not perfect; we don’t remember things 100%
    • Inaccuracies in eyewitness testimony
  • Memory is multifaceted
    • Influenced by attention and level of processing
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76
Q

Language Acquisition According to Behaviorist Theories.

A
  • B.F. Skinner’s book Verbal Behavior
  • Argued that children learn language the same way they learn everything else
  • Vocalizations that are not reinforced gradually decline in frequency and remaining vocalizations are shaped with reinforcers until correct; reinforcing kid along the way
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77
Q

Language Acquisition According to Nativist Theories.

A

-Noam Chomsky’s rival explanation

  • Proposed humans are equipped with a language acquisition device, an innate mechanism or process that facilitates the learning of language
    • Natural process
    • Something we’re born with
    • Language Acquisition Device
  • Children learn the rules of language, not specific verbal responses
  • Ex: of Genie disproved this theory
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78
Q

Language Acquisition According to Interactionist Theories.

A
  • Assert that we are biologically well equipped to learn language and it involves the learning of rules (like the nativists)
  • AND social exchanges play a critical role in molding language skills (like the behaviorists)
  • Combines behaviorist and nativist theories
  • Most popularly held theory
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79
Q

Problem Solving

A
  • Refers to active efforts to discover what must be done to achieve a goal that is not readily attainable
  • Ex: when she gave us putting hands in pocket problem
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80
Q

Barriers to Problem Solving

A
  • Irrelevant Information
    • Ex: In Thompson family, there are five brothers, and each brother has one sister. If you count Mrs. Thompson, how many females are there in the Thompson family?
  • Functional Fixedness
    • The tendency to perceive an item only in term of its most common use
  • Mental Set
    • A mental set exists when people persist in using problem-solving strategies that have worked in the past
    • Ex: learn technique in math, so when move on to next section, you try to use it again
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81
Q

Approaches to Problem Solving

A
  • Trial and Error
  • Heuristics
  • Forming Subgoals
  • Searching for Analogies
  • Taking a break: Incubation
  • These don’t always work
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82
Q

Trial and Error

A

-Involves trying possible solutions sequentially and discarding those that are in error until one works

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83
Q

Heuristics

A
  • A heuristic is a guiding principle or “rule of thumb” used in solving problems or making decisions
  • Ex: At doctor’s office, we see someone walking by in lab coat, we assume they’re physician but not necessarily true
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84
Q

Forming Subgoals

A
  • Dividing a problem into subgoals, or intermediate steps towards a solution, can facilitate an ending solution
  • Ex: writing paper little-by-little
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85
Q

Searching for Analogies

A

-If you can spot an analogy between problems, you may be able to use the solution to a previous problem to solve a current one

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86
Q

Taking a Break

A

-Incubation Effect: occurs when new solutions surface for a previously unsolved problem after a period of not consciously thinking about the problem

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87
Q

Decision Making

A

-Decision making involves evaluating alternatives and making a choice among them

  • Theory of bounded rationality: asserts that people tend to use simple strategies in decision making that focus on only a few facets of available options and often result in “irrational” decisions that are less than optimal
    • We want to go with what has worked in the past
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88
Q

Tendency to Ignore Base Rates

A
  • Base Rate: the prior odds that a member of a specific population will have a certain characteristic
    • Ex: of Blackhawks in Chicago

-People tend to ignore base rates, particularly in regards to themselves

  • Part of the “it can’t happen to me” problem
    • Like when a burglar ignores the likelihood that they will end up in jail
  • We make assumptions before looking at facts and data
  • Ex: of schizophrenia?
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89
Q

Conjunction Fallacy

A
  • Occurs when people estimate that the odds of two uncertain events happening together are greater than the odds of either event happening alone
  • Ex: of Linda being a bank teller vs. Linda being a bank teller and an active feminist
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90
Q

History of Measuring Intelligence

A
  • Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon: the Binet-Simon Scale
  • Lewis Terman at Stanford: Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
  • David Wechsler: Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)
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91
Q

Binet-Simon Scale

A
  • Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon
  • First useful test of general mental ability in 1905
  • Mental age: indicated that the child displayed the mental ability typical of a child of that chronological (actual) age
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92
Q

Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

A
  • Lewis Terman at Stanford
  • Major revision of the Simon-Binet
  • Intelligence Quotient (IQ)
    • A child’s mental age divided by chronological age, multiplied by 100
    • IQ = (Mental Age/Chronological Age) x 100
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93
Q

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)

A
  • David Wechsler
  • Less dependence on verbal ability and more nonverbal reasoning
  • No longer using an actual quotient for IQ, instead relying on the normal distribution
  • Ex: Block design (give person blocks and tell them to build the image on a picture)
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94
Q

Who came up with first individual mental age test?

A

-Binet and Simon with Binet-Simon Scale

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95
Q

What type of test is most commonly used today?

