test #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Eyespot

A

photoreceptor cells over a lining of screen pigment cells.

no lens, provides info about surrounding black/white, but no detail.

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2
Q

Simple eye

A

similar to the eyespot + refracting lens and some kind of an image.
for pattern recognition and locomotion.

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3
Q

Vertebrate eye

A

elaboration of the simple eye. adds a small variable aperture + a lens.

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4
Q

Ommatidia

A

The compound eyes of arthropods are image-forming eyes composed of many units.
takes in about 2-3 degrees.

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5
Q

cornea

A

outer cover

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6
Q

Retina

A

inner wall of the eye

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7
Q

Aqueous humor

A

A watery solution that fills the anterior chamber help focus the image on the retina

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8
Q

Vitreous humor

A

A jelly like solution that fills the posterior cavity

help focus the image on the retina

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9
Q

Pigment epithelium

A

Stores vitamin A1 and produces light-absorbing molecules

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10
Q

fovea

A

Part of the macula
An area of the retina that receives the center of the image axis and is rich in cones to allow distinction of small detail and colors.

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11
Q

Binocular convergence

A

The ability of both eyes to focus on the same object, enhancing 3-d vision.

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12
Q

Visible light

A

Violet light (400nm) to red light (700nm)

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13
Q

Photoreceptor cells

A

__________ initiate the response light and transmit the signal to afferent neurons as neurotransmitters.

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14
Q

Outer segment

A

contains stacks of membranes with receptor molecules
positioned AWAY from incoming light
connected to the inner seg. by cillium

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15
Q

Inner segment

A

contains the nucleus and organelles and releases neurotransmitters.
connected to the outer seg. by cillium

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16
Q

Rods

A

light sensitive

processes achromatic vision with lower resolution

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17
Q

Cones

A

less light sensitive

process color vision with higher resolution

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18
Q

Light is on

A

dark Na+ current channels close.

hyper polarization of the photoreceptor cell membrane.

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19
Q

Light is off

A

Steady inward iNa (dark current)

resting photoreceptor cell membrane potential.

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20
Q

Light

A

_____ acts as a negative stimulus

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21
Q

Electroretinogram

A

The sum of the responses from different cell types to light

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22
Q

What is happening in b wave?

A

electrical activity

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23
Q

What is happening in a wave?

A

hyper polarization of photoreceptor cells

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24
Q

What is happening in c wave?

A

Appears to be from pigment epithelial cells.

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25
Q

Rhodopsins

A

a family of transmembrane proteins in the outer segment of photoreceptor cells.

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26
Q

Opsin

A
a polypeptide
(part of rhodopsin)
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27
Q

Retinal

A

a light absorbing molecule

part of rhodopsin

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28
Q

Opsin

A

Sensitivities of the cone receptors to different light depend on

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29
Q

Visible light, all trans

A

_______ changes the conformation of retinal from 11-cis to ____.

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30
Q

Metarhodopsin

A

all-trans separate retinal from rhodopsin, which then becomes______________.

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31
Q

Transduction

A

________ (g protein) activates a phosphodiesterase, which breaks cGMP —>gNa

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32
Q

Action Spectrum

A

magnitude of a photoreceptors response to different wavelengths.

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33
Q

Rods

A

____ are 10 times more sensitive to light then cones.

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34
Q

Primordial arc system

A

a single cell that serves as afferent

sensory neuron and effector neuron (“sensing effector”).

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35
Q

if the osmolarity of blood plasma or extracellular fluids

decrease

A
the cell swells and stretch-inactivated Na+
channels close, causing a decrease in the release of
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
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36
Q

if osmolarity increases

A

the cell loses water and shrinks, the
membrane becomes depolarized, and ADH release is
stimulated
channels open

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37
Q

Monosynaptic

A

separate neurons for sensory and motor

functions, but no interneurons

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38
Q

Polysynaptic

A

interneuron(s) moderate central processing.

