Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The art of recording client assessments and care in written or electronic form

A

Documentation

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2
Q

The purpose of the written record that states members of the multidiscipinary team uses the health record to communicate about the patient’s status and care

A

Communication between providers

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3
Q

Purpose of the written record that is served as a shanpshot of what is going on with the client so that you are able to research unfamiliar diagnoses, orders, and treatments before direct care begins

A

Educational Tool

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4
Q

The purpose of the written record that discusses how the health record will be scrutinized by legal experts if a dispute about a client’s care arises.

A

Legal documentation of care

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5
Q

The purpose of the written record used to formulate strategies to improve care, decrease length of stay, control costs, and pinpoint knowledge and practice gaps that can be addressed through continuing professional education

A

Quality improvement

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6
Q

The function of the written record to be used to gather data for clinical research

A

Research

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7
Q

The function of the written record for insurance companies to gather data for clinical research, budget managers & staff billing.

A

Reimbursement

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8
Q

Standard terminologies are constructed by

A

NANDA (NIC & NOC)

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9
Q

A documentation system where the disciplines document in separate sections of the chart

A

Source-oriented system

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10
Q

Advantage of source oriented system

A

each discipline is easily found

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11
Q

Disadvantages of this system include

  • data may be fragmented & scattered
  • difficult to track the treatments and client outcomes associated with a particular problem
A

source oriented system

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12
Q

Documentation system that is organized around client problems

A

Problem oriented system

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13
Q

Four components of the problem-oriented system

A

database, problem list, plan of care, progress notes

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14
Q

Advantages of this system include:

  • common problem list
  • easy to monitor progress
  • may encourage greater collaboration
A

problem oriented system:

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15
Q

Disadvantages of this system include:

  • have to read through entire chart to find information
  • lengthy
  • different people chart differently
A

problem oriented system

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16
Q

This type of charting may be used with source- or problem-oriented systems

A

Narrative charting

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17
Q

Advantages of Narrative charting:

A

story in chronological format

tracks the client’s changing status

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18
Q

Disadvantages to this type of charting include:
-timely
-have to read whole note to fine outcomes
inconsistent
-difficult to track problems day to day or see trends

A

narrative charting

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19
Q

P in PIE charting

A

problem

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20
Q

I in PIE charting

A

Interventions

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21
Q

E in PIE charting

A

Evaluation

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22
Q

This is a step in ___ charting that uses data from the original assessment to identify appropriate nursing diagnoses

A

PIE, P

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23
Q

This is a step in ___ charting that documents the nursing actions taken for each nursing diagnosis

A

PIE, Interventions

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24
Q

This is a step in ____ charting that documents the patient’s response to interventions and treatments

A

Evaluation

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25
Q

The primary disadvantage of PIE charting

A

no planning portion of the nursing process

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26
Q

PIE charting is used only in ______ charting

A

problem oriented

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27
Q

S in SOAP charting

A

Subjective Data

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28
Q

O in SOAP charting

A

Objective

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29
Q

A in SOAP charting

A

Assessment

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30
Q

P in SOAP charting

A

Plan

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31
Q

I in SOAP modified charting

A

Intervention

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32
Q

E in SOAP modified charting

A

Evaluation

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33
Q

R in SOAP modified charting

A

Revision

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34
Q

Charting that highlights the client’s concerns, problems or strengths in 3 colomns

A

Focus Charting

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35
Q

Column 1 of Focus charting

A

Time and date

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36
Q

Column 2 of focus charting

A

focus or problem being addressed

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37
Q

column 3 of focus charting

A

charting in a DAR format

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38
Q

DAR

A

Data, Action, Response

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39
Q

Subjective and objective information that supports the focus.