A
  • WAIS (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale)

- David Wechsler

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96
Q

Normal Distribution

A
  • Symmetrical, bell-shaped curve that represents the pattern in which many characteristics are dispersed in the population
  • Standard Deviation (SD): a statistical index of variability in a data distribution
  • Deviation IQ:
    • Raw scores are translated into deviational IQ scores that locate respondents precisely within the normal distribution
    • For IQ scores, mean is 100 and 1 standard deviation is 15
  • Percentile Score: indicates the percentage of people who score at or below the score one has obtained
    • People with mean (average 100 score), they’re at the 50%
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97
Q

Reliability

A
  • Refers to the measurement consistency of a test (answers “Are the test results consistent?”)
  • A reliable rest yields similar scores when repeated
  • If correlation was .10, something’s off and it’s not reliable
  • Use a correlation coefficient to test reliability, usually between two administrations of the test on the same person
    • Acceptable reliability coefficients are around .70 and up, always positive

-IQ scores are exceptionally reliable (around .90)

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98
Q

Validity

A
  • Refers to the ability of the test to measure what it was designed to measure
  • Ex: online IQ tests are NOT valid
  • Intelligence tests were originally designed to relate to school performance
    • Have good “construct validity” with the intelligence necessary to do academic work
    • But what about other kinds of intelligence? WAIS is trying to get at other types of intelligence
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99
Q

Heredity Influence on Intelligence

A
  • Twin studies:
    • Comparing identical twins to fraternal twins
    • Supported the notion that intelligence is inherited
  • Adoption studies:
    • Looking at the correlation between biological parents and adopted children
    • Supports that there is some measureable similarity between adopted children and their biological parents

-IQ is highly heritable (explained in “heritability estimates” card)

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100
Q

Heritability Estimates?

A
  • Heritability Ratio: an estimate of the proportion of trait variability in a population that is determined by variations in genetic inheritance; looks at how much is inherited
  • Experts estimate as high as 80% for IQ (so only 20% of the variation in intelligence would be based on environment) (IQ is highly heritable)
  • Some estimate as low as 40% for IQ
  • The current consensus is 50%
    • There is some ambiguity with this
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101
Q

Limitations of heritability Estimates?

A

-Based on studies of trait variability within a specific group and cannot be applied meaningfully to individuals

  • Heritability can fluctuate over the lifespan (THIS IS THE FACT SHE FINDS MOST IMPORTANT AND WANTS US TO KNOW)
    • Kids more susceptible to environmental influence on IQ
  • Heritability can vary from one group to the next
    • Poverty can have negative environmental influence that can suppress the effect of heritability
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102
Q

Environmental Influence on Intelligence

A
  • Adoption studies:
    • Adopted children show some resemblance to their adopted parents in IQ (adopted parents are shaping the environment)
    • Siblings reared together have more similarity than siblings reared apart because of shared environment (even true for identical twins)
      • This suggests some influence of environment causing those differences
    • Entirely unrelated siblings raised in the same home (environment) show a significant resemblance in IQ
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103
Q

The Interaction of Heredity and Environment

A
  • Not “which one is it?” but instead “how they interact?
    • It’s an interaction between the two!
  • Heredity may set certain limits while environment determines where someone falls within those limits
  • Reaction range refers to these genetically determined limits on IQ (and other traits)
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104
Q

What is development? Stages?

A

-It’s a sequence of age-related changes that occur as a person progresses from conception to death

  • Prenatal
  • Childhood
  • Adolescence
  • Emerging Adulthood (where we are right now)
  • Adulthood

-Start from conception (time you’re conceived)

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105
Q

Prenatal Development. And order of prenatal development?

A
  • Prenatal Period: extends from conception to birth, usually encompassing 9 months of pregnancy
    • Some can come slightly before/after 9 months
  • Stages?
  • Germinal
  • Embryonic
  • Fetal
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106
Q

Germinal Stage?

A
  • 0 to 2 weeks
  • Fertilization
  • Zygote is created
  • Zygote becomes a mass of multiplying cells
  • Implantation
  • Placenta begins to form
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107
Q

Placenta?

A

Structure that allows oxygen and nutrients to pass into the fetus from the mother’s bloodstream and bodily wastes to pass out to the mother

-Whatever mom is taking in, so is the baby

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108
Q

Embryonic Stage

A
  • 2 weeks to 2 months
  • Zygote → Embryo
  • Vital organs and bodily systems begin to form
  • Starts to look like a human
  • Highly vulnerable stage!
109
Q

Fetal Stage

A
  • 2 months to birth
  • Zygote → Embryo → Fetus
  • Viability happens at…
    • 24 weeks
    • Yes, there are risks to being born early, but they can survive at this sweet spot
110
Q

Prenatal Development and Environmental Factors

A

-Mother’s environment, behavior, and health affect the unborn child

  • Malnutrition
    • Increased risk of birth complications
    • Newborn neurological deficits
  • Stress and Emotion
    • Increased risk of stillbirth
    • Impaired immune responses
  • Environmental Toxins
    • E.g., air pollution
    • Cognitive deficits
    • Increased risk of obesity
111
Q