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39
Q

Hydra nervous system

A

nerve nets, but no CNS

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40
Q

Sea star nervous system

A

nerve ring and radial nerves, no cephalization

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41
Q

Flatworms and round worms

A

segmented pattern, CNS and cephalization

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42
Q

cephalization

A

is the coalescence of neurons in the anterior

end of the nervous system (the brain)

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43
Q

nerve cord

A

bundles of
neurons (homologous
to the spinal cord in
vertebrates)

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44
Q

ganglion

A

cluster of somata
(somata in most animals
tend to be clustered)

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45
Q

connectives

A

axons between ganglia

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46
Q

nuclei (in vertebre)

A

clusters of
somata with similar
functions within
the CNS

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47
Q

ganglia (in vertebre)

A

clusters
of somata outside
the brain and
spinal cord

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48
Q

dorsal root

A

the somata of sensory neurons are clustered in the ___

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49
Q

dorsal horn of the gray matter

A

the somata of interneurons are clustered in the _____

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50
Q

ventral horn of the gray matter

A

the somata of motor neurons are clustered in the ___

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51
Q

ventral root

A

axons from motor neurons exit the spinal cord through

_____

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52
Q

forebrain (prosencephalon) midbrain (mesencephalon) and hindbrain (rhombencephalon)

A

___, ___, ___, are primary vesicles of the CNS.

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53
Q

___, ___, are secondary vesicles of the forebrain

A

telencephalon and diencephalon

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54
Q

___, is a secondary vesicles of the midbrain

A

mesencephalon

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55
Q

___, ___, are secondary vesicles of the hindbrain

A

metencephalon and myelencephalon

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56
Q

___, is the adult structures of the telencephalon

A

cerebrum

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57
Q

___ and __ are adult structures of the diencephalon

A

Thalamus and hypothalamus

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58
Q

___, is the adult structures of the mesencephalon

A

tectum

lower invertebrates

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59
Q

___ and __ are adult structures of the metencephalon

A

pons and cerebellum

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60
Q

___ and __ are adult structures of the myelencephalon

A

medula and oblongata

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61
Q

Medulla

Action

A

mediates respiration and autonomic functions

receives and relays sensory and motor information

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62
Q

Cerebellum

Action

A

receives and integrates sensory information from the
semicircular canals, and joins the visual and auditory
systems
coordinates motor outputs related to position, posture, and
orientation in space

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63
Q

pons (in higher vertebrates)

Action

A

contains tracts that connect

the medulla and the cerebellum with higher centers

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64
Q

Tectum (optic lobe)

Action

A

receives and integrates visual, auditory, and tactile inputs
these functions have been taken over by the cerebral cortex
in higher vertebrates

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65
Q

Cerebral cortex

A

the folds in higher vertebrates increase the surface area and
the number of neurons
processes sensory and motor information and association
(intelligence)
it is most elaborated in humans and primates

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66
Q

the hippocampus

A

___ assists in the
storage of long term memory related to spatial navigation
(limbic system)

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67
Q

Amygdala & Hypothalamus

action

A

process information and organize outputs related to emotions
are the centers of visceral functions and emotional responses
the hypothalamus also control water and electrolyte balance,
and the secretory activities of the pituitary gland

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68
Q

Thalamus

action

A

a major coordinating center for sensory and motor signaling
receives sensory information and relays it to the cortex
receives motor information from the cortex and relays it to
the motor centers

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69
Q

visceral and involuntary

A

The two branches of the autonomic nervous system control

____ and ___ functions.

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70
Q

What does Sympathetic system do?

A
increases heartbeat rate
pupillary dilation
inhibits exocrine secretion
increase in blood flow to
skeletal muscles
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71
Q

What does Parasympathetic system do?

A
decreases heartbeat rate
pupillary constriction
stimulates exocrine secretion
increase housekeeping
functions (like digestion)
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72
Q

autonomic reflex arc

A

The parasympathetic autonomous nervous system is also

based on the _____

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73
Q

the motor outputs do not pass through ____

A

the sympathetic chain

ganglia

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74
Q

the synapses between the pre- and post- ganglionic neurons

occur at ______ ganglia, or ____ organs

A

peripheral

target

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75
Q

all preganglionic neurons originate from___
and extend into the _____, parallel to the
vertebral column

A

spinal cord and sympathetic chain

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76
Q

parasympathetic, preganglionic neurons originate only from the__

A

head area

(through cranial nerves) and from the sacral spinal cord

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77
Q

parasympathetic, preganglionic neurons synapse onto ___

A

postganglionic neurons (usually short) near the target organs, or at peripheral ganglia

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78
Q

preganglionic neurons are cholinergic, which means

A

they all use acetylcholine as neurotransmitter

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79
Q

postganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic division are

are ___

A

use acetylcholine as neurotransmitter

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80
Q

postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic division are

are ___

A

are adrenergic

they use norepinephrine as NT

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81
Q

Autocrine

A

the cell responds to its own secreted signals.