A

Data

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40
Q

Aspect of focus charting that reflects the assessment phase of the nursing process

A

Data

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41
Q

Describes interventions performed

A

Action

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42
Q

Aspect of focus charting that reflects the planning and implementation phases of the nursing process

A

Action

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43
Q

Advantages of focus charting

A

-holistic

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44
Q

Disadvantages of this type of charting include:

  • lacks a common problem list
  • leads to inconsistency in labeling the focus of notes
  • difficult to track progress
A

focus charting

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45
Q

This type of charting only charts significant findings or exceptions to norm

A

Charting by Exception

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46
Q

Advantages in charting by exception:

A
  • streamlines charting

- saves time

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47
Q

Disadvantage to charting by exception

A

omissions

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48
Q

Documentation that includes only exceptions to the norm or significant information about the patient.

A

FACT Documentation

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49
Q

F in FACT documentation

A

flow sheets individualize specific services

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50
Q

A in FACT documentation

A

assessment with baseline data

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51
Q

C in FACT documentation

A

Concise progress notes

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52
Q

T in FACT documentation

A

Timely entries

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53
Q

A patient being able to administer their own SQ insulin would be what letter in focus charting?

A

R-Response

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54
Q

The nursing admission assessment determines:

A

a baseline to data to monitor change

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55
Q

Allows you to monitor change and view patterns

A

flow sheets and graphic records

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56
Q

Comprehensive list of all ordered medications

A

MAR

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57
Q

Document medications according to times they are given, examples of orders would be:

A

scheduled, unscheduled, continuous, prn, stat

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58
Q

contains:

  • demographics
  • diagnosis
  • allergies
  • dietary/activity orders
  • safety precautions
  • IV therapy orders
  • ordered treatments
  • medication summary
  • special instructions
A

Kardex or Client Care Summary

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59
Q

Are the kardex & electronic care summary part of the patient’s permanent record?

A

no

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60
Q

A combined charting and care plan form

A

integrated plans of care

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61
Q

Maps out on a daily basis, from admission to discharge

A

Integrated plans of care

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62
Q

IPOCs help administrators predict:

A
  • length of stay
  • cost of care
  • staffing needs
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63
Q

Advantages of using these include:

eliminate duplicate charting, increases team effort, enhances the nurse’s teaching about what patient can expect

A

Integrated plans of care

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64
Q

A formal record of unusual occurrence or accident

A

occurrence reports

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65
Q

In the occurrence report, identify:

A

client, date, time, location

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66
Q

Method to inform other caregivers about the client’s condition, vital info & plan of care

A

Reporting

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67
Q

Handoff report may be:

A

verbal, walking rounds, audio-recorded

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68
Q

the process of adapting to one’s body and environment over time, enabled by increasing complexity of function and skill progression

A

Development

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69
Q

A child who recognizes right from wrong, an older adult who recognizes nearness of death, are both examples of:

A

Development

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70
Q

physical changes that occur over time

A

growth

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71
Q

Development = ___ + _____

A

Growth + behavioral

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72
Q

genetic endowment

A

nature

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73
Q

Usual patterns of growth and development occur in these 3 patterns

A

predictable
cephalocaudal
proximodistal

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74
Q

when an infant is born, their head is largest and progressively other body parts grow to proportion is an example of :

A

cephalocaudal growth

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75
Q

An infant’s tendency to use their arms before their legs is an example of:

A

cephalocaudal development

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76
Q

in utero, the baby’s central body is formed before the limbs is an example of:

A

proximodistal growth

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77
Q

when an infant first opens it eyes, then lifts head, then pushes up and rolls over is an example of:

A

proximodistal development

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78
Q

T/F each body system grows at its own rate

A

true

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79
Q

body system functions become increasingly ____ over time

A

differentiated

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80
Q

midway between an individual need and societal demand. Assumes an active learner interacting with an active social environment

A

developmental task

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81
Q

Advantage to Havighurts’s developmental task theory:

A

it is easy to evaluate a client’s completion of the tasks

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82
Q

Disadvantage to Havighurts’s developmental task theory:

A

nonspecific time frame limits the ability to assess whether an individual is developing within an expected range

