Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clin Ed test 2 > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What do you need to accomplish during the interview?

A
  • Build Therapeutic Alliance
  • Learn patient’s story
  • Learn about patient’s chief complaint, prior treatment, pain
  • Gain some information about living environment, support network
  • Learn Patient’s learning styles
  • For diagnosis
  • Build rapport with patient
  • Learn patient goals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are barriers to a good interview?

A
  • Time
  • Language
  • Patient attitudes, beliefs, emotionally laded
  • Patient’s fear or distrust of healthcare
  • Insurance, 3rd party payment
  • The physical environment- is there a quiet space available
  • Therapists ability to listen attentively, respond helpfully
  • Therapists lack of knowledge about signs/symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do we use the interview as a diagnostic tool?

A
  • Objectivity
  • Precision
  • Sensitivity and Specificity
  • Reliability
  • Skill
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What things will impact a patient’s utilization and outcomes of PT?

A
  • Access to healthcare
  • Language
  • Socioeconomic status
  • Insurance
  • Distance to travel to receive care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three core qualities in clinical interviewing when building the therapeutic relationship?

A
  • Respect: the ability to accept the patient as he or she is
  • Empathy: the ability to understand the patient’s experiences and feelings accurately; it also includes demonstrating that understanding to the patient
  • Genuineness: the ability to be congruent in your professional role
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define congruency?

A

when the words you say and your emotions add up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define microaggresion?

A

responses that may be interpreted as put-downs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why do we document at PTs?

A
  • To provide a basis for clinical reasoning
  • Communication tool for providers
  • Meet legal requirements
  • Payment for service
  • Data collection for outcome assessment/EBP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does SOAP stand for?

A

• Subjective (what the patient said)
• Objective (what the practitioner observed)
• Assessment of what this meant
• Plan for future care
(The progress notes, narrative note flow sheets documenting changes in data over time, and a discharge note)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are characteristics of qualitative research?

A
  • Involves unstructured interviews, observation, and content analysis
  • Subjective
  • Inductive
  • Little structure
  • Little manipulation of subjects
  • Takes a great deal of time to conduct
  • Little social distance between researcher and subject
  • Different people can perceive the truth differently
  • Qualitative research attempts to find out how people perceive their lives
  • Different people will have different perspectives
  • The researcher’s experiences, beliefs, and values are incorporated into the research design and analysis of the data
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the methods?

A
  • Observation
  • Interviews
  • Data analysis and interpretation
  • Trustworthiness and generalizability (Credibility, Transferability, Triangulation)
  • Sampling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the characteristics of Quantitative Research?

A
  • Involves experiments, surveys, testing and structured content analysis, interviews and observation
  • Objective
  • Deductive
  • High degree of structure
  • Some manipulation of subjects
  • May not require a lot of researcher time
  • Much social distance between researcher and subject
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a paradigm?

A

• A “worldview” or a set of assumptions about how things work; “shared understandings of reality”
• Primary Paradigms:
o Positivism: Associated with quantitative research. Involves hypothesis testing to obtain “objective” truth.
o Interpretivism: Associated with qualitative research. Used to obtain an understanding of the world from an individual perspective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 3 components of the Biopsychosocial model, adopted by the WHO?

A

• The WHO defines health as “a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.”
• The three components are:
——-Biology, Psychology, and Social Environment
• The model assumes that the person’s response to any state of health or illness is a result of the interaction of the person’s psychology and social environment with the biological determinants of disease and trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe the NAGI?

A

o Active pathology: interruption or interference with normal processes and effort of the organism to regain normal state
o Impairment: anatomical, physiological, mental or emotional abnormalities
o Functional Limitations: limitation in performance at the level of the whole organism or person
o Disability: limitation in performance of socially defined roles and tasks within a sociocultural and physical environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe ICF?

A

o Integrates social and environmental aspects of disability and health
o Provides a framework for integrating; Sensory, Intellectual, Mental and Physical together
o Health Conditions: diseases, disorders and injuries
o Body Function: physiological functions of body systems, Body Structures: anatomical parts of the body, Impairments: problems in body functions or structure
o Activity: the execution of a task or action by an individual, Activity Limitation: difficulties an individual may have in executing activities
o Participation: involvement in a life situation, Participation Restriction: problems an individual may experience in involvement in life situations

17
Q

WHO goals for ICF?