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82
Q

Paracrine

A

the secreted signals reach only the neighboring

cells.

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83
Q

Synaptic

A

(a special type of paracrine signaling): the signal (a
neurotransmitter) is secreted by a neuron into a synapse.
The target is a specific cell.

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84
Q

Endocrine

A
the signals (hormones) can enter the bloodstream
and reach distant target cells.
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85
Q

Neuroendocrine

A
the signal (a neurohormone) is secreted by a
neuron into the bloodstream.
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86
Q

Exocrine

A

the signals are released from the skin or from the

lining of the gut.

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87
Q

synthesis of secreted proteins occurs in the ___ ____

A

endoplasmic reticulum

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88
Q

at the trans-Golgi network, protein are ___ and ___

A

sorted and distributed

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89
Q

exocytosis

A

protein secretion

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90
Q

ions are released by secretory cells into the ___

A

acinus (the blind

cavity that is lined by the secretory epithelium)

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91
Q
the negatively charged sialic
acids at the ends of some
oligosaccharides give the
structure an overall \_\_\_\_\_
charge, which are \_\_\_\_
by high concentrations of Ca2+
A

negative and neutralized

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92
Q

Describe Secretion by endocrine glands

A

ductless glands

the water-soluble secretions are releases directly into the
bloodstream by exocytosis of secretory vesicles

lipid-soluble secretions can diffuse through the plasma
membrane

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93
Q

Constitutive secretion

A

proteins are secreted

right after they are sorted from the trans-Golgi network

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94
Q

Regulated secretion

A

only in specialized cells
proteins are stored in special secretory
vesicles and are released from the cell by exocytosis only
in response to external signals

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95
Q

the depolarization of the membrane and the increase in Ca2+ permeability causes ____

A

inflow of Ca2+

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96
Q

in simple endocrine cells, external signals cause the opening of ____

A

intracellular Ca2+ stores

97
Q

Glands secrete:

A

exocrine
paracrine
endocrine

98
Q

Neuroendocrine systems secrete

A

regulate hormone secretion from some endocrine glands

99
Q

Describe hormone features

A

secreted by specialized tissues

 secreted into the bloodstream to 
target tissue(s)

modulate the activity of the target tissues/organs

100
Q

Hormone functions:

A

maintenance of blood osmolarity (antidiuretic hormone)

maintenance of blood sugar levels (insulin, glucagon)

regulation of metabolic rates (growth hormones, thyroxine)

control of behavior (epinephrine)

control of reproductive cycles and sexual activity (sex
hormones)

101
Q

what does short loop negative feedback do?

A

the accumulation of the
hormone, or the product of the hormone’s direct target,
stops hormone secretion

102
Q

what does long loop negative feedback do?

A

the product of an effector

series stops hormone secretion

103
Q

what does positive feedback do?

A

the hormone’s direct target tissue

stimulates additional hormone production

104
Q

no feedback regulation:

A

open loop

105
Q

Fast responses of hormones

A

depend exclusively on existing cellular components

their effects are usually transient

106
Q

slow responses of hormones

A

depend on the modulation gene expression:

a component of the cascade needs to be synthesized, or:

the modulation of gene expression itself is the response

their effects are usually long lasting

107
Q

the Lipid-insoluble hormone signal is ___inside the cell

A

transduced

108
Q

Lipid-soluble hormones are (diffused) transported in the bloodstream
as _____ and bind to
___

A

water-soluble protein complexes and

intracellular receptors

109
Q

Second messengers synthesized in response to hormones

Cyclic nucleotides:

A

cAMP and cGMP

110
Q

Second messengers synthesized in response to hormones

Inositol phospholipids:

A

DAG and IP3

111
Q

What is the result when receptor (s) which bind stimulatory and inhibitory hormones respectively.

A

the activation (or inactivation) of adenylate cyclase, and the increase (or decrease) in cytoplasmic cAMP levels.

112
Q

cAMP activates Protein Kinase A

(PKA) by binding to its ____subunits and causing the release of the ___ subunits.

A

regulatory

catalytic

113
Q

The kinase activity of the released catalytic subunits ____ multiple effector proteins.

