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6336 Mgnt of childbearing family > Test #2 > Flashcards

Test #2 Flashcards

1
Q

What bug are considered Gram + cocci?

A

Streptococcus and staphylociccus

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2
Q

What bug is a gram - cocci?

A

N. Gonorrhoeae

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3
Q

What type of bacteria s Listeria monocoytogenes?

A

Gram + rods

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4
Q

What type of bacteria is E. Coli and Klebsiella?

A

Gram - rods

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5
Q

What are the guidelines for the management of GBS screening?

A

universal screening between 35-37 weeks

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6
Q

What is the highest risk for neonatal sepsis

A

Low birth weight

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7
Q

What is an abnormal finding in the CSF for WBC?

A

> 32mm3

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8
Q

what bug in a coagulase test shows a positive and a negative finding?

A

+: staph epi

-: staph aureus

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9
Q

What is the most common bug in an UTI infections?

A

E. Coli

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10
Q

What antibx is used to treat pseudomonas infections?

A

aminoglycosides

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11
Q

What antibxs are used to treat gonhrrhea?

A

cefts!

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12
Q

What is used to treat CMV infections because they cause less of a hearing loss

A

Ganciclovir

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13
Q

What is the most common MOA of Antibx?

A

inhibition of the cell wall syntheses

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14
Q

What drug is used to tx HSV for 21 days to CNS or disseminated disease

A

Acyclovir

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15
Q

What disease is indicitive with baby presents with “blueberry muffin”

A

CMV

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16
Q

What drug is used as a antiviral treatment that will decrease severity of deafness but won’t prevent it?

A

Gancyclovir

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17
Q

Most infant acquire infections when?

A

late in 3rd trimester and also during delivery

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18
Q

If the infant is + HBeAg and no antiHBe the infant has a high risk for ___

A

Infection

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19
Q

If the mother is HBsAg + the infant is given what within 12 hrs after delivery.

A

Hepatitis B immune globulin 0.5mls

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20
Q

What lab test is used for early diagnosis of infants born to HIV + mothers?

A

PCR

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21
Q

What disease is high communicable and acquired as a fetus?

A

fetal varicella syndrome

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22
Q

What is given to infants of mothers who developed a rash 5 day prior and 2 say after delivery that prevent rash development in infants at50%?

A

VZIG

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23
Q

What med is used to treat gonococcal conjunctivitis?

A

Ceftriaxone 25-50 mg/kg IM or IV

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24
Q

Chlamydia affects eyes and what other organ

A

lungs

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25
Q

What is the antibx of choice when treating chlamydia?

A

Erythromycin and azithromycin

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26
Q

In syphilis, the transplacental passage of the spirochete is what type of organism?

A

Gram -

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27
Q

That is the main treatment for syphilis?

A

Penicillin

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28
Q

What type of bacteria is listeria?

A

Gram + rod

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29
Q

What is the Drug of Choice for listeria?

A

ampicillin

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30
Q

What is described in an informed consent?

A

The risk and benefits of preforming the procedure versus not performing the procedure

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31
Q

For a Bladder aspiration, where is the needle inserted?

A

0.5-1 cm above the symphysis at a 90 degree angle

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32
Q

When is a lumbar puncture contraindicated?

A

When the plt count is below 30,000.

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33
Q

Where should a lumbar puncture site be marked at?

A

tap at L4

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34
Q

What is a complication from a lumbar puncture, when using a butterfly?

A

Intraspinal epidermoid tumor

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35
Q

Which of the following are recommended for acute pain management in neonates?

A
  • Therapy should begin with nonpharmacologic interventions progressing to pharmacologic interventions
36
Q

What is consequence of pain?

A

Hyperglycemia

37
Q

Sucros in hypothesized to modulate transmission or processing of nocieption through medication by the:

A

-Endogenous opioid system

38
Q

Which of the following indicators is the most specific to the pain experience?

A

-facial expressions

39
Q

Pain assessment in hospitalized neonates is best evaluated by

A

a composite neonate pain tool with established reliability and validity

40
Q

Assessing and managing pain in hospitalized neonates should be based on the knowledge that:

A

acute, episodic pain may lead to established or chronic pain

41
Q

What is the best tool for assessing sedation

A

N-PASS

42
Q

What is informed consent?

A

Written or oral description of the procedure

43
Q

What should also be a option when giving informed consent?

A

The option of NO treatment when the benefits are questionable

44
Q

A pregnant teen mother does or does not have the legal right to make medical decision for her child?

