Test 2 Flashcards
(147 cards)
1
Q
1) Which of the following statements regarding Arnold Palmer Hospital is FALSE?
A) The hospital uses a wide range of quality management techniques.
B) The culture of quality at the hospital includes employees at all levels.
C) The hospital scores very highly in national studies of patient satisfaction.
D) The hospital’s high quality is measured by low readmission rates, not patient satisfaction.
E) The design of patient rooms, even wall colors, reflects the hospital’s culture of quality.
A
D) The hospital’s high quality is measured by low readmission rates, not patient satisfaction.
2
Q
2) Arnold Palmer Hospital uses which of the following quality management techniques?
A) Pareto charts
B) flowcharts
C) benchmarking
D) just-in-time
E) The hospital uses all of the above techniques.
A
E) The hospital uses all of the above techniques.
3
Q
3) Companies with the highest levels of quality are how many times more productive than their competitors with the lowest quality levels?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) None of the above because quality has no impact on productivity (units/labor hr.).
A
D) 5
4
Q
4) A successful quality strategy features which of the following elements?
A) an organizational culture that fosters quality
B) an understanding of the principles of quality
C) engaging employees in the necessary activities to implement quality
D) A and C
E) A, B, and C
A
E) A, B, and C
5
Q
5) Quality can improve profitability by reducing costs. Which of the following is not an aspect of reduced costs by quality improvements?
A) flexible pricing
B) increased productivity
C) lower rework and scrap costs
D) lower warranty costs
E) All of the above are aspects of reduced costs by quality improvements.
A
A) flexible pricing
6
Q
6) “Quality lies in the eyes of the beholder” is:
A) an unrealistic definition of quality.
B) a user-based definition of quality.
C) a manufacturing-based definition of quality.
D) a product-based definition of quality.
E) the definition of quality proposed by the American Society for Quality.
A
B) a user-based definition of quality.
7
Q
7) “Making it right the first time” is:
A) an unrealistic definition of quality.
B) a user-based definition of quality.
C) a manufacturing-based definition of quality.
D) a product-based definition of quality.
E) the definition of quality proposed by the American Society for Quality
A
C) a manufacturing-based definition of quality.
8
Q
8) Three broad categories of definitions of quality are:
A) product quality, service quality, and organizational quality.
B) user based, manufacturing based, and product based.
C) internal, external, and prevention.
D) low-cost, response, and
A
B) user based, manufacturing based, and product based.
9
Q
9) Which of the following is NOT one of the major categories of costs associated with quality?
A) prevention costs
B) appraisal costs
C) internal failure costs
D) external failure costs
E) None of the above; they are all major categories of costs associated with quality.
A
E) None of the above; they are all major categories of costs associated with quality.
10
Q
10) All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality EXCEPT: A) customer dissatisfaction costs. B) inspection costs. C) scrap costs. D) warranty and service costs. E) maintenance costs.
A
E) maintenance costs.
11
Q
11) "The employee cannot produce products that on average exceed the quality of what the process is capable of producing" expresses a basic philosophy in the writings of: A) Vilfredo Pareto. B) Armand Feigenbaum. C) Joseph M. Juran. D) W. Edwards Deming. E) Philip B. Crosby.
A
D) W. Edwards Deming.
12
Q
12) Stakeholders who are affected by the production and marketing of poor quality products include:
A) stockholders, employees, and customers.
B) suppliers and creditors, but not distributors.
C) only stockholders, creditors, and owners.
D) suppliers and distributors, but not customers.
E) only stockholders and organizational executives and managers.
A
A) stockholders, employees, and customers.
13
Q
13) To become ISO 9000 certified, organizations must:
A) document quality procedures.
B) have an onsite assessment.
C) have an ongoing series of audits of their products or service.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
A
D) all of the above
14
Q
14) Quality is mostly the business of the quality control staff, not ordinary employees.
A
True
15
Q
15) TQM is important because each of the ten decisions made by operations managers deals with some aspect of identifying and meeting customer expectations.
A
True
16
Q
16) The phrase Six Sigma has two meanings. One is statistical, referring to an extremely high process, product, or service capability; the other is a comprehensive system for achieving and sustaining business success
A
True
17
Q
17) The philosophy of zero defects is:
A) the result of Deming’s research.
B) unrealistic.
C) prohibitively costly.