A

phosphorylate

114
Q

Transient effects of PKA activation in anticipation
of muscular activity
In response to epinephrine:

A

converts glycogen into glucose 1-phosphate
and
inactivating glycogen synthase

115
Q

PLC is activated by a _____

A

G protein

116
Q

A single hormone can activate two signaling pathways that

result in

A

independent effects.
and/or
in the same effect

117
Q

Amines

A

amino acid-derived

118
Q

Eicosenoids:

A

derived from arachidonic acid

119
Q

Steroids:

A

synthesized from cholesterol

120
Q

Peptide hormones

A

amino acid chains (the largest and most

complex group)

121
Q

Autacoid hormones:

A

active substances not included in

the above categories (serotonin, histamine)

122
Q

The neurosecretory cells release

____into ____

A

neurohormones into capillaries:

123
Q

the bloodstream carries the signal (neurohormones) to a target endocrine tissue,
which_________________

A

secretes a hormone that

targets another organ, or (its rarer) directly targets an organ.

124
Q

Endocrine and neuroendocrine systems in the pituitary gland

A

Adenohypophysis (anterior lobe)

Neurohypophysis (posterior lobe)

125
Q

Endocrine and neuroendocrine systems in the hypothalamus gland

A

contains soma of neurosecretory cells
part of the diencephalon (the posterior region of the
forebrain)
contributes to the control of the autonomic nervous system

126
Q

Adenohypophysis (anterior lobe):

A

non-neuronal tissue

endocrine

127
Q

Neurohypophysis (posterior lobe):

A
extension of the brain; 
neuronal tissue (neuroendocrine)
128
Q

para intermedia

A

in lower vertebrates only

129
Q

In vertebrates, the master gland of the endocrine system is the _________

A

pituitary gland

130
Q

neurosecretory cells terminate ___

A

median eminence

131
Q

portal vessels carry their signals to the ____ and respond by secreting ____

A

adenohypophysis, hormones.

132
Q

What do Releasing hormones (RHs) or

release inhibiting hormones (RIHs) do?

A

stimulate or inhibit the release
of adenohypophyseal
hormones

133
Q

Tropic hormones

A

act on other endocrine tissues to stimulate hormone production

134
Q

examples of Tropic hormones

A

gonadotrophins: LH and TSH

135
Q

Non-tropic:

A

act on nonendocrine tissues to modulate metabolism and other cellular functions

136
Q

examples of non-trophic

A

MSH and growth hormone

137
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH):

A

promotes water retention

by the kidney.

138
Q

Oxytocin:

A

promotes uterine
contractions during
childbirth and the release of
milk from mammary glands.

139
Q

Metabolic and developmental hormones:

A
Catecholamines	
Glucocorticoids
Thyroid hormones
Pancreatic hormones
Growth hormone
140
Q

Hormones that regulate water and electrolyte balance:

A

Parathyroid hormone
Calcitonin
Mineralocorticoids

141
Q

What is the source of Catecholamines

A

adrenal medulla

142
Q

What is the source of Glucocorticoids

A

adrenal cortex

143
Q

What is the source of Thyroid hormones

A

thyroid gland

144
Q

What is the source of Pancreatic hormones

A

pancreas

145
Q

What is the source of Growth hormone

A

adenohypophysis

146
Q

What is the source of Parathyroid hormone

A

parathyroid gland

147
Q

What is the source of Calcitonin

A

thyroid gland

148
Q

What is the source of Mineralocorticoids

A

various tissues

149
Q

What is the function of Catecholamines

A

fight-or flight reaction

150
Q

What is the function of Glucocorticoids

A

circadian adaptation to long-term stress

151
Q

What is the function of Thyroid hormones

A

increase metabolic rate

152
Q

What is the function of Pancreatic hormones

A

regulate blood sugar levels

153
Q

What is the function of Calcitonin

A

decrease blood Ca2+

154
Q

What is the function of Mineralocorticoids

A

stimulate retention of Na+

155
Q

What is the function of Growth hormone

A

stimulates tissue growth, fatty acid consumption

156
Q

What is the function of Parathyroid hormone

A

increase blood Ca2+

157
Q

adrenal medulla produces

A

catecholamines

158
Q

adrenal cortex produces

A

glucocorticoids

159
Q

catecholamines regulate

A

smooth muscle contractions and cardiac activity

regulates stress responses

160
Q

catecholamines function as ____ when released by ____.