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83
Q

Theory involving the id, ego, superego and unconscious mind

A

Freud’s psychoanalytic theory

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84
Q

instinctual urges, present from birth on, dominant in children and older adults who cannot control their urges

A

id

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85
Q

begins to develop around 4-6 months, represents reality, balances urges and what is possible to obtain

A

ego

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86
Q

conscience, develops at age 5-6 as a result of the internalization of primary caregiver responses to environmental events

A

superego

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87
Q

composed of thoughts and memories not readily recalled

A

unconscious

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88
Q

thought patterns or behaviors that the ego makes use of in the face of threat to biological or psychological integrity

A

defense mechanisms

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89
Q

Principle of development described with: Later they are integrated into more complex skills. Many complex skills represent a combination of simple skills.

A

simple skills develop separately and independently

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90
Q

Principle of development described with: In the years leading up to puberty, the cardiovascular, respiratory, and nervous systems grow and develop dramatically, yet the reproductive system changes very little. Puberty is a series of changes that leads to full development of the reproductive system.

A

Each body system grows at its own rate

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91
Q

Principle of development described with: Have you ever seen a newborn respond to a loud noise? The newborn’s startle response involves the whole body. With maturity, the response becomes more focused, for example, covering the ears. An adult is often able to state the location of the sound and distinguish the origin of the sound.

A

Body systems functions become increasingly differentiated over time

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92
Q

Robert Havighurst theorized that learning is a lifelong process. He believed that a person moves through six life stages, each associated with a number of tasks that must be learned.

A

Developmental task theory

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93
Q

Freud believed human development is maintained by instinctual drives, such as libido (sexual instinct), aggression, and survival (Sadock & Sadock, 2010). Different drives predominate, depending on the age of the individual. Each factor or force, has a unique function.

A

Psychoanalytic theory

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94
Q

Piaget: Cognitive development requires three core competencies; adaptation, assimilation, and accommodation.

A

Cognitive development theory

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95
Q

Cognitive development occurs from birth through adolescence in a sequence of four stages:

A

sensorimotor, preoperational thought, concrete operations, and formal operations.

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96
Q

The rate at which a child moves through the four stages of Piaget’s theory is determined by

A

the inherited intellect and the influence of the environment.

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97
Q

individuals must negotiate eight stages as they progress through the life span. Most people successfully move from stage to stage; however, a person can regress during times of stress to earlier stages or be forced to face tasks of later stages because of unforeseen life events. Failure to successfully move through a stage leads to maladjustment.

A

Psychosocial development theory

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98
Q

by studying the development of 84 boys over a period of 20 years. In this theory, moral reasoning appears to be somewhat age related, and moral development is based on one’s ability to think at progressively higher levels.

A

Moral development theory (Kohlberg)

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99
Q

developed a theory of faith development, which includes a pre-stage (stage 0) and six stages of faith

A

James Fowler’s Spiritual developmental theory

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100
Q

The time between conception and birth is called the

A

gestational period

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101
Q

A key developmental task of infants:

A

trust

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102
Q

This is a time of rapid language development and increasing curiosity.

A

toddler

103
Q

The most important psychosocial developmental task for______ is to initiate more independence, control, and autonomy.

A

toddler

104
Q

The ____ develops a conscience, recognizes right from wrong, becomes socially aware of others and develops the ability to consider other people’s viewpoints.

A

preschooler

105
Q

They become more independent, places more importance on relationships outside the immediate family, and becomes more confident. They are able to see another person’s point of view and develops an understanding of relationships.

A

school-age children

106
Q

experiences progressive physical, cognitive, and psychological change. shift their emotional attachment away from their parents and create close bonds among their peers.

A

adolescents

107
Q

: Time of transition to independence and responsibility.