D) an ultimate goal; in practice, 1 to 2% defects is acceptable.
E) consistent with the commitment to continuous improvement.
A
E) consistent with the commitment to continuous improvement.
18
Q
18) PDCA, developed by Shewhart, stands for which of the following? A) Plan-Do-Check-Act B) Plan-Develop-Check-Accept C) Problem-Develop Solution-Check-Act D) Problem-Do-Continue-Act E) Prepare-Develop-Create-Assess
A
A) Plan-Do-Check-Act
19
Q
19) Total quality management emphasizes:
A) the responsibility of the quality control staff to identify and solve all quality-related problems.
B) a commitment to quality that goes beyond internal company issues to suppliers and customers.
C) a system where strong managers are the only decision makers.
D) a process where mostly statisticians get involved.
E) ISO 14000 certification.
A
B) a commitment to quality that goes beyond internal company issues to suppliers and customers.
20
Q
20) Techniques for building employee empowerment include:
A) building communication networks that include employees.
B) developing open, supportive supervisors.
C) moving responsibility from both managers and staff to production employees.
D) building high-morale organizations.
E) All of the above are techniques for employee empowerment.
A
E) All of the above are techniques for employee empowerment.
21
Q
21) The process of identifying other organizations that are best at some facet of your operations and then modeling your organization after them is known as: A) continuous improvement. B) employee empowerment. C) benchmarking. D) copycatting. E) patent infringement.
A
C) benchmarking
22
Q
22) Pareto charts are a graphical way of identifying the few critical items from the many less important ones.
A
True
23
Q
23) The “four Ms” of cause-and-effect diagrams are:
A) material, machinery/equipment, manpower, and methods.
B) material, methods, men, and mental attitude.
C) named after four quality experts.
D) material, management, manpower, and motivation.
E) mentality, motivation, management, and manpower
A
A) material, machinery/equipment, manpower, and methods
24
Q
24) Among the tools of TQM, the tool ordinarily used to aid in understanding the sequence of events through which a product travels is a: A) Pareto chart. B) flowchart. C) check sheet. D) Taguchi map. E) poka-yoke.
A
B) flowchart.
25
```
25) A fishbone chart is also known as a:
A) cause-and-effect diagram.
B) poka-yoke diagram.
C) Kaizen diagram.
D) Kanban diagram.
E) Taguchi diagram
```
A) cause-and-effect diagram.
26
```
26) The goal of inspection is to:
A) detect a bad process immediately.
B) add value to a product or service.
C) correct deficiencies in products.
D) correct system deficiencies.
E) all of the above
```
A) detect a bad process immediately.
27
27) A good description of source inspection is inspecting:
A) materials upon delivery by the supplier.
B) the goods at the production facility before they reach the customer.
C) the design specifications.
D) goods at the supplier's plant.
E) one's own work.
E) one's own work.
28
28) A recent consumer survey conducted for a car dealership indicates that, when buying a car, customers are primarily concerned with the salesperson's ability to explain the car's features, the salesperson's friendliness, and the dealer's honesty. The dealership should be ESPECIALLY concerned with which determinants of service quality?
A) communication, courtesy, and credibility
B) competence, courtesy, and security
C) competence, responsiveness, and reliability
D) communication, responsiveness, and reliability
E) understanding/knowing customer, responsiveness, and reliability
A) communication, courtesy, and credibility
29
```
29) Which of the determinants of service quality involves having the customer's best interests at heart?
A) access
B) courtesy
C) credibility
D) responsiveness
E) tangibles
```
C) credibility
30
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30) Which of the determinants of service quality involves performing the service right the first time?
A) access
B) courtesy
C) credibility
D) reliability
E) responsiveness
```
D) reliability
31
31) If a sample of items is taken and the mean of the sample is outside the control limits, the process is:
A) likely out of control and the cause should be investigated.
B) in control, but not capable of producing within the established control limits.
C) within the established control limits with only natural causes of variation.
D) monitored closely to see if the next sample mean will also fall outside the control limits.
E) producing high quality products.
A) likely out of control and the cause should be investigated
32
32) The purpose of an x-bar chart is to determine whether there has been a:
A) change in the dispersion of the process output.
B) change in the percent defective in a sample.
C) change in the central tendency of the process output.
D) change in the number of defects in a sample.
E) change in the AOQ.
C) change in the central tendency of the process output.