Drug Use During Pregnancy

A
  • Opioid use is becoming increasingly common

- Smoking, alcohol consumption

112
Q

Smoking

A

-Remember it’s a type of drug

  • Increases Risk of:
    • Miscarriage
    • Stillbirth
    • Premature Births
    • SIDS (Sudden Infant Death Syndrome)
    • Attention Deficits
    • Hyperactivity
    • Conduct Problems
    -Last three mentioned show more during school age
113
Q

Alcohol Consumption

A
  • Can result in Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)
    • Most common known cause of intellectual disability
  • Increased risk for:
    • Microcephaly
    • Heart Defects
    • Irritability
114
Q

Development in Childhood

A
  • Motor development (kind of Piaget)
  • Attachment (Ainsworth)
  • Developmental theories:
    • Erickson
    • Piaget
    • Vygotsky
    • Kohlberg
115
Q

Motor Development

A
  • The progression of muscular coordination required for physical activities
  • Motor = movement abilities
  • 1st year or 2 of life is where this development happens
  • Maturation: development that reflects the gradual unfolding of one’s genetic blueprint
  • Developmental Norm: Just an average!
  • Cultural Variations of Motor Development: cultural and environment matter!
    • Ex: different cultures have different norms
    • Ex: more encouragement for certain acts in certain cultures
116
Q

Attachment

A
  • The close and emotional bonds of affection that develop between infants and their caregivers (can be grandparents, adoptive parents, siblings, whoever)
    • Majority of females prefer their mothers due to the predominant experience with them early in development
  • Separation Anxiety: emotional distress seen in many infants when separated from people with whom they have formed an attachment
    • Peaks around 14-18 months (but can be seen in older kids)
117
Q

Harlow Study

A
  • Removed infant monkeys from their mothers
  • ”Cloth” or “wire” mother
  • All monkeys sought comfort from the cloth mother when they were scared
  • Didn’t seek physiological (need for food), but rather the warmth
118
Q

What was the outcome of the Harlow study?

A

Monkey chose cloth mother

119
Q

Mary Ainsworth’s Attachment Theory

A
  • The Strange Situation
    • Secure (upset when mom leaves, happy when they return; natural, positive attachment you want with your child)
    • Anxious-Ambivalent (anxious when mom leaves, but when she gets back, doesn’t give too much an excited response
    • Avoidant (doesn’t care when mom leaves or comes back)
120
Q

Janelle is going to daycare for the first time today. When her and her mother arrive, Janelle is left with the new babystiter as her mother fills out paperwork in a different room. Janelle starts to cry hysterically. The babysitter tries to comfort Janelle but to no avail. When Janelle’s mother returns to say goodbye, Janelle approaches her but rejects contact with her. Type of attachment?

A

Anxious-Ambivalent.

121
Q

Carrie is playing in the living room with her mother. The doorbell rings and her mother walks out of sight to greet the neighbor. The neighbor walks inside while Carrie’s mother goes to check the mail. Carrie begins to cry because her mother is no longer in sight. When her mother returns, Carrie gets excited and walks to her, then returns to playing. Type of attachment?

A

Secure.

122
Q

Nicole is at the mall with her son Drew. Nicole sees her friend Erin that has never met Drew. Nicole asks Erin if she can watch Drew while she runs to do a return. Drew did not care when his mom left and played happily with Erin. He continued to play with Erin and did not react to his mom when she returned. Type of attachment?

A

Avoidant.

123
Q

Piaget’s Stage Theory and 4 Main Stages?

A
  • Environment and maturation interact to influence the way children think
    1) Sensorimotor

2) Preoperational
3) Concrete Operational
4) Formal Operational

124
Q

Sensorimotor Stage

A
  • Birth to 2-years-old
  • First stage
  • Object Permanence: Understanding that an object still exists even though it can’t be seen
  • Coordination of sensory input and motor responses; development in object permanence
  • Exploring environment
  • Sit up on own and walk a bit
125
Q

Preoperational Period

A
  • 2 to 7 years old
  • Second stage
  • Centration: The tendency to focus one just one feature of a problem
  • Development of symbolic thought marked by irreversibility, concentration, and egocentrism
  • Think of beaker example
126
Q

Concrete Operational

A
  • 7 to 11 years old
  • Third stage
  • Decentration: the ability to focus on more than just one feature to a problem
  • Decline in egocentrism
    • They start to understand other people’s emotions, POVs, and opinions
    • Understand they’re not the only one with emotions
  • Begin mastery of concrete operations, but struggle with hierarchical classification
    • Starting to understand things have different types of classifications
    • Able to understand beaker example

-Mental operations applied to concrete events; mastery of conversation, hierarchical classification

127
Q

Formal Operational

A
  • 11 to adulthood
  • Fourth stage
  • Begin to apply their operations to abstract concepts in addition to concrete objects
  • Begin to enjoy the contemplation of abstract concepts
    • E.g., hypothetical possibilities related to abstractions
      • E.g., free will, love, etc.
  • Mental operations, applied to abstract ideas; logical, systematic thinking
  • Ex: able to understand metaphorically, not literally “don’t just a book by its cover.”
128
Q

Alex knows that there are equal amounts of quarters in each row. Which stage of Piaget’s theory?

