Test 2: 3/3/16 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following types of shock are caused by “relative hypovolemia?”

A) Obstructive and septic
B) Septic and cardiogenic
C) Anaphylactic and neurogenic
D) Cardiogenic and hemorrhagic

A

C

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2
Q

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated for PT’s who:

A) have an irregular pulse
B) have experienced a head injury
C) took an erectile dysfunction drug within the past week
D) have a systolic bp less than 120 mm HG

A

B

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3
Q

The coronary arteries of a person with arteriosclerotic heart disease:

A) are thickened and hardened and lose their elasticity
B) begin to dissect through the layers of the arterial wall
C) develop plaque deposits from cholesterol and fatty substances
D) become engorged with blood as cardiac oxygen demand increases

A

A

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4
Q

You are dispatched to a residence for a 69 y/o female with “breathing problems”. When you arrive, the Pt’s husband directs you to his wife, who is sitting on the couch in obvious respiratory distress. She is semiconscious and has labored, shallow respirations. You ascultate her lungs and hear diffuse rhonchi in all lung fields. Which of the following interventions would be of LEAST benefit to her?

A) Assisted ventilations with a bag mask device
B) IV therapy with up to 500 mL normal saline bolus
C) Suction of her airway for up to 15 seconds if needed
D) Prompt transport and considerations of a paramedic intercept

A

B

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5
Q

The Spinal nerves branch out from the spinal cord and:

A) are only capable of sensory input
B) send messages exclusively to the brain
C) send motor response to the brain
D) carry signals to and from the body

A

D

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6
Q

Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR?

A) Dependent blood pooling
B) Pulselessness and apnea
C) agonal respiratory effort
D) Severe cyanosis to the face

A

A

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7
Q

Index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:

A) Your prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched
B) your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness
C) ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms
D) determining the underlying cause of a PT’s medical condition based on S/S

A

B

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8
Q

What is the pulse pressure of a patient with BP of 104/58 mm Hg?

A) 23 mm Hg
B) 46 mm Hg
C) 81 mm Hg
D) 162 mm Hg

A

B

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9
Q

What happens when systemic vascular resistance is decreased?

A) Systolic BP falls
B) A reflex bradycardia occurs
C) Cardiac output is increased
D) Right atrial preload is increased

A

A

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10
Q

How many pounds does a 90 kg PT weight?

A) 186 lb
B) 189 lb
C) 194 lb
D) 198 lb

A

D

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11
Q

Which of the following will Most reliably allow you to determine the nature of a PT’s illness?

A) Trending of the PT’s vital signs over time
B) Asking questions related to the CC
C) Refraining from asking open ended questions
D) Focusing solely on how the call is dispatched

A

B

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12
Q

You respond to an apartment complex for an unconscious male. When you arrive, the PT’s friends tells you that he overdosed on heroin. Following your local protocal, you administer 2 mg of naloxone. You have 1 mL ampules of naloxone that contain 0.4 mg per ampule. How many ampules will you have to use?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 5

A

D

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13
Q

Treatment for a PT experiencing a cardiovascular emergency begins by:

A) Assessing the rate and regularity of the pulse
B) applying 100% O2 via NRB mask
C) administering prescribed nitroglycerin if needed
D) ensuring airway patency and adequate breathing

A

D

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14
Q

A 70 y/o male presents with acute aphasia, unilateral weakness, and confusion. In addition to administering 100% O2, it is important.

A) use the Cincinnati Stroke scale to rule out stroke
B) start an IV line with a hypertonic cyrstalloid solution
C) assess his BG level to rule out hypoglycemia
D) apply an AED in case the PT develops cardiac arrest.

A

C

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15
Q

Which of the following represents the correct sequences of electrical conduction through the myocardium?