33
33) An x-bar control chart was examined and no data points fell outside of the limits. Can this process be considered in control?
A) Not yet, there could be a pattern to the points.
B) Not yet, the R-chart must be checked.
C) Not yet, the number of samples must be known.
D) Yes.
E) Both A and B
E) Both A and B
34
```
34) What is the statistical process chart used to control the number of defects per unit of output?
A) x-bar chart
B) R-chart
C) p-chart
D) AOQ chart
E) c-chart
```
E) c-chart
35
35) A firm's process strategy is its approach to transforming resources into goods and services.
True
36
36) The assembly line is a classic example of a repetitive process.
True
37
37) Three of the four types of processes are:
A) goods, services, and hybrids.
B) manual, automated, and service.
C) process focus, repetitive focus, and product focus.
D) modular, continuous, and technological.
E) input, transformation, and output.
C) process focus, repetitive focus, and product focus.
38
```
38) Which of the following industries is most likely to have low equipment utilization?
A) auto manufacturing
B) commercial baking
C) television manufacturing
D) steel manufacturing
E) restaurants
```
E) restaurants
39
39) A product-focused process is commonly used to produce:
A) high-volume, high-variety products.
B) low-volume, high-variety products.
C) high-volume, low-variety products.
D) low-variety products at either high- or low-volume.
E) high-volume products of either high- or low-variety
C) high-volume, low-variety products.
40
```
40) An assembly line is an example of a:
A) product-focused process.
B) process-focused process.
C) repetitive process.
D) line process.
E) specialized process.
```
C) repetitive process.
41
41) Which of the following phrases best describes product focus?
A) low volume, high variety
B) Finished goods are usually made to order.
C) Processes are designed to perform a wide variety of activities.
D) high fixed costs, low variable costs
E) high inventory
D) high fixed costs, low variable costs
42
42) Which of the following phrases best describes process focus?
A) low volume, high variety
B) Finished goods are usually made to a forecast and stored.
C) Operators are less broadly skilled.
D) high fixed costs, low variable costs
E) low inventory
A) low volume, high variety
43
43) Which of the following characteristics best describes repetitive focus?
A) It uses sophisticated scheduling to accommodate custom orders.
B) Its output is a standardized product produced from modules.
C) Operators are broadly skilled.
D) It is widely used for the manufacture of steel.
E) low volume, high variety
B) Its output is a standardized product produced from modules.
44
44) Which of the following is true regarding the concept of flexibility?
A) It is the ability to respond with little penalty in time, cost, or customer value.
B) It may be accomplished with digitally controlled equipment.
C) It may involve modular or movable equipment.
D) All of the above are true.
E) None of the above is true.
D) All of the above are true.
45
45) Service blueprinting is a process analysis technique that focuses on the customer and the provider's interaction with the customer.
True
46
46) One fundamental difference between a process chart and a flowchart is that:
A) the process chart adds a time dimension to the horizontal axis, while a flowchart is not time-oriented.
B) the process chart includes the supply chain, while the flowchart stays within an organization.
C) the process chart is more like a table, while the flowchart is more like a schematic diagram.
D) the process chart focuses on the customer and on the provider's interaction with the customer, while the flowchart does not deal directly with the customer.
E) None of these is true, because a process chart and a flowchart are the same thing.
C) the process chart is more like a table, while the flowchart is more like a schematic diagram.
47
```
47) What is a drawing of the movement of material, product, or people?
A) flowchart
B) process chart
C) service blueprint
D) process map
E) vision system
```
A) flowchart
48
48) Professional services typically require low levels of labor intensity.
False
49
```
49) The use of information technology to monitor and control a physical process is known as:
A) process control.
B) computer-aided design.
C) information numeric control.
D) numeric control.
E) IT oversight.
```
A) process control.
50
50) Advances in technology:
A) have impacted the manufacturing sector only.
B) have had only a limited impact on services.
C) have failed to change the level of customer interaction with an organization.
D) have had a dramatic impact on customer interaction with services and with products.
E) have dramatically changed health care, but have not changed retailing.
D) have had a dramatic impact on customer interaction with services and with products.
51
51) Process redesign:
A) is the fundamental rethinking of business processes.
B) is sometimes called process reengineering.
C) tries to bring about dramatic improvements in performance.
D) often focuses on activities that cross functional lines.
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
52
52) Design capacity is the theoretical maximum output of a system in a given period under ideal conditions.
