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Infection Control > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Sterilization

A

The process of destroying all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores.

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2
Q

Disinfection

A

The process of reducing the number of pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate objects to a safe level.

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3
Q

Critical patient care items

A

Items that come into contact with sterile tissue or the vascular system.

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4
Q

Semicritical patient care items

A

Items that come into contact with mucous membranes or nonintact skin.

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5
Q

Noncritical patient care items

A

Items that come into contact with intact skin but not mucous membranes.

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6
Q

Sterility assurance

A

The process of ensuring that instruments and equipment are free from viable microorganisms.

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7
Q

Instrument processing

A

The procedures involved in cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing dental instruments.

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8
Q

Instrument cleaning

A

The process of removing debris and contaminants from instruments to prepare them for sterilization.

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9
Q

Packaging materials

A

Materials used to wrap or contain instruments before sterilization.

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10
Q

Steam sterilization

A

A method of sterilization that uses steam under pressure to kill microorganisms.

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11
Q

Dry heat sterilization

A

A method of sterilization that uses hot air to kill microorganisms.

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12
Q

Unsaturated chemical vapor sterilization

A

A method of sterilization that uses a chemical solution to kill microorganisms.

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13
Q

Sterilization monitoring

A

The process of verifying that sterilization has been achieved and maintained.

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14
Q

Sterilization failure

A

The inability to achieve proper sterilization, which can be caused by various factors.

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15
Q

Sterilized instruments

A

Instruments that have undergone the sterilization process and are free from viable microorganisms.

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16
Q

Sterilization facility

A

A designated area within a dental office where instruments are sterilized.

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17
Q

Infection control

A

Measures taken to prevent the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings.

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18
Q

Decontamination

A

The process of reducing the number of microorganisms on surfaces and equipment.

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19
Q

Handpieces

A

Dental instruments used to perform dental procedures, such as drills.

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20
Q

Instrument Processing

A

Collection of procedures preparing contaminated instruments for reuse.

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21
Q

Critical Items

A

Patient care items categorized by CDC as having the highest potential risk of infection during use.

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22
Q

Semicritical Items

A

Patient care items categorized by CDC as having a lower risk of infection during use compared to critical items.

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23
Q

Noncritical Items

A

Patient care items categorized by CDC as having the lowest risk of infection during use.

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24
Q

Sterility Assurance

A

Ensuring correct performance of instrument processing steps and monitoring of sterilization with indicators for patient protection.

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25
Q

Biological Monitoring

A

Evaluation of sterilization effectiveness using live spores to detect sterilization failures.

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26
Q

Chemical Monitoring

A

Assessment of physical conditions during sterilization using heat-sensitive chemicals.

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27
Q

Mechanical Monitoring

A

Observation of sterilizer gauges and displays to record sterilizing temperature, pressure, and exposure time.

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28
Q

Instrument Sharpening

A

Process involving cleaning, sterilizing, sharpening, and re-sterilizing instruments to manage infection control.

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29
Q

Handpiece Asepsis

A

Cleaning, packaging, and sterilizing high-speed handpieces, reusable prophylaxis angles, nose cones, and slow-speed handpiece motors between patients.

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30
Q

Sterilization of Heat-Labile Items

A

Use of liquid sterilants for plastic-type items that would be damaged by heat processing.

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31
Q

Ethylene Oxide Gas

A

Method of sterilization using ethylene oxide gas.

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32
Q

Hydrogen Peroxide Gas Plasma

A

Method of sterilization using vaporized hydrogen peroxide gas plasma.

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33
Q

Bead Sterilizers

A

Method of sterilization using bead sterilizers.

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34
Q

Hot Oil Sterilizers

A

Method of sterilization using hot oil sterilizers.

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35
Q

Critical Patient Care Items

A

Category with the highest potential risk of infection during use

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36
Q

Semicritical Patient Care Items

A

Category with moderate potential risk of infection during use

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37
Q

Noncritical Patient Care Items

A

Category with low potential risk of infection during use

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38
Q

Steam Sterilization

A

Involves heating water to generate steam in a closed chamber for rapid microbial kill

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39
Q

Dry Heat Sterilization

A

Involves heating air with transfer of heat energy to instruments

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40
Q

Unsaturated Chemical Vapor Sterilization

A

Involves heating a special chemical solution in a closed chamber to produce hot chemical vapors for microbial kill

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41
Q

What are the 7 steps to instrument processing?