A

Concrete operational.

129
Q

Lily can now play peek-a-boo. Which stage of Piaget’s theory?

A

Sensorimotor.

130
Q

Jane does NOT know that there are equal amounts of quarters in each row. Which stage of Piaget’s theory?

A

Preoperational.

131
Q

Lucille is pondering world peace and how to attain it. Which stage of Piaget’s theory?

A

Formal operational.

132
Q

Vygotsky’s Sociocultural Theory

A
  • In contrast to Piaget:
    • Emphasized that children’s cognitive development is driven by social interactions with parents, teachers, and older children who can provide guidance
      • We need help from people
  • Remember: Piaget emphasized that children’s cognitive development is driven by their individual exploration of the world around them
    • Individual exploration
133
Q

Beyond Childhood

A
  • Adolescence
  • Emerging Adulthood
  • Adulthood
  • Aging
134
Q

Adolescence

A

-According to Erickson, the main challenge of adolescence is the struggle to “find yourself”

  • Identity confusion is associated with increased risks in:
    • Substance abuse
    • Unprotected sexual activity
    • Low self-esteem
    • Eating disorders

-12-18 years-of-age (basically, until you finish high school)

135
Q

Emerging Adulthood

A

-18 to 25

  • A distinct transitional stage of life
    • Delaying marriage and parenthood
    • Higher education/”super seniors”
  • Key features:
    1. Feeling that one is in between adolescence and adulthood
    2. Age of possibilities
    3. Continued struggles with identity
136
Q

Adulthood

A

-Family/relationship responsibility

  • Marriage
    • Increase in people waiting to get married
      • Career
      • Education
    • Albert, 90% of people eventually marry
  • Parenthood
    • Increase in people choosing to stay childless
    • Albeit, the majority of couples still have children
137
Q

Aging

A
  • Changes:
    • Appearance (wrinkles, hair loss)
    • Neuron and sensory loss
      • Sensory = loss of hearing and decreased vision
    • Hormones
      • In women, think of menopause
    • Decreased mental speed and memory
138
Q

Defining Personality

A
  • An individual’s unique set of consistent behavioral traits
  • Consistency (not always though)
  • Distinctiveness
139
Q

Defining Personality Trait

A
  • A durable disposition to behave in a particular way in a variety of situations
    • Ex: If more extroverted, likely that in variety of situations, they’ll be more extroverted

-Gordon Allport: identified more than 4,000 terms for personality traits in dictionary

140
Q

The Big Five Factor Model

A
  • Some traits are more basic than others
    • Ex: impulsive, restless, irritable, boisterous can all be derived from tendency to be excitable
  • Most popular personality model
  • ”Factor Analysis” uses correlations among MANY variables to identify such underlying “factors”
  • Robert McCrae & Paul Costa developed the five-factor model of personality
  • Acronym: OCEAN
    1. Extroversion
    2. Neuroticism
    3. Openness
    4. Agreeableness
    5. Conscientiousness
141
Q

Extroversion

A
  • Outgoing

- Likes to go out and be center of attention

142
Q

Neuroticism

A
  • High anxiety
  • Fear
  • Worried
  • Stressed
143
Q

Openness

A
  • Curious

- Like to try new things

144
Q

Agreeableness

A

-Get along with people

145
Q

Conscientiousness

A
  • Hardworking

- Good, like student or employee

146
Q

Extraversion and Career Success. Type of correlation?

A

Positive.

*Correlation is not causation

147
Q

Neuroticism and Career Success. Type of correlation?

A

Negative.

*Correlation is not causation

148
Q

Agreeableness and Divorce. Type of correlation?

A

Negative.

*Correlation is not causation

149
Q

Conscientiousness and Divorce. Type of correlation?

A

Negative.

*Correlation is not causation

150
Q

Openness and Longevity. Type of correlation?

A

Positive.

*Correlation is not causation

151
Q

Conscientiousness and Longevity. Type of correlation?

A

Positive.

*Correlation is not causation

152
Q

4 Perspectives on Personality

A
  1. Psychodynamic
  2. Biological
  3. Humanistic
  4. Behavioral
153
Q

Psychodynamic Perspective

A
  • Reality Principle: seeks to delay gratification of id’s urges until appropriate outlets and situations can be found
  • It’s the ego’s job to meet the needs of the id, while taking into consideration the reality of the situation
  • Ego mediates between Id and Superego
  • Superego is the moral part of us and develops due to the moral and ethical restraints placed on us by our caregivers
  • Intrapsychic conflict (between id, ego, and superego) creates→ Anxiety → Reliance on defence mechanisms
154
Q

3 Parts of Personality (From Psychodynamic Perspective)?

A
  • Id:
    • More Impulsive
    • Selfish child
    • Part of personality that wants to give into its own pleasures
  • Ego:
    • Mediator
    • Reality Principle
    • Fights back urges until it can find resolution
  • Superego:
    • Like parents (don’t do that! It’ll ruin your life)
    • Deals with morals/morality

-These are all hypothetical aspects!