True
53
53) Effective capacity is the:
A) maximum output of a system in a given period.
B) capacity a firm expects to achieve given the current operating constraints.
C) average output that can be achieved under ideal conditions.
D) minimum usable capacity of a particular facility.
E) sum of all of the organization's inputs.
B) capacity a firm expects to achieve given the current operating constraints.
54
54) The theory of constraints is a body of knowledge that deals with anything that limits an organization's ability to achieve its goals.
False
55
55) Which of the following techniques is NOT a technique for dealing with a bottleneck?
A) Schedule throughput to match the capacity of the bottleneck.
B) Increase the capacity of the constraint.
C) Have cross-trained employees available to keep the constraint at full operation.
D) Develop alternate routings.
E) All are techniques for dealing with bottlenecks
E) All are techniques for dealing with bottlenecks
56
56) Fixed costs are those costs that continue even if no units are produced.
True
57
57) Break-even is the number of units at which:
A) total revenue equals price times quantity.
B) total revenue equals total variable cost.
C) total revenue equals total fixed cost.
D) total profit equals total cost.
E) total revenue equals total cost.
E) total revenue equals total cost.
58
```
58) Lag and straddle strategies for increasing capacity have what main advantage over a leading strategy?
A) They are cheaper.
B) They are more accurate.
C) They delay capital expenditure.
D) They increase demand.
E) All of the above are advantages.
```
C) They delay capital expenditure.
59
```
59) What is a common method used to increase capacity with a lag strategy?
A) overtime
B) subcontracting
C) new facilities
D) new machinery
E) A and B
```
E) A and B
60
60) The net present value of $10,000 to be received in exactly three years is considerably greater than $10,000.
False
61
61) FedEx chose Memphis, Tennessee, as its U.S. hub because:
A) the city is in the center of the United States, geographically.
B) the airport has relatively few hours of bad weather closures.
C) it needed a means to reach cities to which it did not have direct flights.
D) the firm believed that a hub system was superior to traditional city-to-city flight scheduling.
E) All of the above are true.
E) All of the above are true.
62
62) Industrial location analysis typically attempts to:
A) minimize costs.
B) maximize sales.
C) focus more on human resources.
D) avoid countries with strict environmental regulations.
E) ignore exchange rates and currency risks
A) minimize costs.
63
```
63) A location decision for a traditional department store (e.g., Macy's) would tend to have what type of focus?
A) cost focus
B) labor focus
C) revenue focus
D) environmental focus
E) education focus
```
C) revenue focus
64
64) Lists have been developed that rank countries on issues such as "competitiveness" and "corruption."
True
65
65) An example of an intangible cost, as it relates to location decisions, is the quality of education.
True
66
```
66) Why is Northern Mexico used as a cluster for electronics firms?
A) high traffic flows
B) venture capitalists located nearby
C) natural resources of land and climate
D) NAFTA
E) high per capita GDP
```
D) NAFTA
67
67) Among the following choices, an operations manager might best evaluate political risk of a country by looking at which type of country ranking?
A) based on competitiveness
B) based on cost of doing business
C) based on corruption
D) based on magnitude of government social programs
E) based on average duration between presidential/prime minister elections
C) based on corruption
68
```
68) Which of the following workers is the most productive?
A) $50 wages, 10 parts produced
B) $10 wages, 1 part produced
C) $30 wages, 5 parts produced
D) $100 wages, 21 parts produced
E) $500 wages, 100 parts produced
```
D) $100 wages, 21 parts produced
69
69) The reason fast food restaurants often are found in close proximity to each other is:
A) they enjoy competition.
B) location clustering near high traffic flows.
C) low cost.
D) availability of skilled labor.
E) all of the above.
B) location clustering near high traffic flows.
70
```
70) Governmental attitudes toward issues such as private property, intellectual property, zoning, pollution, and employment stability may change over time. What is the term associated with this phenomenon?
A) bureaucratic risk
B) political risk
C) legislative risk
D) judicial risk
E) democratic risk
```
B) political risk
71
71) Globalization of the location decision is the result of all EXCEPT which of the following?
A) market economics
B) higher quality of labor overseas
C) ease of capital flow between countries
D) high differences in labor costs
E) more rapid, reliable travel and shipping
B) higher quality of labor overseas
72
```
74) Intangible costs include which of the following?