A

young adulthood

108
Q

usually the healthiest stage of a person’s life

A

young adulthood

109
Q

One of the principal changes that occurs is menopause

A

middle adulthood

110
Q

middle adulthood is from age __ to ___

A

40-64

111
Q

characterized by a decrease in testosterone production, a lower sperm count, and a need for more time to achieve an erection

A

andropause

112
Q

are a time when people realize the difference between their early aspirations and their actual achievements

A

middle adulthood

113
Q

The fastest growing age group

A

older adults (65

114
Q

A syndrome, or a set of characteristics, that describes a heightened state of vulnerability for developing adverse health outcomes.

A

frailty

115
Q

A multisystem reduction in the person’s physiological capacity.

A

frailty

116
Q

The point at which the human organism is believed to have its least capacity for survival, and will fail in response to a minor internal or external insult. For example, a frail older adult might die merely as a result of falling ill to an upper respiratory infection (such as a cold).

A

frailty

117
Q

Physical and psychological adaptations to retirement are paramount in this age group. Lack of supplemental insurace, self perception of aging, changes in physical activty, and being in a deconditioned state are common barriers to health in this age group

A

young old (65-74)

118
Q

the ability to adjust to and interact with one’s environment

A

adaptation

119
Q

the integration of new experiences with one’s own system of knowledge

A

assimilation

120
Q

the change in one’s system of knowledge that results from processing new information

A

accommodation

121
Q

Developmental challenge includes an increasingly solitary, sedentary lifestyle.

A

Middle old (75-84)

122
Q

sensory impairments, oral health, inadequate nutritional intake, and functional limitations are the developmental challenges of this age group

A

oldest-old (85+)

123
Q

Sensory deficits of oldest-old individuals to expect are:

A

hearing, vision, edentulism, nutrition & functional limitations

124
Q

the seven leading causes of death among older adults

A

heart disease, cancer, chronic low respiratory diseases, stroke, alzheimer’s, diabetes, influenza/pneumonia

125
Q

Age related physical changes of the _____ system include Decreased: muscle strength, body mass, bone mass, joint mobility, increased fat deposit

A

musculoskeletal

126
Q

Age related physical changes of the _____ system include cardiac output, increased peripheral resistance, systolic blood pressure

A

cardovascular

127
Q

Age related physical changes of the _____ system include Decreased elasticity of chest wall, intercostals muscle strength, cough reflex, increased anteroposterior diameter of chest, rigidity of lung tissue

A

respiratory

128
Q

Age related physical changes of the _____ system include Decreased saliva production, GI motility, gastric acid production
Integumentary: Decreased skin elasticity, nail growth, increased dryness of skin, thinning of skin layers, nail thickening, hair thinning

A

GI

129
Q

Age related physical changes of the _____ system include Decreased glomerular filtration rate, blood flow to kidneys, bladder capacity, vaginal lubrication, hardness of erection

A

geritourinary

130
Q

Age related physical changes of the _____ system include Decreased nerve cells, neurotransmitters, REM sleep, blood flow to CNS

A

neurological

131
Q

Age related physical changes of the _____ system include Decreased insulin release, thyroid function, estrogen, and testosterone

A

endocrine

132
Q

Age related physical changes of the _____ system include Decreased visual acuity (presbyopia, or impaired near vision) and depth perception, tear production, pupil size, accommodation, acuity of smell and taste, hearing of high-frequency sound, sense of balance changes in pain sensation, increased glare sensitivity, thickening of lens of the eye, changes in pain sensation

A

sensory

133
Q

Age related physical changes of the _____ system include Decreased short-term memory, increased reaction time, information processing time

A

cognitive

134
Q

Age related physical changes of the _____ system include Increased cautiousness, retirement, widowhood, grandparenthood

A

personality

135
Q

T/F there is a loss of intelligence as a person ages

A

False

136
Q

T/F . Loss of short-term memory is more common than loss of long-term memory

A

True

137
Q

an irreversible, progressive decline in mental abilities that affects about 1 in 5 of adults older than age 70. involves both memory impairments and a disturbance in at least one other area of cognition