A

neurotransmitters when released by adrenergic neurons

161
Q

The sympathetic nervous system

regulates the _______ response

A

fight-or-flight

162
Q

a1 adrenoreceptors stimulate

A

smooth muscle contraction

sarcomere contraction

163
Q

b1 and b2 adrenoreceptors activate

A
both activate adenylate cyclase
(AC)
effect: increase in cAMP, the
activation of PKA, and the
stimulation of glycogen
breakdown
164
Q

sympathetic regulation of digestion express what kind of receptor?

A

inhibitory a2 adrenoreceptors.

165
Q

a2 adrenoreceptors cause

A

inhibition of AC
activity and inhibit the release
of norepinephrine from
adrenergic neurons

166
Q

Other effects of b1 adrenoreceptors

A

are stimulated mostly by neuronal norepinephrine

cause the release of Ca2+ from the ER and an increase in cardiac activity

stimulates the release of fats from adipose tissue

167
Q

Other effects of b2 adrenoreceptors

A

stimulated mostly by circulating catecholamines

mediate bronchiodilatation and vasodilatation

activate Ca2+ pumps, resulting in a decrease cytoplasmic Ca2+ levels

effect: smooth muscle relaxation

168
Q
neurohormones from hypothalamic neurosecretory cells induce \_\_\_\_\_ production in the \_\_\_\_ lobe of the 
pituitary gland (adenohypophysis)
A

hormone

anterior

169
Q

ACTH

A

adrenocorticotropic hormone

stimulates glucocorticoid production at the adrenal cortex

170
Q

ACTH effects:

A

adaptation to long term stress (raise blood glucose levels, mobilize fat)

171
Q

ACTH subject to

A

negative feedback regulation: glucocorticoids stop the secretion of ACTH and CRH

172
Q

Thyroid hormones

A

derived from the amino acid tyrosine.

secreted by the thyroid gland for heat generation

lipid soluble

activate intracellular receptors that induce the
expression of genes that code for metabolic enzymes

results: increase metabolic rate at the liver, heart, kidneys, skeletal muscles, and nervous system–> heat generation

173
Q

TRH _____ the production of ____ hormone

A

induces

thyroid-stimulating

174
Q

A dietary iodine deficiency may result in the __________________

A

excessive stimulation of the thyroid gland and abnormal growth.

175
Q

What are some effects of Parathyroid hormone ?

A
mobilizes the release of calcium and
phosphate (PO43-) from bones
increases calcium reabsorption from
urine in the kidneys
stimulates the kidneys to activate
vitamin D, which promotes the
intestinal uptake of Ca2+ from food
increase in the levels of blood Ca2+
176
Q

Calcitonin has the ability to _____ blood calcium levels by effecting two target organs; _____ and ___

A

decrease

kidneys and bones

177
Q

Osteoclast

A

a cell that nibbles at and breaks down bone and is responsible for bone resorption. Osteoclasts are large multinucleate cells that differentiate from macrophages.

178
Q

effect of insulin:

A

decrease in blood glucose

179
Q

Type I diabetes:

A

decreased insulin production in the pancreas

180
Q

Type II diabetes:

A

reduced insulin sensitivity at the target tissues

insulin resistance

181
Q

Glucagon

A

secreted by pancreatic a cells in response to low blood glucose (hypoglycemia)

182
Q

Glucagon inhibits

A

glucose uptake and glycogenesis in the liver

183
Q

Glucagon stimulates

A

stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver; and as glucose is
released and blood glucose levels increase:
stimulates pancreatic b cells to produce insulin

184
Q

GRH stimulates the release of _____

A

growth hormone

185
Q

GH inhibits

A

uptake of glucose by most tissues

186
Q

GH stimulates

A

fat cells to release fatty acids and the release of glucose from the liver

187
Q

hypothalamic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH, a peptide hormone) stimulates the secretion of

A

luteinizing hormone (LH, a peptide hormone) and follicle-stimulating hormone

188
Q

LH stimulates the production of______

A

testosterone in Lydig cells (in the testes)

189
Q

FSH stimulates the production of ____

A

inhibin (a peptide hormone) in Sertoli cells (also in the testes)

190
Q

Muscle fibers develop from

A

the fusion of myoblasts during myogenesis

191
Q

satellite cells

A

stem cells that are arrested in G0

192
Q

M line

A

contains enzymes for muscle energy metabolism

193
Q

H zone:

A

myosin only

194
Q

A band:

A

zone where actin and myosin are visible

195
Q

I bands:

A

portions between A bands (actin and actinin)

196
Q

cross bridges:

A

regions where myosin heads interact with actin filaments

197
Q

Titin

A

very large protein (3000 kd)
extends from M line to the Z disc
thought to act like springs that keep the myosin filaments
centered in the sarcomere and maintain the resting tension
that allows a muscle to snap back if overextended

198
Q

Nebulin

A

filaments associated with actin

thought to act as regulators of F-actin assembly and length

199
Q

Heavy chains

A

two supercoiled a helices that terminate in the

amino heads.