A) quality of prospective employees
B) quality of education
C) availability of public transportation
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
```
D) all of the above
73
75) The graphic approach to locational cost-volume analysis displays the range of volume over which each location is preferable
True
74
76) The factor-rating method can consider both tangible and intangible costs.
True
75
```
77) The center-of-gravity method is used primarily to determine what type of locations?
A) service locations
B) manufacturing locations
C) distribution center locations
D) supplier locations
E) call center locations
```
C) distribution center locations
76
```
78) Production and transportation costs are always considered in which of the following location decision methods?
A) traffic counts
B) transportation model
C) purchasing power
D) proximity of markets
E) clustering
```
B) transportation model
77
79) Service firms choose locations based, in part, on the revenue potential of a site.
True
78
80) Which of the following is NOT among the eight determinants of revenue and volume for a service firm?
A) quality of management
B) shipment cost of finished goods
C) purchasing power of the customer-drawing area
D) uniqueness of the firm's and the competitors' locations
E) competition in the area
B) shipment cost of finished goods
79
81) Which of the following is among the eight determinants of revenue and volume for a service firm?
A) uniqueness of the firm's and the competitors' locations
B) quality of the competition
C) quality of management
D) purchasing power of the customer-drawing area
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
80
```
82) Which of the following is most likely to affect the location decision of a service firm rather than a manufacturing firm?
A) energy and utility costs
B) attitude toward unions
C) parking and access
D) cost of shipping finished goods
E) labor costs
```
C) parking and access
81
```
83) A jewelry store is more likely than a jewelry manufacturer to consider ________ in making a location decision.
A) transportation costs
B) cost of raw materials
C) appearance/image of the location
D) quality of life
E) taxes
```
C) appearance/image of the location
82
```
84) Which of the following is most likely to affect the location strategy of a manufacturing firm?
A) appearance/image of the area
B) utility costs
C) purchasing power of drawing area
D) competition in the area
E) parking availability
```
B) utility costs
83
```
85) What describes a system that stores and displays information that can be linked to a geographic location?
A) AIS
B) LOC
C) GLOC
D) LIS
E) GIS
```
E) GIS
84
86) The objective of layout strategy is to develop an effective and efficient layout that will meet the firm's competitive requirements.
True
85
87) The objective of layout strategy is to:
A) minimize cost.
B) develop an effective and efficient layout that will meet the firm's competitive requirements.
C) maximize flexibility.
D) minimize space used.
E) maximize worker satisfaction.
B) develop an effective and efficient layout that will meet the firm's competitive requirements.
86
```
88) A hospital's layout most closely resembles which of the following?
A) product oriented
B) work cell
C) job shop
D) project
E) retail
```
C) job shop
87
```
89) What layout strategy deals with low-volume, high-variety production?
A) fixed-position layout
B) retail layout
C) warehouse layout
D) office layout
E) process-oriented layout
```
E) process-oriented layout
88
```
90) "A special arrangement of machinery and equipment to focus on production of a single product or group of related products" describes what layout type?
A) fixed-position layout
B) intermittent production
C) job shop
D) work cell
E) warehouse layout
```
D) work cell
89
```
91) A good layout requires determining:
A) material handling equipment.
B) capacity and space requirements.
C) environment and aesthetics.
D) cost of moving between various work areas.
E) all of the above
```
E) all of the above
90
```
92) Which of the following constitutes a major trend influencing office layouts?
A) downsizing
B) globalization
C) environmental issues
D) off-site employees
E) health issues
```
D) off-site employees
91
```
93) Workspace can inspire informal and productive encounters if it balances what three physical and social aspects?
A) proximity, privacy, and persuasion
B) privacy, persuasion, and permission
C) proximity, privacy, and permission
D) proximity, persuasion, and permission
E) proximity, persuasion, and passion
```
C) proximity, privacy, and permission
92
94) The main goal of retail layout is:
A) minimizing material handling cost.
B) minimizing customer confusion regarding location of items.
C) minimizing storage costs.
D) minimizing space required.
E) maximizing profitability per square foot of floor space.
E) maximizing profitability per square foot of floor space.
93
95) Retail layouts are based on the notion that:
A) handling costs should be minimized.
B) storage costs should be minimized.
C) average customer visit duration should be maximized.
D) space used should be minimized.
E) maximizing customer exposure rate maximizes sales and profit.