A

holding, precleaning, corrosion control, packaging, sterilization, sterilization monitoring, handling

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42
Q

safe transportation

A

this can be achieved by gathering instruments, trays, or cassettes while wearing heavy utility gloves and placed the items in a leakproof container with solid sides, labeled as biohazard

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43
Q

aluminum foil test

A

this tests to ensure an ultrasonic is working properly by placing this item halfway into the ultrasonic for 20 seconds and noting indentations and holes

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44
Q

packing instruments before processing

A

this helps maintain the sterility of the instruments after they are processed through the sterilizer by preventing them from being contaminated after sterilization during storage or when being distributed

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45
Q

What are the three types of sterilization?

A

steam, unsaturated chemical vapor, and dry heat

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46
Q

Spore Testing

A

provides the guarantee of sterilizations by verifying the correct functioning of sterilization cycles

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47
Q

in office monitoring

A

involves purchasing the appropriate supplies and equipment, analyzing the test and control BIs in the office, and preparing appropriate records

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48
Q

mail in monitoring

A

involves the office subscribing to a mail in sterilization monitoring service available from private companies or through some dental schools

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49
Q

stainless steel instruments

A

these are least affected by corrosion from moisture and heat

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50
Q

Why do dentists prefer carbon steel over stainless steel?

A

the cutting surfaces retain a sharp edge longer

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51
Q

carbon steel instruments

A

these corrode and lose sharpness during steam sterilization

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52
Q

What percentage of tungsten carbon burs lose their cutting efficiency after steam sterilization?

A

64%

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53
Q

handpieces

A

These need to be cleaned inside and out

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54
Q

Why do dentists prefer carbon steel over stainless steel?

A

the cutting surfaces retain a sharp edge longer

Example sentence: Dentists prefer carbon steel over stainless steel due to the longer retention of sharpness in cutting surfaces.

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55
Q

What percentage of tungsten carbon burs lose their cutting efficiency after steam sterilization?

A

64%

Example sentence: 64% of tungsten carbon burs lose their cutting efficiency after steam sterilization.

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56
Q

handpieces

A

These need to be cleaned inside and out because bacteria cannot be removed from the air and water lines

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57
Q

Glutaraldehyde

A

what is an alternative cleaning solutions for instruments that get damaged by heat such as shade guides, rulers, and x-ray collimating devices?

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58
Q

liquid sterilant/high-level disifectant

A

2-3% glutaraldehyde and 7% hydrogen peroxide

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59
Q

ethylene oxide gas

A

the use of this is recognized as a method of sterilization

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60
Q

vaporize hydrogen gas plasma

A

a more recently developed low temperature sterilizer involves _______________________________

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61
Q

Bead “sterilizers”

A

these perform a form of dry heat processing that heats glass beads to temps near 218°C and then drops the instruments into the hot beads

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62
Q

Why should we not use bead sterilizers?

A

BIs are not available and the temperatures can vary

Example sentence: Bead sterilizers should not be used due to the unavailability of BIs and the varying temperatures.

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63
Q

hot oil sterilizer

A

not commonly used today, but consist of a pan of mineral oil and a heater

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64
Q

why should we not use hot oil sterilizers?

A

uneven temperatures and effectiveness cannot be verified

Example sentence: Hot oil sterilizers should not be used due to the inability to verify effectiveness and the uneven temperatures.

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65
Q

How should one sterilize a plastic rubber dam frame?

A

liquid sterilant such as glutaraldehyde

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66
Q

A chemical indicator reveals that an item:

A

has been processed through a heat sterilizer

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67
Q

How should one load a sterilizer?

A

Place the packages on their edges

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68
Q

The rationale for packaging instruments before placing them into a sterilizer is to:

A

Maintain their sterility after sterilization

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69
Q

Spores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus are used to monitor what types of sterilizers?

A

Unsaturated, chemical vapor and steam

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70
Q

What type of sterilization causes carbon steel instruments to rust?

A

Steam

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71
Q

Spores of Bacillus atrophaeus are used to monitor what type of sterilizer?