200
Q

Light chains

A

essential myosin light chain (dark blue) and

regulatory myosin light chain (light blue).

201
Q

Tension

A

a reaction force applied by a stretched object on the objects which stretch it.

202
Q

Isometric

A

energy is spent and force is generated but the

muscle is not allowed to contract

203
Q

Isotonic

A

as force is generated the muscle contracts

the muscle does work

204
Q

Momentum

A

the quantity of motion of a moving body,

measured as the product of its mass and velocity.

205
Q

Force

A

an influence that may cause an object to accelerate
(increase its momentum), measured as the product of the
mass of the object and acceleration.

206
Q

Work:

A

the exertion of force to overcome resistance. Can only

happen with isotonic contraction.

207
Q

Power:

A

the rate at which work is performed.

208
Q

Tropomyosin

A

long filamentous protein that binds F-actin lengthwise

209
Q

If no Ca2+ is present on tnC

A

tropomyosin blocks the binding sites of myosin on actin

210
Q

tnT binds:

A

binds tropomyosin

211
Q

tnI binds:

A

binds actin and tnC

212
Q

when ATP is added in the experiments :

A

the tension exerted by the myofibril does not increase

213
Q

when Ca2+ added the experiments :

A

the tension exerted by the myofibril increases

214
Q

Cytosolic calcium is necessary for ___ contraction

A

muscle

215
Q

the tension exerted by the fiber in the presence of Ca2+

increases only when ___ is added

A

ATP

216
Q

if ATP is removed while Ca2+ is still present:

A

no drop in the tension exerted by the fiber

217
Q

if ATP is added when Ca2+ is not available:

A

the tension exerted by the fiber drops

218
Q

what happens After a short latency period following the AP:

muscle tension increases briefly (a twitch).

A

muscle tension increases briefly (a twitch).

219
Q

a tension transducer measures ___

A

force

220
Q

a stimulating electrode transmits a _______

A

stimulus current

221
Q

the resulting voltage changes are detected by the _______

A

recording electrode

222
Q

During the latent period there is an increase in ________

A

cytoplasmic calcium

223
Q

T-tubules:

A

extensions of the cell membrane that extend into
the cell and run around the perimeter of the myofibrils and
over the Z-discs.

224
Q

Sarcoplasmic reticulum:

A

the endoplasmic reticulum of the

muscle fibers, which sequesters and stores Ca2+.

225
Q

Ca2+ pumps use ATP to sequester Ca2+ into the _____ of the SR

A

lumen

226
Q

inside the SR, Ca2+ binds _____, reducing the gradient of free Ca2+ across the SR membrane

A

calsequestrin

227
Q

Dihydropyridine (DHP) receptors:

A

voltage-activated membrane proteins of the T-tubule.

228
Q

Ryanodine (Ry) receptors:

A

Ca2+ channels* on the SR.

229
Q

The depolarization of the T-tubule membrane induces a
_____________ in the DHP receptor that induces
the Ry receptor to ___.

A

conformation change

open

230
Q

Ca2+ is released from the SR to the cytosol and binds TnC,

causing ______

A

sarcomere contraction

231
Q

when the depolarizing stimulus stops,

A

Ca2+ is re-sequestered into the SR and the muscle relaxes

232
Q

Slow generation:

A

aerobic respiration and oxidative phosphorylation

requires O2

233
Q

Fast generation (during periods of intense demand):

A

anaerobic glycolysis (generates lactic acid)
direct phosphorylation: the transfer of a P from creatine
phosphate to ADP both are O2-independent

234
Q

Antagonistic pairs in vertebrate skeletal muscles:

A

flexor and extensor

235
Q

flexor:

A

a muscle that pulls a joint and causes it to close

236
Q

extensor:

A

a muscle that opposes the flexor to open the joint

237
Q

Motor pool:

A

a group of neurons that innervates a muscle.

238
Q

Motor unit:

A

a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it

innervates

239
Q

the length and the strength of a sustained contraction

depends on the _______

A

frequency of APs