E) maximizing customer exposure rate maximizes sales and profit.
94
96) Slotting fees:
A) are charged by retailers to stock a product.
B) can amount to as much as $25,000.
C) are not a part of Walmart's business practices.
D) can reduce the ability of small businesses to introduce new products.
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
95
97) Which of the following is NOT a retail layout practice?
A) Locate the high-draw items around the periphery of the store.
B) Distribute power items throughout the store.
C) Use end-aisle locations to maximize product exposure.
D) Use prominent locations for high-impulse and high-margin items.
E) All of the above are retail layout practices.
E) All of the above are retail layout practices.
96
98) What is the primary reason why retailers tend to locate high-draw items around the periphery of the store?
A) More shelf space for those popular items is available around the periphery.
B) There will be less congestion of customers than there would be in the middle.
C) This arrangement will help to maximize customer exposure to other items in the store.
D) It is easier to put large advertisement signs on the outside walls right next to the items.
E) This arrangement allows customers to travel through the store as quickly as possible.
C) This arrangement will help to maximize customer exposure to other items in the store.
97
99) Ambient conditions; spatial layout and functionality; and signs, symbols, and artifacts are all:
A) indicators of imbalance on an assembly line.
B) indicators that cross-docking has been successful.
C) elements of customization in a warehouse layout.
D) elements of servicescapes.
E) elements of successful office layouts.
D) elements of servicescapes.
98
100) Balancing low-cost storage with low-cost material handling is important in which of the following?
A) fixed-position layout
B) process-oriented layout
C) office layout
D) repetitive and product-oriented layout
E) warehouse layout
E) warehouse layout
99
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101) Which of the following reduces product handling, inventory, and facility costs, but requires both (1) tight scheduling and (2) accurate inbound product information?
A) phantom-docking
B) random stocking
C) ASRS
D) customizing
E) cross-docking
```
E) cross-docking
100
102) The major problem addressed by the warehouse layout strategy is:
A) minimizing difficulties caused by material flow varying with each product.
B) requiring frequent close contact between forklift drivers and item pickers.
C) addressing trade-offs between space and material handling.
D) balancing product flow from one work station to the next.
E) locating the docks near a convenient access point to the closest highway.
C) addressing trade-offs between space and material handling.
101
103) ASRS stands for which of the following?
A) automated storage and retrieval system
B) automated storage and recovery system
C) automated scan and recognize system
D) automated scan and retail system
E) automated scan and retrieval system
A) automated storage and retrieval system
102
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104) For which of the following operations would a fixed-position layout be MOST appropriate?
A) assembling automobiles
B) producing TV sets
C) constructing a highway tunnel
D) refining of crude oil
E) running an insurance agency
```
C) constructing a highway tunnel
103
105) Because problems with fixed-position layouts are so difficult to solve well onsite, operations managers:
A) virtually never employ this layout strategy.
B) utilize this approach only for construction projects such as bridges and office towers.
C) increase the size of the site.
D) often complete as much of the project as possible offsite.
E) utilize this layout only for defense contractors.
D) often complete as much of the project as possible offsite.
104
```
106) Which type of layout features departments or other functional groupings in which similar activities are performed?
A) process-oriented
B) product-oriented
C) fixed-position
D) mass production
E) unit production
```
A) process-oriented
105
107) One of the major advantages of process-oriented layouts is:
A) high equipment utilization.
B) large work-in-process inventories.
C) flexibility in equipment and labor assignment.
D) smooth and continuous flow of work.
E) small work-in-process inventories.
C) flexibility in equipment and labor assignment.
106
108) The major problem addressed by the process-oriented layout strategy is:
A) the movement of material to the limited storage areas around the site.
B) how to design a continuous flow process.
C) the provision of low-cost storage with low-cost material handling.
D) minimizing difficulties caused by material flow varying with each product.
E) balancing product flow from one work station to the next.
D) minimizing difficulties caused by material flow varying with each product.
107
109) The typical goal used when developing a process-oriented layout strategy is to:
A) minimize the distance between adjacent departments.
B) minimize the material handling costs.
C) maximize the number of different tasks that can be performed by an individual machine.
D) minimize the level of operator skill necessary.
E) maximize job specialization.
B) minimize the material handling costs.
108
110) The work cell improves layouts by reducing both floor space and direct labor cost.