155
Q

Psychodynamic Perspective Defense Mechanisms

A
  • Sublimation
  • Repression
  • Projection
  • Displacement
  • Reaction Formation
  • Regression
  • Rationalization
  • Identification
156
Q

Behavioral Perspective on Personality Based on Skinner’s Ideas

A

-Determinism: Behavior is fully determined by environmental stimuli

  • Personality seen as a collection of response tendencies that are tied to various stimulus situation
    • Personality changes depending on environment
  • New experiences strengthen or weaken response tendencies
  • He believed it was ALL environment that influenced personality
157
Q

Behavioral Perspective on Personality Based on Bandura’s Cognitive Theory

A
  • Personality shaped through learning
    • Maximize favorable outcomes
  • Observational learning: Many response tendencies are the product of imitation
    • Remember that Bandura discovered observational learning

-High self-efficacy → belief that one can tackle challenges

-Low self- efficacy → worry and procrastination
And probably lead to negative outcomes

158
Q

Behavioral Perspective on Personality Based on Mischel and the Person-Situation Controversy

A
  • Situational factors also govern behavior
    • People make responses they think will lead to reinforcement in a particular situation

-People can be inconsistent in their behavior in different situations

  • Groundbreaking – personality and situation matter!
    • First one to discuss situation effects personality
159
Q

3 people associated with behavioral perspective?

A
  • Skinner
  • Bandura: Social Cognitive Theory
  • Mischel: Person-Situation Controversy
160
Q

Humanistic Perspective

A
  • Humanistic theory emerged in the 1950s as a backlash against behavioral and psychodynamic theories
  • Emphasizes unique qualities of humans
  • Potential for personal growth
  • Optimistic view of human growth
  • Subjective view more important than objective reality
  • Holds positive view of humans for potential growth
  • Associate this perspective with growth
161
Q

Humanistic Perspective. Roger’s Person-Centered Theory.

A
  • Theory built based on interactions with clients
  • Self-concept: our image or perception of ourselves
  • Incongruence: the degree of disparity between one’s self-concept and one’s actual experience
  • Unconditional love from parents fosters congruence
    • Unconditional love: there’s no condition in love you’re receiving
  • Conditional love from parents fosters incongruence
    • Leads to blocking out unworthy parts of self-concept

-Like father of humanistic perspective

162
Q

Humanistic Perspective. Maslow’s Theory of Self-Actualization

A
  • Motives are organized into a hierarchy of needs
  • Progression up the pyramid, once lower needs are satisfied
  • Innate drive for personal growth
  • ”Self-actualizing people” are considered to have healthy personalities
  • Kenrick and colleagues (2010) recently revised the pyramid
  • Argued self-actualization are pursued for esteem needs
    • Ex: seek beauty and knowledge to impress others
  • Added reproductive needs to top of pyramid
  • Maslow/Self-actualization theory associated with PERSONAL growth
163
Q

Maslow’s Pyramid

A
  • Reproductive Needs
    • Added by Kenrick and colleagues recently
  • Self-Actualization:
  • morality, creativity, spontaneity, problem solving, lack of prejudice, accepting of facts
  • Esteem
    • Self-esteem, confidence, achievement, respect of others, respect by others
  • Love/Belonging
    • Friendship, family, sexual intimacy
  • Safety
    • Security of body, of employment, of resources, of morality, of the family, of property
  • Physiological
    • Breathing, food, water, sex, sleep, homeostasis, excretion
  • Progression if lower needs are satisfied
  • Regression if lower needs are not being satisfied
164
Q

Evaluating Humanistic Perspectives

A
  • The Good:
    • Self-concept
    • Positive psychology
  • The Bad:
    • Hard to study
    • Unrealistically optimistic
    • More research is needed
165
Q

People associated with humanistic perspective?

A
  • Rogers

- Maslow

166
Q

Biological Perspective

A
  • Eysenck’s Theory
  • Personality is hierarchy of traits
  • Genes influence physiological functioning, thereby influencing ease of acquiring conditioned responses
  • The way we respond to our environment is influenced by our genes
167
Q

Biological Perspective. Behavioral Genetics.

A
  • Identical twins much more similar on Big 5 traits than fraternal twins, even when reared apart
    • Shows strong relationship between genes and personality
  • Interestingly, shared family environments (i.e. reared together) appears to have remarkably little impact on personality
  • Remember genes influence intelligence too!
168
Q

Biological Perspective. Evolutionary Approach.