A) SA node, AV node, Bundle of HIS, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

B) AV node, SA node, bundle branches, Bundle of HIS, Purkinje fibers

C) SA node, Bundle of HIS, AV node, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

D) AV node, Purkinje fibers, SA node, Bundle of HIS, bundle branches

A

A

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16
Q

In contrast to bronchitis, pneumonia typically presents with:

A) fever and chills
B) fluid in the lungs
C) a productive cough
D) varying levels of hypoxia

A

A

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17
Q

A microdrip administration set features a small, needle-like orifice inside the drip chamber and delivers:

A) 10 gtts/mL
B) 15 gtts/mL
C) 60 gtts/mL
D) 100 gtts/mL

A

c

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18
Q

Routine treatment for a patient who has just experienced a generalized tonic clonic seizure and is postictal includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A) an IV of normal saline or a saline lock
B) 50% dextrose via IV administration
C) assessing for a trauma to the long bones or spine
D) 100% O2 and ventilatory assistance as needed

A

B

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19
Q

A 67 y/0 male presents with an AMS following 2 days of severe chest pain. His wife tells you that he would not allow her to call EMS. Your assessment reveals a tachycardic, irregular pulse, diaphoresis, and a BP of 80/50 mm Hg. You should suspect.

A) unstable angina with poor perfusion
B) compensated cardiogenic shock
C) decompensated cardiogenci shock
D) acute myocardial infarction and hypovolemia

A

C

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20
Q

What physiologic response causes vasovagal reaction?

A) Vasodilation and increase in BP
B) Vasoconstriction and a decrease in BP
C) Vasoconstriction and an increase in HR
D) Vasodilation and a decrease in BP

A

D

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21
Q

Obstructive shock occurs when the:

A) blood vessels are occluded and perfusion is impaired
B) airway is blocked and results in inadequate oxygenation
C) heart is physically restricted from pumping adequately
D) kidneys are obstructed and are unable to filter the blood

A

C

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22
Q

Which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence when obtaining a focused history of a PT with an acute onset of chest discomfort?

A) Have you ever been told you have low blood pressure
B) Have you experienced paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?
C) Do you have any respiratory diseases, such as emphysema?
D) Do you have diabetes or any problems with your blood sugar?

A

A

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23
Q

An anaphylactic reaction impairs effective breathing secondary to:

A) catecholamine release
B) upper-airway swelling
C) diffuse alveolar collapse
D) excess fluid in the alveoli

A

B

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24
Q

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that:

A) the majority of medical Pt’s you encounter are also injured
B) it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABC’s occurs
C) most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms
D) the conditions of many medical PT’s may not appear serious at first

A

D

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25
Q

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:

A) reassessing the nature of illness
B) taking another set of vital signs
C) repeating the primary assessment
D) reviewing all treatment performed

A

C

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26
Q

Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by:

A) irregular tachypnea with occasional periods of apnea
B) impaired respirations with sustained inspiratory effort
C) tachypnea and hyperpnea with an acetone breath odor
D) tachypnea and bradypnea with an alternating apneic periods

A

D

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27
Q

A patient experiencing status epilepticus:

A) commonly has a therapeutic anticonvulsant level
B) has a return of consciousness in between seizures
C) typically maintains bowel and bladder continence
D) is having a prolonged generalized motor seizure

A

D

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28
Q

You are treating a responsive 50 y/0 man with a severe airway obstruction when he becomes unresponsive. After properly positioning the PT, you should.

A) perform 30 chest compressions
B) perform a finger sweep of his mouth
C) perform continuous abdominal thrusts
D) open his airway and look in his mouth

A

A

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29
Q

In cases of pulmonary edema, diffusion is impaired primarily because of:

A) fluid filled alveoli
B) widespread atelectasis
C) decreased cardiac contractility
D) severe pulmonary vasoconstriction

A

A

30
Q

You respond to the residence of a 27 y/o male with AMS. As you are assessing him his girlfriend tell you he doesn’t have any medical problems that she is aware of; however he did fall 2 days ago and struck his head. These clinical and historical findings should make you MOST suspicious for:

A) acute hypoglycemia
B) meningeal artery rupture
C) epidural hemorrhaging
D) subdural hemorrhaging

A

D

31
Q

As perfusion decreases, the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, resulting in:

A) a decreased production of glycogen in the liver
B) A release of epinephrine and non-epinephrine
C) decreased vascular tone and increased HR
D) increased preload and decreased systemic vascular resistance

A

B

32
Q

What is the pathophysiology of distributive shock?