True
109
111) If the schedule calls for the production of 120 units per day and 480 minutes of production time are available per day, the cycle time would be 4 minutes.
True
110
112) One drawback of a product-oriented layout is that work stoppage at any one point ties up the whole operation.
True
111
113) Cycle time is the maximum time that the product is allowed at each workstation.
True
112
```
114) A product-oriented layout would be MOST appropriate for which one of the following businesses?
A) fast food
B) steel making
C) insurance sales
D) clothing alterations
E) a grocery store
```
B) steel making
113
115) The central problem in product-oriented layout planning is:
A) minimizing material handling within workstations.
B) minimizing labor movement between workstations.
C) equalizing the space allocated to the different workstations.
D) maximizing equipment utilization.
E) minimizing the imbalance in the workloads among workstations.
E) minimizing the imbalance in the workloads among workstations.
114
116) Which of the following is a disadvantage of product-oriented layout?
A) There is a lack of flexibility necessary for handling a variety of products.
B) High volume is required because of the large investment needed to establish the process.
C) Work stoppage at any one point can tie up the whole operation.
D) There is a lack of flexibility necessary for handling a variety of production rates.
E) All of the above are disadvantages of product-oriented layouts.
E) All of the above are disadvantages of product-oriented layouts.
115
```
117) In a product-oriented layout, what is the process of deciding how to assign tasks to workstations?
A) station balancing
B) process balancing
C) task allocation
D) assembly-line balancing
E) work allocation
```
D) assembly-line balancing
116
118) If a layout problem is solved by use of heuristics, this means that:
A) there is no other way to solve the problem.
B) no computer software is available.
C) the problem has only a few alternatives to evaluate.
D) no optimum solution exists.
E) a satisfactory, but not necessarily optimal, solution is acceptable.
E) a satisfactory, but not necessarily optimal, solution is acceptable.
117
119) The objective of a human resource strategy is to manage labor and design jobs so people are effectively and efficiently utilized.
True
118
120) Technology, location, and layout decisions are all possible constraints on human resource strategy.
True
119
121) Most pit crew members have background experience in what area?
A) mechanical engineering
B) athletics
C) car mechanics
D) automobile race driving
E) No specific area—crew members come from all sorts of backgrounds
B) athletics
120
122) Which of the following best describes mutual commitment in an organization?
A) an instance in which management is committed to the employees and the employees are committed to management
B) both management and the employees are committed to the same objective
C) both management and the employees are committed, but to different objectives
D) management obtains the commitment of the employees to a stated objective
E) both management and the employees can rely on each other
B) both management and the employees are committed to the same objective
121
123) Mutual trust is:
A) when employees have gained the trust of management.
B) reflected in reasonable, documented employment policies that are honestly and equitably implemented to the satisfaction of both management and employee.
C) when management has gained the trust of the employees.
D) when management recognizes that the employees are competent, motivated people both able and willing to perform at the level required to produce a quality product.
E) when management and the employees both agree on common objectives.
B) reflected in reasonable, documented employment policies that are honestly and equitably implemented to the satisfaction of both management and employee.
122
124) Labor planning determines employment stability.
True
123
125) Maintaining a stable workforce generally results in the firm paying higher wages than a firm that varies workforce level with demand.
False
124
126) Flextime is a system that allows employees, within limits, to determine their own work schedules
True
125
127) The two most basic policies associated with employment stability are:
A) job enrichment and job enlargement.
B) employment for life and guaranteed minimum wage.
C) follow demand exactly and hold employment constant.
D) incentive plans and piece-rate plans.
E) full-time and part-time.
C) follow demand exactly and hold employment constant.
126
```
128) A manufacturing plant allows its engineers to come in at 7 A.M. plus or minus an hour but still requires them to work 8-hour days. Which of the following scheduling techniques is the firm employing?
A) flextime
B) constant employment
C) part-time status
D) flexible workweek
E) compressed workweek
```
A) flextime
127
129) Hackman and Oldham's five desirable characteristics of job design include job significance and autonomy.
True
128
```
130) Which of the following terms implies an increase in responsibility and control in the vertical direction?
A) job rotation
B) job enrichment
C) job re-design
D) job enlargement
E) job satisfaction
```
B) job enrichment
129
131) The difference between job enrichment and job enlargement is that:
A) enlarged jobs involve vertical expansion, while enriched jobs involve horizontal expansion.