A

Dementia

138
Q

loss of ability to carry out purposeful movement

A

Apraxia

139
Q

impaired ability to recognize or identify objects

A

agnosia

140
Q

loss of ability to communicate

A

aphasia

141
Q

Psychological or emotional abuse or coercive tactics after prior physical violence between persons who are spouses or nonmarital partners or former spouses or nonmarital partners

A

Intimate partner violence

142
Q

Alcohol or substance abuse
Early onset of sexual activity or risk behaviors
Signs of mental illness or poor performance at school

are all risk factors for:

A

intimate partner violence

143
Q

failure to provide for a child’s basic physical, educational, medical, and emotional needs

A

neglect

144
Q

punching, beating, kicking, biting, burning, shaking, or otherwise harming a child; even if parent or caretaker did not intend harm, such acts are considered abuse when done purposefully

A

physical abuse

145
Q

fondling child’s genitals, incest, penetration, rape, sodomy, indecent exposure, and exploitation through prostitution or production of pornographic materials

A

sexual abuse

146
Q

any pattern of behavior that harms child’s emotional development or sense of self-worth; includes frequent belittling, rejection, threats, and withholding of love and support

A

emotional abuse

147
Q

failure to provide basic social stimulation

A

psychological neglect

148
Q

intentional misuse of elderly person’s financial and material resources

A

financial abuse

149
Q

failure to use elderly person’s assets to provide needed services

A

financial neglect

150
Q

Common health indicators include:
injury/bleeding complications, circulatory homeostasis disruption, fluctuations in BP, infections, cardiac complications, STIs

A

Elder abuse

151
Q

T/F Suspected self-neglect is also a mandatory reportable activity to adult protective services

A

True

152
Q

If you suspect abuse of an elder, it is important to notice these parts of the physical examination

A

head to toe visual exam, baseline lab tests

153
Q

highest rates of IPV is found in

A

multiracial women

154
Q

Barriers to report:

A

societal stressors, legal regulations, lack of access, cultural values or gender roles

155
Q

T/F If a patient with dementia doesn’t understand you rephrase your sentence to make it easier to understand

A

false

156
Q

living and caring for yourself independently in your home

A

aging in place

157
Q

self-talk

A

intrapersonal communication

158
Q

The _____ of communication describes the actual subject matter, words, gestures, and substance of the message. It is the message that everyone may hear or see.

A

content

159
Q

5 parts of communication:

A

message, sender, channel, receiver, feedback

160
Q

factors influencing verbal communication

A

educational background, culture, language, age, and past experiences.

161
Q

The characteristics of therapeutic communication:

A

client centered, goal directed, strengthens/establishes therapeutic relationship, obtains healthcare info, express concern

162
Q

Phase of the therapeutic relationship used for gathering information prior to meeting the client

A

Preinteraction phase

163
Q

Phase of the therapeutic relationship where the nurse meets the client, introduction, establishes rapport & trust

A

orientation phase

164
Q

Orientation ends when:

A

the relationship has been defined

165
Q

Phase of the therapeutic relationship where the nurse communicates caring, the patient expresses thoughts and feelings.

A

Working phase

166
Q

The goal of the working phase of the therapeutic relationship is to:

A

assist the patient to clarify feelings and concerns

167
Q

Phase of the therapeutic relationship that concludes the relationship

A

Termination phase

168
Q

This is the desire to understand and be sensitive to the feelings, beliefs, and situation of another person.

A

Empathy

169
Q

_____ requires you to be willing to adapt your style, tone, vocabulary, and behavior to create the best approach for each client situation

A

Empathy

170
Q

valuing the client and being flexible to meet the client’s needs

A

respect

171
Q

This is the ability to respond honestly. If you are unable to answer a client’s question, do not offer guesses.

A

genuineness

172
Q

means using your own words to summarize the message you received from the client.

A

restating

173
Q

s helps ensure that you have accurately interpreted the information

A

clarifying

174
Q

asking the client whether you are making a correct interpretation.