A) A disproportionate volume of blood due to an enlarged vascular space
B) Shunting of deoxygenated blood away from the alveoli to the left atrium
C) A massive release of histamine that results in severe bronchoconstriction
D) Loss of circulating red blood cells and inadequate perfusion to the body

A

A

33
Q

When administered to a normally hydrated patient, normal saline will:

A) cause fluid to shift into the cell
B) cause fluid to shift out of the cell
C) stay in the intravascular space
D) engorge the intracellular space

A

C

34
Q

What physiologic response would be expected to occur if a PT’s systolic BP dropped below 80 mm Hg?

A) Increased baroreceptor stimulation and subsequent vasodilatation
B) Vasomotor stimulation with resultant arterial vasoconstriction
C) An inhibitory response from the sympathetic nervous system
D) Inhibition of the vasomotor center and subsequent vasodilation

A

B

35
Q

You are assessing a 59 y/o male with AMS. You should suspect an acute ischemic stroke versus hypoglycemia if the PT:

A) rapidly loses consciousness
B) is incontinent of urine and feces
C) attempts to communicate with you
D) has a prescription for phenobarbital

A

C

36
Q

A hemorrhagic stroke occurs as a result of:

A) a ruptured cerebral artery
B) uncontrolled hypertension
C) a blood clot within the brain
D) blood in the arachnoid space

A

A

37
Q

The secondary assessment of a medical PT:

A) should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe
B) should be preformed at the scene, especially if the PT is critically ill
C) is not practical if the PT is critically ill or your transport time is short
D) is typically limited to a focused exam for PT’s who are unconscious

A

C

38
Q

Blood enters the right atrium through the:

A) left and right coronary arteries
B) Vena cavae and coronary sinus
C) foramen ovalis and vena cavae
D) coronary artery and formen ovale

A

B

39
Q

Unstable angina pectoris is characterized by:

A) A fixed frequency of chest pain or pressure that is often relieved by rest and several doses of nitroglycerin
B) Chest pain or discomfort that may not be relieved by rest or nitroglycerin, and that occurs without a fixed frequency
C) chest pain or pressure that lasts longer than 15 minutes and is associated with myocardial necrosis
D) chest pain or pressure that occurs during periods of strenuous activity and promptly subsides with rest.

A

B

40
Q

Perfusion is defined as:

A) removal of Carbon dioxide from the body
B) circulation of blood within an organ or tissue
C) adequate supplies of glucose within the brain
D) oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange in the lungs

A

B

41
Q

You are dispatched to a residence for a 59 y/o male with an unknown emergency. When you arrive you find a PT sitting on the couch. He is conscious, noticeably diaphoretic, and complains of dizziness and weakness. During your assessment, you note a large, well healed vertical scar in the center of his chest and a small bulge just under the skin in the left upper section of his chest. His BP is 90/50 mm HG, Pulse 44 beats/min and weak, and Respirations 24 breaths/minute and unlabored. What is the MOST likely cause of the PT’s condition

A) Atypical angina pectoris
B) Artificial pacemaker failure
C) Damaged coronary artery graft
D) Decreased parasympathetic tone

A

B

42
Q

A 20 y/o male has sustained blunt trauma to the face, chest, and abdomen after being attacked by a rival gang. Which of the following signs or symptoms is MOST suggestive of decompensated (progressive) shock?