A

Dry heat

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72
Q

The leading cause of sterilization failure is:

A

Overloading the sterilizer

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73
Q

The purpose of an aluminum foil test is to:

A

Determine whether an ultrasonic cleaner chamber has an even distribution of sonic energy

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74
Q

The main rationale for cleaning instruments before sterilization is to:

A

Give the sterilization procedure the best chance to work

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75
Q

Placing wet instruments into a dry heat, sterilizer or an unsaturated chemical vapor sterilize can:

A

Counteract the anti-rusting nature of the sterilizers

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76
Q

Instrument packages are wet after the sterilization portion of which of the following sterilizing cycles?

A

Steam

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77
Q

Wet packages should be allowed to dry inside the sterilizer because paper packaging material may tear on handling and because:

A

Of wicking

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78
Q

A high-speed handpiece that is destroyed at 149°C cannot be sterilized in:

A

A dry heat sterilizer

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79
Q

The active ingredient in the unsaturated chemical vapor sterilization process is:

A

Formaldehyde

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80
Q

The first thing to do after a sterilization failure is to:

A

Take the sterilizer out of service for processing patient care items

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81
Q

The sterilization process is described best as being:

A

Sporicidal

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82
Q

When analyzing sport test, Geobaccilus stearothermophilus is incubated at what temperature?

A

55°C

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83
Q

What sterility assurance procedure should be performed while setting up for the next patient?

A

The instrument packages should be observed for tears or punctures before being opened

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84
Q

Critical patient care items are to be cleaned and ______ for reuse

A

Sterilized

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85
Q

Clinical Contact Surfaces

A

Surfaces needing treatment before each patient interaction

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86
Q

Housekeeping Surfaces

A

Surfaces treated at the end of each day

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87
Q

Surface Barriers

A

Impervious covers to prevent microorganism contact

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88
Q

Precleaning

A

Reduces contaminating microorganisms before disinfection

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89
Q

Disinfectants

A

Chemicals killing microorganisms on surfaces

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90
Q

High-level Disinfectants

A

Kill all microorganisms on heat-sensitive objects

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91
Q

Intermediate-level Disinfectants

A

Kill bacteria, fungi, viruses, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis var. bovis

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92
Q

Low-level Disinfectants

A

Kill most bacteria, some fungi, and viruses

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93
Q

Antiseptics

A

Kill microorganisms on the skin

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94
Q

Sterilants

A

Kill microorganisms on inanimate objects

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95
Q

Virucidal

A

Kills at least some viruses

96
Q

Bactericidal

A

Kills at least some bacteria

97
Q

Fungicidal

A

Kills at least some fungi

98
Q

Tuberculocidal

A

Kills Mycobacterium tuberculosis var. bovis

99
Q

Sporicidal

A

Kills bacterial spores, acting as a sterilant

100
Q

Chlorine

A

An ingredient in surface disinfectants

101
Q

Iodophors

A

An ingredient in surface disinfectants

102
Q

Alcohols

A

An ingredient in surface disinfectants

103
Q

Synthetic Phenolics

A

An ingredient in surface disinfectants

104
Q

Hydrogen Peroxides

A

An ingredient in surface disinfectants

105
Q

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds

A

An ingredient in surface disinfectants

106
Q

CDC Recommendations

A

Guidelines for surface asepsis including barrier protection and cleaning

107
Q

Equipment Decontamination

A

Preventing contamination and using heat sterilization

108
Q

Aseptic Distribution

A

Sterile retrieval and distribution of dental supplies

109
Q

Droplet, direct, indirect

A

How do dental environment services become contaminated? (3 ways)

110
Q

Weeks

A

How long do the hepatitis C and B viruses and mycobacterium tuberculosis survive on enviromental surfaces?

111
Q

1-3 days

A

How long does SARS-COV-2 (covid-19) survive on environmental surfaces?

112
Q

The nature of the microbe, self, humidity, temperature, presence of organic material, the nature of the environmental surface, and the amount of contaminant present

A

What factors affects how long a virus can survive on an environmental surface?

113
Q

Months

A

How long does methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) survive on environmental surfaces?

114
Q

Prevent the surface or item from becoming contaminated, using a surface barrier, pre-clean and disinfect the surface after contamination and before reuse

A

What are the two general approaches to surface asepsis?

115
Q

Surface barriers

A

Should be impervious to fluids to keep the microorganisms in saliva, blood, and other liquids from soaking to contact the surface

116
Q

Clear, plastic wrap, bags, or tubes, plastic backed paper

A

What are some examples of surface barriers?