A

validating

175
Q

Name the five steps of assertive communication

A
Get person's attention
express concern
state the problem
propose an action
reach a decision
176
Q

Barriers to ______ include:
too many questions, close ended questions, asking why, changing the subject abruptly, failing to listen or explore issues, expressing approval/disapproval, offering advice, giving false reassurance, stereotyping, using patronizing language

A

therapeutic communication

177
Q

The interview contract consists of

A

spoken and unspoken rules for behavior

178
Q

The receiver in conversation attaches meaning to the message based on:

A

past experience, culture, self-concept & current physical & emotional state

179
Q

internal factors of communicatoin

A

liking others, empathy, ability to listen

180
Q

recognizing a feeling and putting it into words

A

empathy

181
Q

when the frame of reference shifts from the patient’s perspective to yours

A

confrontation

182
Q

focusing on a discrepancy or inconsistency in the patient’s narrative

A

confrontation

183
Q

giving honest feedback about what you see or feel

A

confrontation

184
Q

health literacy involves the use of:

A

quantitative measurement and memory aspects

185
Q

Tools for determining health literacy

A

TOFHLA, REALM, NVS

186
Q

The health history sequence:

A
biography
source of history
reason for seeking care
present health/history of illness
past health
family history
system review
ADLs
187
Q

Does biographical data include any health information?

A

no

188
Q

Recording the source of history involves:

A

determining who provided the information, & reliability of informant, note presence of interpreter

189
Q

objective abnormality that can be detected on physical examination or in laboratory reports

A

sign

190
Q

When assessing pain, find out the:

A
P = Provocative or palliative
Q = Quality or quantity
R = Region or radiation
S = Severity scale: 1 to 10
T = Timing or onset
U = Understand patient’s perception of problem
191
Q

How does person describe health and illness

How does person see problems he or she is now experiencing

A

Health perception

192
Q

CAGE test determines:

A

risk for alcohol addiction

193
Q

Adolescent psychosocial interview mneumonic

A

HEEADSSS

194
Q

HEEADSSS stands for:

A
Home
Education and employment
Eating
Activities
Drugs
Sexuality
Suicide and depression
Safety
195
Q

The assessment interview questions for older adults focuses more on:

A

ways ADLs are affected by the normal aging process

196
Q

T/F Patients require a complete head to toe physical examination during every 24 hour stay

A

False

197
Q

The initial assessment I should involve

A

noting anything needed continuous monitoring

determine necessary frequency of determining status

198
Q

The initial assessment II is necessary in:

A

med-surg & cardiac step down units

199
Q

auscultating rhythm at apex, checking apical pulse against radial, assess heart sounds, cap. refill

A

Cardiovascular system I assessment

200
Q

pretibial edema, posterior tibial & dosalis pedis pulse, verify IV infusion factors

A

Cardiovascular system II assessment

201
Q

If patient is on bed rest, HOB should be

A

greater than 15 degrees as patient at risk for skin breakdown

202
Q

Infantalizing communication commonly used towards the older generation

A

Elderspeak

203
Q

healthiest stage of life

A

young adulthood

204
Q

stage of life where maturation of body systems completes

A

young adulthood

205
Q

phase when one is able to think rationally, predict outcomes, and hypothesize about the future

A

formal operations

206
Q

phase where one is able to accept contradictions and fine points in thinking

A

post-formal operations

207
Q

common health problems include STIs, pregnancies, traumatic injury, suicide attempts, substance abuse, domestic violence, obesity, diabetes, HTN

A

young adulthood

208
Q

Assessment of self-esteem and self-concept is part of the functional assessment. Areas covered under self-esteem and self-concept include:

A

education, financial status, and value-belief system.

209
Q

PQRSTU is a mnemonic that helps the clinician to remember to address characteristics specific to:

A

symptoms

210
Q

Managing and processing information necessary to make decisions

A

Informatics

211
Q

Managing and processing information applying to nursing practice, education, and research

A

Nursing informatics

212
Q

unprocessed numbers, symbols, words; no context

A

Data

213
Q

groupings of processed data

A

information

214
Q

meaningful information created by grouping and compiling information

A

knowledge

215
Q

appropriate use of knowledge

A

wisdom

216
Q

BP systolic measurement requiring immediate assistance

A

> 160 or

217
Q

O2 sat requiring immediate assistance

A
218
Q

O2 sat requiring immediate assistance

A
219
Q

Urine output requiring immediate assistance

A

> 30 or

220
Q

SBAR is used for

A

effective verbal communication

221
Q

SBAR stands for:

A

situation, background, assessment, recommendation

222
Q

Portion of SBAR that provides specific information relative to patient issue

A

situation

223
Q

portion of SBAR that provides context & assessment data relative to patient issue

A

background

224
Q

portion of SBAR that is the nurse’s interpretation of data relative to the patient issue

A

assessment

225
Q

portion of SBAR that is the expectation of physician’s orders relative to the patient issue

A

Recommendation

226
Q

A new bruise is usually red & develops a purplish or purple-bluish appearance how long after blunt-force trauma?

A

12-36 hours

227
Q

Bruise coloring changes from ___ to ___ to ___ to ____ before fading away

A

purple blue; bluish-green; greenish-brown; brownish-yellow

228
Q

used at healthcare facilities all over the country to improve verbal communication and reduce medical errors

A

SBAR

229
Q

age-based discrimination

A

ageism

230
Q

A pap test is no longer recommended by the American cancer society after what age?

A

70

231
Q

colon cancer screenings are necessary between the age of ___

A

50-75

232
Q

the bone density scan is recommended for all women age ___ and older

A

65

233
Q

activities needed to maintain one’s immediate environment (shopping, using the phone, housekeeping, managing money, preparing food and managing one’s medications)

A

instrumental activities of daily living

234
Q

bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, continence and feeding

A

activities of daily living

235
Q

use of the health record that determines whether the medical treatments and interventions were necessary and appropriate

A

utilization review

236
Q

use of the health record that determines whether the medical treatments and interventions were necessary and appropriate

A

utilization review

237
Q

_____ system organizes information according to the patient’s problems and requires keeping a daily record and progress notes

A

PIE

238
Q

Using the ___ system eliminates the need for a separate care plan and provides a nursing-focused rather than medical-focused record

A

PIE

239
Q

Aspect of focus charting that reflects the evaluation phase of the nursing process

A

Response

240
Q

the process of selecting the words, gestures, tone of voice, signs and symbols used to transmit the message

A

encoding

241
Q

the literal/dictionary meaning of a word

A

denotation

242
Q

the implied or emotional meaning of a word

A

connotation

243
Q

intonation is the:

A

tone of voice

244
Q

intonation is determined by the

A

pitch, cadence & volume

245
Q

groupings of data processed into a meaningful, structured form

A

information

246
Q

the appropriate use of knowledge in managing or solving human problems

A

Wisdom

247
Q

occurs when the wrong action occurs

A

error of comission

248
Q

occurs when the correct action does not occur

A

error of omission

249
Q

Database that covers nursing, alllied health, biomedical, and consumer health journals.

A

CINAHL

250
Q

Database that provides regularly updated collections of evidence based medicine databases, includice systematic reviews, effectiveness and trials. Reliable evidence about the effects of healthcare

A

Cochrane Library

251
Q

Database that provides integrated acess to medical, health, and wellness information from reference sources, magazine and journal articles, pamphlets,a nd internet resources.

A

Health and Wellness Resource Center

252
Q

Database that is the world’s largest medical library in all areas of biomedicine and healthacre

A

MEDLINE

253
Q

Database that covers worldwide literature in psychology/psychiatry/sociology/anthropology/education/linguistics and pharmacology.

A

PsycINFO 1887

254
Q

Studied cognitive development based on the assumption that human nature is rational.

A

Piaget