A

-Natural selection has favored particular traits

  • David Buss: People have evolved the ability to detect The Big 5 in others to help them live in groups
    • Increases their likelihood to survive

-Daniel Nettle: Traits themselves (not detection of them) are the product of evolution

169
Q

Evaluating Biological Perspective

A
  • The Good:
    • Twin studies on personality
  • The Bad:
    • Too much emphasis on heritability estimates of genes on behavior
    • Hard to disentangle personality from genetics and environment
    • Major Con: Underemphasize environment; focus too much on genes
170
Q

People associated with biological perspective?

A
  • Eysenck
  • Kinda David Buss
  • Kinda Daniel Nettle
171
Q

Pat takes a prescription medication in order to reduce pain; Kelly takes the same medication in order to experience a “drug high.” Pat’s behavior is reinforced by ____ reinforcement and Kelly’s behavior by ____ reinforcement?

A

Negative; positive

172
Q

A pigeon learns to peck at a disk lighted green to receive reinforcement, but not at a disk lighted red. This means that, for the pigeon, the color of the disk is a

A

Discriminative stimulus.

173
Q

​A relatively durable change in behavior or knowledge that is due to experience is defined as

A

Learning.

174
Q

The principles of learning and conditioning have…

A

Been widely applied in education, business, and industry.

175
Q

According to Skinner, the fundamental principle of operant conditioning is that organisms tend to repeat those responses that

A

Are followed by favorable consequences

176
Q

Conditioned taste aversions represent an unusual or atypical example of

A

Classical conditioning

177
Q

One Saturday, Clayton was sitting at home when the telephone rang. A local company was making promotional calls and told Clayton he had just won a $500 gift certificate. He felt a rush of excitement at the thought of what he could do with $500. Now Clayton finds that whenever he hears a telephone ring, he feels a little surge of excitement. In this example, the conditioned response is

A

The surge of excitement that Clayton feels whenever he hears the phone ring.

178
Q

When an individual has a phobia, the irrational fear and anxiety that the person experiences is

A

A conditioned response

179
Q

Stimulus generalization occurs when

A

An organism responds to new stimuli that are similar to the original conditioned stimulus

180
Q

According to the cognitive explanation of classical conditioning, a CS that is a “good” signal associated with an US is a CS that

A

Accurately predicts the presentation of the U.S.

181
Q

Application of conditioning principles to change behavior problems is generally known as

A

Behavior modification

182
Q

Food is an example of ____; praise is an example of ____.

A

A primary reinforcer; a secondary reinforcer

183
Q

In Bandura’s famous study on the power of modeling, the children who were most likely to play aggressively with the Bobo doll were the children who saw a film of a model behaving

A

In an aggressive manner and receiving positive consequences

184
Q

A dog is first conditioned to salivate to a tone. Then, a light is paired with the tone for a number of trials. Finally, the light is presented alone, and the dog salivates. This procedure is known as

A

Higher-order conditioning

185
Q

If you devise a self-modification program in which you systematically reward yourself for studying, you are applying the principles of

A

Operant conditioning

186
Q

A small enclosure used by psychologists to study learning in which an animal can make a specific response that is recorded while the consequences are systematically controlled is known as a

A

Skinner box.

187
Q

Businesses often provide good meals and pleasant surroundings when initially meeting with new clients. In these situations, clients may develop positive feelings toward their business host and the company he or she represents. If this occurs, then the pleasant surroundings have functioned as

A

An unconditioned stimulus

188
Q

An antecedent in a behavior modification program is

A

A source of a reinforcement

189
Q

The initial stage of learning a response is called

A

Acquisition

190
Q

A salesperson earns a bonus for every three items of clothing she sells. The bonus is given on which type of reinforcement schedule?

A

Fixed ratio.

191
Q

Studies of response-outcome relations and reinforcement have found that

A

People actively reason out the relations between responses and the outcomes that follow.

192
Q

According to Bandura, your motivation to perform an observed response depends on

A

Your expectation of being reinforced for the response

193
Q

A multilevel classification system based on common properties among items is called

A

A conceptual hierarchy

194
Q

Imagine that researchers find some memories are lost very quickly from memory, while other memories last much longer. This evidence would create the MOST problems for

A

The decay theory of forgetting

195
Q

The process of making attributions about the origins of memories is referred to as

A

Source monitoring

196
Q

The fact that your memory for a specific event may be influenced by the amount of attention you pay to the event, the level at which you process information about the event, how you organize the information, and the amount of interference you experience reflects which of the following unifying themes of your textbook?

A

Behavior is determined by multiple causes.