117
Q

Prevents contamination, protect surfaces that are difficult to pre-clean may be less time-consuming to perform

A

What are three advantages to surface barriers?

118
Q

A variety of appropriate sizes and types may be needed, adds non-biodegradable plastic to the environment, may be aesthetically unattractive, may be more expensive than pre-cleaning and disinfection

A

What are four disadvantages to surface barriers?

119
Q

True

A

True or false: sizes and shapes of surfaces to be covered vary from one office to the next, but general procedures for use of surface covers are the same.

120
Q

Pre-cleaning and disinfection

A

These best lend themselves to non-electric services that are smooth and easily accessible for facilitating good contact with the decontaminating chemicals

121
Q

Bioburden

A

Another name for blood, saliva or bodily fluids present

122
Q

Pre-cleaning

A

Reduces the number of contaminating microorganisms and the bio burden and facilitates action of the disinfecting chemical

123
Q

Spray wipe spray, wipe discard wipe

A

What are the two approaches to pre-cleaning and disinfection?

124
Q

Spray wipe spray

A

Using a liquid cleaner/disinfectant

125
Q

Wipe discard wipe

A

Using a disinfectant towelette

126
Q

Antibiotics, antiseptic, disinfectants, sterilants

A

What are the four general types of antimicrobial chemicals?

127
Q

Antibiotics

A

For killing microorganisms in or on the body

128
Q

Antiseptics

A

For killing microorganisms on the skin or other body surfaces

129
Q

Disinfectants

A

For killing microorganisms on environmental/inanimate surfaces or objects

130
Q

Sterilants

A

For killing all microorganisms on inanimate objects

131
Q

Sterilant/high-level disinfectant

A

For killing all microorganisms on submerged, inanimate, heat, sensitive objects

132
Q

Intermediate level disinfectant

A

for killing vegetative bacteria, most fungi, viruses, and M. tuberculosis var. bovis

133
Q

Low level disinfectant

A

For killing most vegetative bacteria, some fungi, and some viruses

134
Q

Virucidal

A

Kills at least some viruses

135
Q

Bactericidal

A

Kills at least some bacteria

136
Q

Fungicidal

A

Kills at least some fungi

137
Q

Tuberculocidal

A

Kills the M. tuberculosis var. bovis bacterium

138
Q

Sporicidal

A

Kills bacterial spores, which means it is a sterilant

139
Q

True

A

True or False: No perfect disinfectant exists that will kill all types of disease producing microorganisms rapidly have no toxic properties be unaffected by organic materials be odorless not cause any damage to any surface and be economical.

140
Q

Heat sensitive, reusable items immersion only (gluteraldehyde)

A

What is the use for a sterilant and a high-level disinfectant?

141
Q

Clinical contact surfaces: non-critical surfaces with visible blood

A

What is the use for an immediate level disinfectant

142
Q

Housekeeping surfaces, non-critical surfaces without visible blood, clinical contact surfaces

A

What is the use for a low level disinfectant?

143
Q

Chlorine compounds, Idophors, alcohols, synthetic phenolics, hydrogen peroxide, quarternary ammonium compounds

A

What are some active ingredients in surface disinfectants?

144
Q

Barrier protectants, between ever patient

A

The CDC recommends using these to protect clinical contact services particularly those that are difficult to clean. How often should they be changed out?

145
Q

Heat sterilization

A

One should try to prevent the equipment from becoming contaminated in the first place, but if this is not possible, what should be used first?

146
Q

Follow manufacturer IFU

A

Some technologies, such as computers, cameras, and digital x-ray sensors can be hard to clean. What should you do?

147
Q

Cotton pliers

A

What can you use for aseptic retrieval?

148
Q

Unit dosing

A

Different supply items are distributed or packaged in small numbers sufficient for treatment of just one patient and are placed at chair side before treatment begins

149
Q

Low-level disinfectant

A

What type of antimicrobial agent should be used on the floor?

150
Q

Low-level disinfectant

A

What antimicrobial agent should not be used for service disinfection in dentistry

151
Q

Quarternary ammonium compound

A

Which agent is not tuberculocidal?

152
Q

Surfaces that are difficult to clean (light switches)

A

What types of surfaces should be covered rather than disinfected?

153
Q

Because tuberculosis is one of the more resistant microbes to kill

A

Why should disinfectants used on clinical contact services and dentistry contaminated with blood or saliva have tuberculocidal activity?