A) Narrowing pulse pressure
B) Agitation and restlessness
C) Diaphoresis and tachycardia
D) Systolic BP of 100 mm Hg

A

A

43
Q

The presence of distended jugular veins that do not collapse, even when the PT is sitting is consistent with:

A) cardiogenic shock
B) CHF
C) a thoracic aortic aneurysm
D) an acute hypertensive crisis

A

B

44
Q

After starting an IV on a PT in shock, the AEMT accidentally gets stuck with the IV needle. This is referred to as a/an:

A) contaminated stick
B) disease contraction
C) infectious exposure
D) communicable stick

A

A

45
Q

Cardiomyopathy may lead to pulmonary edema due to:

A) acute injury to the myocardium
B) a profound decrease in HR
C) reduced contractile force of the heart
D) weakening of the right side of the heart

A

D

46
Q

When assessing a female PT with CP and SOB, you note that her BP is 80/50 Hg, her HR is 120 beats/min, and she has cyanosis around her mouth. In addition to supporting her ventilations, you should:

A) establish IV access
B) perform a secondary assessment
C) prepare for immediate transport
D) give her a bronchodilator drug

A

C

47
Q

The alpha 1 effects of norepinephrine result in:

A) dilation of the arteries and veins
B) profound bronchoconstriction
C) increased peripheral vascular resistance
D) a regulated release of alpha 2

A

C

48
Q

Filtration, a type of diffusion is commonly used to clean the blood via the:

A) Liver
B) kidneys
C) Pancreas
D) spleen

A

B

49
Q

Syphilis is a:

A) high risk disease to the AEMT, especially through a needle stick
B) bloodborne disease that can successfully be treated with penicillin
C) sexually transmitted disease that is only found in vaginal secretions
D) bacterial infection that is typically resistant to antibiotic medications

A

B

50
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiac electrical conduction system?

A) sinoatrial node
B) Atrioventricular node
C) Interatrial septum
D) Purkinje fibers

A

C

51
Q

A PT who presents with hypotension, jugular venous distention and a rapid irregular pulse should be expected of experiencing:

A) neurogenic shock
B) cardiogenic shock
C) distributive shock
D) hypovolemic shock

A

B

52
Q

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?

A) Depression
B) Schizophrenia
C) Substance abuse
D) Alzheimer disease

A

C

53
Q

The term acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is used to describe:

A) A specific condition in which a coronary artery is totally blocked
B) A variety of cardiac dyrhythmias caused by a myocardial infarction
C) any change in the pattern or characteristics of a PT’s angina
D) any group of symptoms consistent with acute Myocardial ischemia

A

D

54
Q

The term bolus is defined as:

A) administering at least 20 mL of volume
B) administering less than 10 mL of volume
C) delivering a drug via maintenance infusion
D) administering a drug in one mass of volume

A

D

55
Q

Afterload is defined as the:

A) volume of blood returned to the left or right atrium
B) amount of blood ejected per ventricular contraction
C) percentage of blood ejected from the left ventricle
D) pressure against which the left ventricle must pump

A

D

56
Q

A 72 y/o male presents with black tarry stools and weakness. He is restless, pale, and diaphoretic. His BP is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse 110 beats/minute and weak, and respirations are 24 breaths/min. On the basis of this PT’s clinical presentation, you should suspect:

A) progressive shock
B) compensated shock
C) irreversible shock
D) decompensated shock

A

B

57
Q

When assessing a PT for peripheral edema, you should check the sacral area if the PT is:

A) bedridden
B) sitting up
C) ambulatory
D) semi-reclined

A

A

58
Q

Chronic carbon dioxide retention, as seen in PT’s with certain lung diseases, may cause the PT to:

A) develop extended periods of hypocarbia
B) experience acute tidal volume increases
C) breathe on the basis of decreased oxygen
D) develop tachypnea if given 100 % O2

A

C

59
Q

A 33 y/0 male complains of generalized weakness and chest discomfort that began following his morning workout at the gym. He is conscious and alert, but restless. Your assessment reveals a BP 130/64 mm HG, pulse of 78 beats/min and occasionally irregular, respirations of 16 breaths/min and unlabored, and an SPO2 of 98% on room air. He has prescribed nitroglycerin tablets and states that he took one without relief. An appropriate tx for this PT includes.