197
Q

If you try to remember something but cannot, yet you know the information is in memory, you are experiencing the

A

Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon

198
Q

Dave is thrown from his motorcycle and suffers a severe blow to the head, resulting in loss of memory for events that occurred before the accident. This is an example of

A

Retrograde amnesia

199
Q

When an individual’s memory for an event is altered by the later introduction of inaccurate or misleading information, it is referred to as the

A

Reconstruction effect

200
Q

The tendency to mold our interpretation of the past to fit how events actually turned out is called

A

Hindsight bias

201
Q

Remembering to perform actions in the future involves

A

Prospective memory

202
Q

Psychologists who doubt the accuracy of recovered memories of abuse maintain that

A

Recovered memories are inadvertently created in individuals after a therapist makes suggestions of childhood abuse

203
Q

Strategies designed to enhance memory through the use of either verbal cues or visual imagery to enrich encoding are termed

A

Mnemonic devices

204
Q

Which theory suggests that memory is enhanced by forming both semantic and visual codes?

A

Dual-coding theory

205
Q

The profound anterograde amnesia that H. M. experienced after undergoing surgery to control his epilepsy suggests that

A

The hippocampal complex plays a key role in the consolidation of long-term memories

206
Q

Why does the text advocate the spacing of study sessions as a method for improving your memory?

A

Evidence suggests that massed study sessions leads to poor retention

207
Q

A history teacher who asks his students to state from memory the first ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution is assessing retention by using the ____ method.

A

Recall

208
Q

According to interference theory,

A

People forget information because of competition from other material

209
Q

The basic process in memory that involves formation of a memory code is

A

Encoding

210
Q

Baddeley’s concept of working memory

A

Expands the functions and processes of short-term memory

211
Q

If you were attempting to recall a memory, the memory process you would be using is

A

Retrieval

212
Q

Unusually vivid and detailed recollections of momentous events are called

A

Flashbulb memories

213
Q

According to Sigmund Freud, the process that is at work when distressing thoughts and feelings remain buried in the unconscious is

A

Regression

214
Q

Your memory of how to do something, such as how to shoot a free throw in basketball, is contained in your

A

Nondeclarative memory

215
Q

Focusing awareness on a narrowed range of stimuli or events defines

A

Attention

216
Q

The ability to generate ideas that are original, novel, and useful defines

A

Creativity

217
Q

People often assume that it is necessary to use all the numerical information provided in a problem in order to solve the problem. In reality, numerical information sometimes makes it more difficult to solve a problem because the information

A

May be irrelevant

218
Q

Ira has never done well on conventional tests designed to measure reasoning abilities, but when new and complex situations arise at his job, he is always the one who seems to come up with novel and effective solutions for the problems. According to Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, Ira shows

A

High creative intelligence but lower analytical intelligence

219
Q

(Mental age/chronological age) ´ 100 yields

A

An intelligence quotient.

220
Q

In solving a problem using divergent thinking, a person

A

Tries to generate many possible answers or solutions

221
Q

The primary disadvantage that bilingual learners have relative to monolingual learners is in the domain of

A

Processing speed

222
Q

According to Simon’s theory of bounded rationality, people tend to use

A

Simple strategies in decision-making that focus on only a few facets of available options and often result in irrational decisions that are less than equal

223
Q

According to behaviorist theory, children’s vocabularies increase and their pronunciation improves as

A

Parents insist on closer and closer approximations of the correct word before they provide reinforcement

224
Q

Adoption studies comparing the intelligence of adopted children to their ____ provides support for the role of genetic factors in intelligence.

A

Biological parents

225
Q

Darla was struggling to solve a difficult problem so she took a break to have lunch. As she ate, the solution to the problem suddenly occurred to her when she was not even consciously thinking about it. Darla experienced the ___________ effect.

A

Incubation

226
Q

If your score falls at the 75th percentile on a standardized test, which of the following is an accurate interpretation?

A

75% of the people who took the test scored at or below your score.

227
Q

Researchers presented two groups of physicians with information regarding a surgical procedure. Half the physicians were told that on average 15 out of 100 people die as a result of the surgery; the remaining physicians were told that on average 85 out of 100 people survive the surgery. Based on the framing effect, you should expect

A

The second group of physicians would be more likely to recommend the surgical procedure to their parents

228
Q

When tested on the Binet-Simon scale, Ada is found to have a mental age of 8. This means

A

That her performance was comparable to the average 8-year-old child

229
Q

If you tend to persist in using the same problem-solving strategy time after time, you are evidencing

A

A mental set

230
Q

Correlations between students’ IQ scores and their school grades suggest that IQ tests

A

Are a reasonably valid method to predict school performance

231
Q

Reliability refers to the ____ of a measuring device such as a test.