B) enriched jobs enable an employee to do a number of boring jobs instead of just one.
C) job enlargement is more psychologically satisfying than job enrichment.
D) job enrichment is suitable for all employees, whereas job enlargement is not.
E) enriched jobs involve vertical expansion, while enlarged jobs involve horizontal expansion.
E) enriched jobs involve vertical expansion, while enlarged jobs involve horizontal expansion.
130
```
132) When a worker obtains clear and timely information about his/her performance, his/her job includes which of the following characteristics?
A) feedback
B) skill variety
C) job identity
D) job significance
E) autonomy
```
A) feedback
131
133) The physical environment in which employees work may affect the quality of work life, but it does not affect their performance and safety.
False
132
134) One of the elements of ergonomics is
A) allocating work time based on economic studies.
B) the cost justification of technology.
C) designing tools and machines that facilitate human work.
D) assembly line balancing.
E) the establishment of time standards.
C) designing tools and machines that facilitate human work.
133
```
135) Which of the following is not analyzed using methods techniques?
A) movement of capital
B) body movement
C) movement of individuals
D) movement of material
E) crew activity
```
A) movement of capital
134
```
136) Flow diagrams are used to analyze:
A) movement of people or material.
B) utilization of an operator and machine.
C) body movements.
D) time taken by various activities.
E) unnecessary micro-motions.
```
A) movement of people or material.
135
137) The visual workplace:
A) uses low-cost visual devices to share information.
B) is an effective means of rapid communication in a dynamic workplace.
C) replaces difficult-to-understand paperwork.
D) eliminates non-value-added activities by making problems and standards visual.
E) All of the above describe the visual workplace.
E) All of the above describe the visual workplace.
136
```
138) Which of the following is a visual signal at a machine that notifies support personnel about the machine's status?
A) Andon
B) Endon
C) Indon
D) Ondon
E) Undon
```
A) Andon
137
139) Two uses of labor standards are to determine the labor content of items produced and to determine staffing needs.
True
138
140) One use of labor standards is to determine what constitutes a fair day's work.
True
139
141) A time-study procedure involves timing a sample of a worker's performance and using it as a basis for setting a standard time.
True
140
142) Labor standards are defined as the:
A) preset activities required to perform a job.
B) amount of space required by a specific crew to perform the job.
C) standard set of procedures to perform the job.
D) standard labor agreements.
E) amount of time required to perform a job or part of a job.
E) amount of time required to perform a job or part of a job.
141
```
143) Labor standards can help to determine which of the following?
A) labor content of a product
B) staffing needs
C) incentive plans
D) efficiency
E) all of the above
```
E) all of the above
142
144) The smaller the percentage established for allowances:
A) the closer is normal time to standard time.
B) the closer is average observed time to normal time.
C) the larger is the performance rating factor.
D) the larger is the required sample size.
E) the larger is the number of observations in the work sampling
A) the closer is normal time to standard time.
143
145) Therbligs are:
A) the smallest unit of time used in methods time measurement exercises.
B) the largest unit of time used in methods time measurement exercises.
C) basic physical elements of motion as used in methods time measurement exercises.
D) the full range of motions required to complete a job as used in methods time measurement exercises.
E) the smallest amount of time required to complete a job.
C) basic physical elements of motion as used in methods time measurement exercises.
144
146) The tally sheet data from a work sampling study provides information regarding:
A) the number of wasted motions.
B) the level of difficulty in a motion.
C) the percent of time spent on various tasks.
D) the quality of the work environment.
E) the number of micro-motions involved
C) the percent of time spent on various tasks.
145
147) An advantage of work sampling is that:
A) no observation is required.
B) it involves study of the equipment only.
C) a performance rating is necessary.
D) the time spent observing the employee is relatively short.
E) it is more effective than time studies when task times are short.
D) the time spent observing the employee is relatively short.
146
148) A disadvantage of work sampling is that:
A) it tends to be less accurate, particularly when task times are short.
B) it observes several workers simultaneously.
C) it is more expensive than time-study methods.
D) it is more intrusive than time-study methods, and therefore generates more complaints.
E) All of the above are disadvantages of work sampling.
A) it tends to be less accurate, particularly when task times are short.
147
```
149) Ethical work environment decisions by managers may be guided by which of the following?
A) state agencies
B) trade associations
C) insurers
D) employees
E) all of the above
```
E) all of the above