154
Q

Heat sensitive

A

Liquid sterilants such as gluteraldegyde should be used only on reusable items that can be submerged and are:

155
Q

Paper

A

One should not use _____ as a surface cover

156
Q

Start the microbial killing process and helps protect the person doing the cleaning

A

Use of a disinfectant type cleaner to pre-clean a contaminated operatory surface:

157
Q

Sterilization will occur when the solution is used only for the longer exposure times

A

When can a liquid sterilant/high-level disinfectant achieve sterilization?

158
Q

Infectious diseases The third leading cause of death in the US & second leading cause worldwide

A
159
Q

Emerging disease New infectious diseases that have not been recognized before as well as known infectious diseases with changing patterns

A
160
Q

Zoonotic diseases Ecological changes that result in disease emergent usually involve these which involve animals or insect borne diseases

A
161
Q

Korean hemorrhagic fever This is an example of a zoonotic disease. It includes high fever and internal bleeding

A

which is caused by the hantaan virus from rodents.

162
Q

Hepatitis G What is the newest form of hepatitis?

A
163
Q

1995 When was the newest type of hepatitis

A

a.k.a. hepatitis G recognized?

164
Q

Ecological changes Examples include Argentine hemorrhagic fever

A

Bolivian hemorrhagic fever

165
Q

Changes in human demographics or behaviors Examples include hepatitis

A

BMC

166
Q

International travel and commerce Examples include cholera

A

encephalitis

167
Q

Technology Examples include escherichia coil hemolytic uremia syndrome

A

hepatitis

168
Q

Microbial changes Examples include infections with antibiotic resistant strains

A

influenza

169
Q

Breakdown in public health measures Examples include cryptoporidiosis

A

diptheria

170
Q

Human population movements This is also called changes and how human beings associate with each other and can create new conditions that favor disease spread

A
171
Q

Crowding This leads to transference

A
172
Q

Microorganisms We carry these with us when we travel and can spread them easily to others and far away lands

A
173
Q

Severe acute respiratory syndrome SARS stands for

A
174
Q

International travel How are the three coronavirus diseases spread in China and the Middle East?

A
175
Q

2003 What year was severe acute respiratory syndrome recognized?

A
176
Q

Technology This creates new ways to bring microorganisms and human beings together

A
177
Q

1993 What year was hamburger meat contaminated with raw material causing a spread of ecoli over 4 states in the northwest?

A
178
Q

1994 What year was approximately 4000 cases of salmonella food poisoning occurring in 36 states spread by the contamination of a batch of ice cream mix processed by a large food company?

A
179
Q

Eggs What is the leading source of salmonella in the United States?

A
180
Q

Mutations Sometimes do not cause death and occasionally make the microorganism more difficult to kill

A
181
Q

Super bugs What is another name for multidrug resistant organisms or MDROs?

A
182
Q

Maintained Public health measures to protect against the spread of infectious diseases must be what to remain effective?

A
183
Q

1994 The Soviet union formally known as the USSR relaxed its vaccine programs in what year? This caused 45

A

000 new cases of diphtheria.

184
Q

1976 What year was Ebola hemorrhagic fever first recognized with two outbreaks one in the DRC and one in southern Sudan?

A
185
Q

Ebola This is a rapidly progressing

A

viral disease that causes high fever with bleeding from multiple sites and the ultimate shutdown of major organs

186
Q

Has not been recognized before An emerging disease is a disease that

A
187
Q

1970 Hand foot and mouth disease caused by coxsackievirus was first recognized in what year?

A
188
Q

Ecological changes What caused the hantavirus pulmonary syndrome to emerge?

A
189
Q

Development of new technologies What caused legionnaires disease to emerge?

A
190
Q

A coronavirus Severe acute respiratory syndrome is caused by

A
191
Q

Infectious Disease

A

Occurs when organisms in the body multiply and cause damage to the tissues. It can be endogenous or exogenous.