A

Consistency

232
Q

Functional fixedness refers to

A

The tendency to see an items only in terms of its most common use

233
Q

The structure that allows both oxygen and nutrients to pass into the fetus from the mother’s bloodstream and bodily wastes to pass out to the mother’s bloodstream is the

A

Placenta

234
Q

In women, menopause typically occurs around age

A

50

235
Q

Kara takes her one-year-old son, Delaney, to visit a daycare center where she plans to enroll him. Delaney appears very anxious and is unwilling to explore the playroom, even though Kara is close by. When his mom leaves the room to fill out some forms, Delaney becomes extremely upset. When Kara returns, he clings to her leg but does not calm down and continues to sob. This is the type of interaction you might observe between a child and a parent who

A

Share an anxious-ambivalent attachment relationship

236
Q

An increase in rates of father absence over the years has coincided with an increase in teenage pregnancy and drug abuse. However, conclusions are limited due to

A

Correlational data

237
Q

The immaturity of the prefrontal cortex has been used to explain

A

Why adolescents engage in risky behavior like reckless driving and unprotected sex

238
Q

According to Piaget, during the formal operational period of cognitive development, children begin to

A

Think in terms of abstract principles and hypothetical possibilities

239
Q

Differing views on the course and nature of changes in personality across the lifespan illustrates which of the following unifying themes from your text?

A

Psychology is theoretically diverse

240
Q

A child who says, “I sawed a cat in the yard,” is making which of the following errors?

A

Overregularization

241
Q

Females developing wider hips and males developing facial hair are examples of

A

Secondary sexual characteristics

242
Q

Stage theories of development assume that

A

Individuals progress through specified stages in a particular order because each stage builds on the previous stage

243
Q

Mr. and Mrs. McKavick have three school-age children. Their next-door neighbors, Mr. and Mrs. Clancy, have three grandchildren who are about the same age as the McKavick’s children. At the present time, based on research into marital satisfaction, it is most likely that

A

The Clancys are experiencing higher levels of marital satisfaction than the McKavicks are

244
Q

The third stage of prenatal development, which lasts from two months through birth, is referred to as the

A

Fetal stage

245
Q

Individuals at the ____ level of moral development tend to use a personal code of ethics to guide their moral reasoning and behavior.

A

Postconventional

246
Q

If a baby is born with a small head, heart defects, and retarded mental and motor development, the mother is MOST likely to have

A

Been an alcoholic

247
Q

Expectations about what is appropriate behavior for each sex MOST accurately describes

A

Gender roles

248
Q

Jenna is 14 months old and uses only “bottle,” “no,” “up,” “bye-bye,” “mama,” and “dada” when she talks. However, when the family is on their way to visit Jenna’s grandmother, and her father tells Jenna to get her blue bunny from the bedroom and bring it with her, Jenna quickly runs to get the bunny. This episode demonstrates that

A

A toddlers’ receptive vocabularies are larger than their productive vocabularies

249
Q

In explaining behavior, social learning theorist Walter Mischel is most interested in the influence of

A

The situation

250
Q

A personality measure that asks you to respond freely to an ambiguous stimulus such as a picture or an inkblot is called a

A

Projective test

251
Q

Which level of awareness contains material just beneath the surface of awareness that can easily be retrieved?

A

Preconsciousness

252
Q

Colton is completing a long personality inventory, and he doesn’t really want to take the time to read each of the questions in detail. Instead, he simply disagrees with all the statements. Colton’s method of completing the personality inventory shows

A

A response test

253
Q

The superego is Freud’s term for

A

The moral component of personality

254
Q

The belief that one has the ability to perform behaviors that should lead to expected outcomes is referred to as

A

Self-efficacy

255
Q

____ is a statistical procedure used by researchers to identify closely related clusters of variables.

A

Factor analysis

256
Q

An individual’s unique constellation of consistent behavioral traits is known as

A

Personality

257
Q

Research on national character using the Big Five personality traits found that

A

Subjects displayed considerable agreement concerning what was typical of their culture

258
Q

The collection of beliefs about one’s own nature, unique qualities, and typical behavior is referred to as one’s ____, according to Rogers.

A

Self-concept

259
Q

The findings from twin studies indicate that identical twins are much more similar than fraternal twins on what?

A

-Neuroticism, extraversion, and conscientiousness

260
Q

Abraham Maslow called the need to fulfill one’s potential the need for

A

Self-actualization

261
Q

Thomas describes himself as an open and relaxed individual, but people who know him well would describe Thomas as secretive and tense. According to Carl Rogers, Thomas is likely to

A

Experience incongruence

262
Q

According to Adler, compensation

A

Involves efforts to overcome imagined or real inferiorities by developing one’s abilities

263
Q

The id is

A

The primitive, instinctive component of personality

264
Q

Your psychology professor argues that personality is a collection of response tendencies that are tied to various stimulus situations. What theory of personality is she presenting?

A

Behaviorism

265
Q

The largely unconscious reactions used to protect a person from unpleasant emotions such as anxiety and guilt are

A

Defense mechanism

266
Q

According to the five-factor model of personality, people who score high in ____ are characterized as anxious, hostile, self-conscious, insecure, and vulnerable.

A

Neuroticism

267
Q

Freud’s concept of the unconscious is MOST like Jung’s

A

Personal unconscious

268
Q

_____________ is a personality trait marked by an inflated sense of self-worth and a tendency to exploit other people.

A

Narcissism

269
Q

Sigmund Freud’s theory of personality was influenced by the Victorian climate of sexual repression, a fact that illustrates which of the following unifying themes of your textbook

A

Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.