A) O2 via NRB, one chewable baby aspirin, IV fluid bolus, and prompt transport.
B) O2 via NC, up to 2 more doses of nitro, saline lock, and transport
C) O2 NRB, up to 324 mg aspirin, supine with his legs elevated, and transport
D) O2 via NC, up to 324 mg aspirin, saline lock, additional nitro per medical control, transport

A

D

60
Q

When ventilating an apneic adult with a simple barrier device, you should deliver each breath:

A) over a period of about 1 to 2 seconds
B) while watching for adequate chest rise
C) with tidal volume of about 500 mL
D) quickly to ensure adequate ventilation

A

B

61
Q

Cardiac asthma is a condition in which a PT:

A) with a history of asthma develops wheezing caused by an acute cardiac event
B) with congestive heart failure experiences wheezing due to constricted bronchi
C) develops acute respiratory distress when fluid suddenly accumulates in the lungs
D) inadvertently takes too much of his or her beta-blocker, resulting in bronchospasm

A

B

62
Q

Which of the following physiologic processes occurs during pulmonary respiration?

A) O2 moves into the systemic cells
B) O2 is exchanged for carbon dioxide
C) Carbon dioxide moves into the capillaries
D) Carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveoli

A

D

63
Q

When assessing a middle-aged male patient with CP, you note a large vertical scar in the center of his chest. This indicates that he has MOST likely had:

A) a coronary artery bypass graft
B) coronary artery stent placement
C) a percutaneous angioplasty
D) a surgically implanted cardiac pacemaker

A

A

64
Q

You are transporting a 55 y/o female with CP, who has not responded to 3 doses of nitroglycerin. As you are talking to her, she becomes unresponsive and apneic. You should:

A) assess her pulse, begin CPR, analyze her cardiac rhythm with the AED, and tell your partner to stop the vehicle.
B) begin CPR, tell your partner to stop the vehicle, analyze her rhythm with an AED, and defibrillate if needed.
C) assess her pulse, tell your partner to stop the vehicle, begin CPR, and analyze her cardiac rhythm with AED.
D) immediately analyze her cardiac rhythm with an AED, tell your partner to stop the vehicle, and defibrillate if needed.

A

C

65
Q

Osmosis is defined as the:

A) diffusion of molecules across the cell membrane
B) movement of water to an area of lower concentration
C) passive transport of molecules across the cell membrane
D) movement of water across a semipermeable membrane

A

D

66
Q

In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:

A) almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem
B) is focused on the nature of illness, the PT’s CC, and the PT’s symptoms
C) requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems
D) is not as complex for the AEMT, because most patients typically present with classic symptoms.

A

B

67
Q

An intraosseous line should be inserted in a critical PT if:

A) IV access is unsuccessful after three attempts
B) you cannot readily see a visible peripheral vein
C) the PT will require a whole blood transfusion
D) you cannot establish IV access within 3 minutes

A

A

68
Q

Migraine headaches are thought to be caused by:

A) an intracranial lesion, such as a tumor or abscess
B) shunting of excess amounts of blood from the brain
C) Changes in blood vessel size within the base of the brain
D) excess psychological stress that is poorly managed

A

C

69
Q

An ischemic stroke is MOST often the result of a(n):

A) cerebral embolism
B) blocked cerebral artery
C) intracerebral hemorrhage
D) sudden cerebral vasospasm

A

B

70
Q

A solution that hydrates the cells while depleting the vascular compartment is referred to as being:

A) isotonic
B) hypotonic
C) hypertonic
D) hyperosmolar

A

B

71
Q

Which of the following is the MOST significant complication associated with IV therapy in geriatric PT’s:

A) fluid overloading
B) Massive hematoma
C) Fluid extravasation
D) Easily infiltrated veins

A

A