A

She does have the legal right

45
Q

When feeling for a lumbar puncture you should slide your finger across the back to ____ from the iliac crest

A

L4

46
Q

Why should you not use a butterfly needle and only a needle with a stylet in Lumbar punctures?

A

Intraspinal spidermoid tumor

47
Q

What is a major contraindication for a suprapubic bladder aspiration?

A

Uncorrected thrombocytopenia (plts <30)

48
Q

What landmark should you insert the needle for a suprapubic bladder aspiration?

A

0.5 cm above the symphysis pubis

49
Q

Routine maternal drug screening without consent is….

A

Illegal

50
Q

Testing _____ infants without parental consent may be included as part of the work up

A

Symptomatic

51
Q

Acute drug exposed infants may have symptoms that last for…

A

Weeks

52
Q

Sub-acute drug exposed infants may have symptoms that last for … and include

A 
4-6 months
hyperirritability
feeding/gi probs
sleep probs
hypertonia
53
Q

What does carbon monoxide abd hemoglobin form with mixed?

A

carboxyhemoglobin

54
Q

What drug induced glucuronyl transferase and surfactant resulting in decreased incidences of RDS and Hyperbili in the infant?

A

Heroin

55
Q

Symptoms of W/D from heroin appear early due to..

A

short half life

56
Q

What is a synthetic long acting opiate used for treatment of heroin addiction?

A

Methadone

57
Q

What two things do babies of methadone treated mothers possess rather than heroin babies?

A

Higher birth weights and no increase in congenital anomalies

58
Q

What do methadone babies posses that heroin don’t?

A

Smaller head - methadone

59
Q

ADHD incidence is higher than unexposed infants of what drug

A

Methadone and alcohol

60
Q

What type of drug causes the greatest withdrawal symptoms in NB?

A

Heroin/methadone - opiods have more!

61
Q

NAS is mostly cause by what dysfunction in the NB?

A

Autonomic - yawing, hiccups, sneezing, mottled

62
Q

When should the initial NAS scoring begin? and what is the name?

A

Finnegan - at 2 hours

63
Q

What are the 1st trimester results of Fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Congenital defects and dysmorphology

64
Q

What is the most common cardiac defect of FAS?

A

ASD

65
Q

When is Herpes Simplex virus the highest risk to newborns

A

When the mother’s primary infection occur during the pregnancy

66
Q

Herpes (HSV) presents when what kind of symptoms?

A

hepatitis, pneumonitis, encephalitis

67
Q

What virus is shed in the urine?

A

CMV

68
Q

90% of all neonates become chronic carries of Hep B with…

A

persistent (+) HBsAg (hep B surface antigen)

69
Q

What may appear years later is Hep B virus replication continues?

A

Anti-HBc-IgG

70
Q

When do most infants acquire the HBV infection?

A

late in 3rd trimester or at delivery

71
Q

What is elevates in the cord blood that suggests intrauterine acquired NON-bacterial infection?

A

IgM

72
Q

For severe chicken pox infection treat with…

A

IV acylovir to decrease viral replication, # of lesions, and infection

73
Q

When must you discharge all Chickenpox patients? or you must…

A

before 8 days post exposure

or 8-21 days isolation

74
Q

What infection causes purulent conjunctivitis 2-5 days of life?

A

neisseria gonorrhea

75
Q

What drug may cause pyloric stenosis which azithromycin can be given

A

Erythromycin

76
Q

What % mortality rate is from early onset sepsis usually from mother

A

10-30%

77
Q

What % mortality rate is from late onset (5-7 days) sepsis usually nosocomial and inversely related to brithweight

A

5-10%

78
Q

Dohle’s bodies, toxic granules, and vacuolization are said on CBC results when?

A

an infection is present

79
Q

What are three components of a neg predictive WBC?

A

WBC > 5000
ANC >1750
I/T ratio <0.3

80
Q

What are two most common bugs in blood infections?

A

E. Coli and S. Aureus

81
Q

What are two most common bugs in CSF infections?

A

GBS and E. Coli

82
Q

How long should Gram - infection be treated for? Gram +?

A

Gram - = 21 days

Gram + = 14 days

83
Q

Hydrocephalus can be cause by what due to the obstruction of CSF flow?

A

Meningitis

84
Q

What antibiotic can treat E. Coli, Pseudomonas, klebsiella, serratia, and H. Flu?

A

Aztreonam

85
Q

What is not a factor for Neonatal abstinence syndrome?

A

Maternal age

86
Q

What is the most accurate to measure for Perinatal drug exposure>

A

Assess neonate for withdrawal symptoms

6336 Mgnt of childbearing family (3 decks)

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