192
Q

Endogenous

A

Type of infectious disease caused by organisms already present in the body. (cavities and perio)

193
Q

Exogenous

A

Type of infectious disease caused by organisms that enter from outside the body. (strep and hep b)

194
Q

Direct Contact

A

Mode of transmission where microorganisms spread through physical contact such as the patients mouth

195
Q

Indirect Contact

A

Mode of transmission where microorganisms spread through contact with contaminated objects such as surfaces, hands, or contaminated sharps

196
Q

Droplet Infection

A

Mode of transmission where microorganisms spread through contact with the larger droplets in sprays, splashes, or splatter containing microorganisms

197
Q

Airborne Infection

A

Mode of transmission where microorganisms spread through contact with the smaller droplet nuclei (aerosol) containing microorganisms

198
Q

Portals of Entry

A

Four basic routes for microorganisms to enter the body: inhalation, ingestion, mucous membranes, breaks in the skin.

199
Q

Innate Defenders

A

Host defense mechanisms that are present at birth and include physical, mechanical, antimicrobial, and cellular barriers.

200
Q

Acquired Defenders

A

Host defense mechanisms that are developed over time, including acquired immunity.

201
Q

Acquired Immunity

A

The body’s defense system against invading microorganisms, developed over time.

202
Q

Long-Term Immunity

A

The body’s ability to remember and destroy invading microorganisms to prevent the same disease from recurring.

203
Q

Artificial Immunity

A

Immunity acquired through vaccination or immunization against specific diseases.

204
Q

Damage by the Immune System

A

Immune system activation by certain antigens can lead to damage, usually at the site of allergen exposure.

205
Q

endogenous and exogenous

A

what are the two types of infectious disease?

206
Q

source of microorganism, escape from microorganism from the source, spread of microorganism to a new person, entry of a microorganism to a new person, entry of a microorganism into the person, infection, damage to the body

A

what are the 6 steps that exogenous infectious disease develop from?

207
Q

incubation, prodromal, acute, and convalescent

A

what are the four stages of infectious disease?

208
Q

μm

A

how microns are measured

209
Q

50 μm

A

the width of a hair

210
Q

inhalation, ingestion, mucous membrane, breaks in the skin

A

what are the four routes of entry of microorganisms into the body?

211
Q

inhalation

A

breathing aerosol particles generated from use of prophylaxes angle

212
Q

ingestion

A

swallowing droplets of saliva/blood spattered into the mouth

213
Q

mucous membranes

A

droplets of saliva/blood splattered into the eyes, nose, and mouth

214
Q

breaks in the skin

A

directly touching microorganisms or being spattered with saliva/blood onto skin with cuts or abrasions; punctures with contaminated sharps

215
Q

incubation stage

A

period from the initial entrance of the infectious agent into the body to the time when the first symptoms of the disease appear

216
Q

prodromal stage

A

stage of disease that involves the appearance of early symptoms

217
Q

acute stage

A

When symptoms of the disease are maximal and the person is obviously ill.

218
Q

convalescent stage

A

the recovery phase

219
Q

droplet nuclei

A

aerosol particles that contain microorganisms and have dehydrated to a size of less than 5μm

220
Q

harmful

A

microorganisms must multiply to this level for disease to occur

221
Q

microorganisms

A

present on or in the body and multiple if the conditions are appropriate

222
Q

health/disease

A

the body attempts to restrict microbial invasion and multiplication and to counteract harmful microbial products, the result of this is _________

223
Q

dental caries

A

when bacterial attachment to host surfaces in the mouth it can cause _______

224
Q

enhancement of infection

A
  • Microorganisms present on or in the body multiply if the conditions are appropriate
225
Q
  • The body attempts to counteract harmful microbial products
A
226
Q
  • The result of these interactions is health or disease
A
227
Q

bateria

A

kills cells or damage tissue

228
Q

viruses

A

damage by killing or interfering with normal cell function

229
Q

interferes with host defenses

A

many microorganisms are pathogenic and interfere with this, causing direct damage to body

230
Q

innate and acquired defenders

A

host defenses consist of four groups and are grouped into what two catergories?

231
Q

physical barriers, mechanical barriers, antimicrobial chemicals, and cellular barriers

A

what are the four groups of properties or activities of the body that guard against infection by contaminating microorganisms (innate host defenses)?

232
Q

acquired immunity

A

the body’s natural defense against infection and has a special host defense system directed against invading microorganisms

233
Q

long term immunity

A

The body remembers and organism and can respond rapidly to destroy it before it can damage the body

234
Q

artificial immunity

A

being immunized or vaccinated against a specific disease and can be tested using a titer

235
Q

damage to the body

A

activation of the immune system by certain antigens can cause this, which usually occurs at the body site exposed to the allergen

Infection Control (1 decks)

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