A
  • Establish a common language
  • Data collection and comparison – across countries, disciplines, services
  • Stimulate research
  • Promote improved care
  • Provide a systematic coding scheme
  • Influence policy changes
18
Q

What is the APTA ICF learning system?

A

o Body Functions – Physiological functions
o Body Structures – Anatomical parts
o Activities and Participation – Performance of a task/action
—–Involvement in a life situation
o Environmental Factors – Physical, social, and attitudinal environment in which people live/conduct their lives
o Personal Factors – The background of a person’s life
—–Factors such as gender, race, age, social background, upbringing, etc.

19
Q

What does ICF stand for?

A

International classification of functioning model → which classifies patient care based primarily on the patient’s pathology and which was also developed by the WHO

20
Q

What does NAGI stand for?

A

person who provided the first organized descriptions of a concept of disablement as distinct from disease.
o He identified that in order to understand disability, it was necessary to make distinctions among four separate but linked concepts: pathology, impairment, functional limitation, and disability

21
Q

Define clinical judgement?

A

the ability of the clinician to blend his or her skills and experience to make good clinical judgments in a timely clinical fashion

22
Q

define patient values?

A

the preferences that each patient, and often the patient’s family, brings to the clinical encounter. The preferences can arise form cultural or religious norms, from personal attitudes and beliefs, or from the patient’s prior experiences and knowledge

23
Q

Define patient circumstances?

A

the situation in which the patient finds him or herself. Can refer to the location of care, the resources available to provide care, including funding for care or to the resources for the patient to deal with short term and long term sequence of the illness or trauma.

24
Q

Define best research evidence?

A

the information available from the basic sciences that underlie our care, but primarily from the clinical research, to help us answer specific questions about our patient care

25
Q

What is evidence based practice?

A

refers to the full integration of each of these elements, which allows the patient and the practitioner, working together, to make joint decisions that result in the ability to achieve the goals needed and desired for reaching optimal health

26
Q

What are the three elements of evidence based practice?

A

o Our own clinical expertise
o The patient’s values and circumstances
o The best research evidence available

27
Q

What is the moral model for Brickmans?

A
  • Patient IS responsible for causing the problem
  • Patient IS responsible for the solution
  • Patient is admonished, provider highly values patent education but is less likely to provide it
28
Q

What is the compensatory model for Brickmans?

A
  • Patient IS NOT responsible for causing the problem
  • Patient IS responsible for the solution
  • provider has sympathy, provider highly values and is likely to provide patient education
29
Q

What is the enlightenment model for Brickmans?

A
  • Patient IS responsible for causing the problem
  • Patient IS NOT responsible for the solution
  • Patient education is of less value, patient likely to be the problem, provider will choose a solution that minimizes need for patient education
30
Q

What is the Medical model for Brickmans?

A
  • Patient IS NOT responsible for causing the problem
  • Patient IS NOT responsible for the solution
  • patient education is of less value, provider responsible for solution, which minimizes need for patient education
31
Q

What is the iron triangle of health care (Kissick’s)?

A
  • access, quality and cost containment
  • an equilateral triangle, altering any one of these elements requires a change in one or both of the others
  • Balance begins to inform out understanding of the competing tensions between access to and the cost and quality of health services that can occur
32
Q

When was quality of care primary concern? and what did it advance?

A
  • 1890’s to 1920’s

* resulted in advancements in public health-> immunizations, quarantines

33
Q

When was access to care primary concern? and what did it advance?

A
  • 1920’s to 1960’s
  • accomplished through 2 primary mechanisms, payment and infrastructure development
  • payment went from being a direct responsibility of patients to being handled by employers through development of health care insurance (1965)
34
Q

What was cost of healthcare a major focus?

A

1970’s

35
Q

What does ICD stand for?

A

international classification of diseases

36
Q

What does CPT stand for?

A

current procedural terminology

37
Q

What does NP stand for?

A

nurse practitioner

38
Q

What does CNP stand for?

A

Certified Nurse practitioner

39
Q

What does PA stand for?

A

physician assistant

Clin Ed test 2 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions