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Advanced Bioscience 2 > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

You are performing a preoperative assessment on a patient with Hemophilia A. You know Hemophilia A is an abnormality of which clotting factor?

A

factor VIII

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2
Q

Normal coagulation is a balance between hemostatic and fibrinolytic properties. The “viscious triad” of elements associated with trauma that can create or exacerbate coagulopathy include:

A

hypothermia
acidosis
hemodilution

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3
Q

According to the Society of Ambulatory Anesthsia guidelines for the management of PONV, the proper time to administer dexamethasone for the prevention of PONV is_____________, and the suggested dose is _______________.

A

at induction; 4-5 mg IV

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4
Q

When a patient undergoing general anesthesia is hyperventilated to a state of alkalosis, intracellular potassium levels _____________ while serum potassium levels __________________.

A

increase; decrease

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5
Q

Adam loves Obama & wears pink thongs

A

true

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6
Q

Decreasing afferent tone (dilation of the afferent renal artery) will have the following effects CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY

A

increasing GFR

increasing glomerular blood flow

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7
Q

Your patient has a Hgb of 7 mg/dL. Based on this finding, you would expect what change, if any, to this patient’s oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

shift right

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8
Q

The leading cause of liver failure in the USA is

A

acetaminophen overdose

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9
Q

A shift to the right of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve decreases the partial pressure at which 50% of hemoglobin is saturated with oxygen

A

False

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10
Q

A loss of sodium in excess of water is a more common cause of hyponatremia than an excess of total body water.

A

False

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11
Q

Increased sympathetic nervous system stimulation initiates renin secretion. Renin begins the process of _____________ more sodium from the renal tubule.

A

retaining

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12
Q

The majority of solute in the ultrafiltrate is reabsorbed via the

A

proximal tubule

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13
Q

The final stage in the pathogenesis of chronic renal failure is

A

glomerulosclerosis

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14
Q

Proteins secreted into the ultrafiltrate can be easily reabsorbed completely intact across the tubular membranes.

A

False

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15
Q

Which of the following is a benefit of utilizing normovolemic hemodilution as a blood conservation technique?

A

All of the above are benefits

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16
Q

Adriamycin is a chemotherapeutic agent commonly known to cause impaired cardiac contractility. This type of cardiac dysfunction is referred to as

A

systolic dysfunction

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17
Q

Your patient in septic shock is undergoing massive tissue debridement for necrotizing faciitis. The patient is on norepinephrine at 30 mcg/min and vasopressin at 0.04u/hr. The starting Hct is 38% and the Lactate level is 5.0 mmol/L. ABG is 7.11/34/197 with bicarb at 17. You resuscitate with 6 liters of normal saline and give 100 mEq sodium bicarbonate as the patient is still hypotensive with a systolic BP of 75. After resuscitation, you are able to wean off the vasopressin but still require levophed at 12 mcg/min. Lactate is now 2.0. You repeat the ABG and get the following results. ph 7.24/pCO2 40/ pO2 143 HCO3 22. The most likely cause of refractory acidosis is
Answer

A

hyperchloremic acidosis

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18
Q

The kidneys are primarily responsible for regulating free water concentration in the body.

A

False

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19
Q

Anti-parasympathetic medications may cause

A

urinary retention

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20
Q

Obese patients must be well-preoxygenated before induction of general anesthesia. This is due to their decrease in functional residual capacity, but not total lung capacity.

A

False

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21
Q

In response to injury, the capillaries

A

allows more albumin to escape the vascular space

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22
Q

Increased ____________ increases gut absorption of calcium, while ______________ stimulates bone formation, decreasing plasma calcium levels.

A

calcitriol; calcitonin

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23
Q

Large, negatively charged molecules have a more difficult time penetrating gomerular barriers to enter the ultrafiltrate.

A

True

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24
Q

Iron deficiency anemia is classified as

A

microcytic hypochromic

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25
Q

The kidneys receive what percentage of the total cardiac output?

A

25%

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26
Q

Enzyme immunoassays are the most sensitive & specific tests to confirm heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but not the most rapid

A

False

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27
Q

You are evaluating a patient preoperatively for a laproscopic cholecystectomy. You note a recent ABG measurement in the chart. Results are pH 7.37 pCO2 57 pO2 65 HCO3 34 Hgb 18 SpO2 93%. The patient has a long history of smoking and is in no distress. The patient has no chronic renal disease. This patient can be classified as having a

A

fully compensated chronic respiratory acidosis

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28
Q

Which of the following can precipitate sickling of RBCs in the patient with homozygous sickle cell disease?

A

hypothermia
PaO2 40 mmHg
septic shock

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29
Q

The initial phase of hemostasis is

A

formation of the platelet plug

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30
Q

All of the following statements are true regarding hepatic physiology EXCEPT:

A

The liver receives 40% of the total cardiac output

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31
Q

Which of the following commonly used opiate or opiod medications have active metabolites which may prolong respiratory depression in the patient with renal failure?

A

demerol & morphine

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32
Q

As with all surgeries, gastric bypass has complications associated with the procedure. The most common cause for reoperation after gastric bypass is

A

anastamotic leaks

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33
Q

Which of the following factors are NOT part of the final common pathway?

A

IV

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34
Q

Patients being treated with alkylating chemotherapy drugs can experience which of the following complications?

A

prolonged response to succinylcholine

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35
Q

Your patient has been febrile for the past 24 hours. No maintenance fluids have been infusing for the past 12 hours. You would expect your patient to be _______________ with a(n) _______________ sodium level

A

hypovolemic; increased

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36
Q

Symptoms associated with TURP syndrome are caused by

A

free water excess

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37
Q

ADH exerts its action by

A

stimulating the kidney to retain more water

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38
Q

l-arginine vasopressin is secreted by the

A

posterior pituitary

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39
Q

Blood flow TO the glomerulus is provided via the ____________ renal artery. The resting tone of this vessel is primarily regulated by ____________.

A

afferent; prostaglandins

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40
Q

Zenker’s diverticulum is a contraindication to TEE insertion.

A

True

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41
Q

In differentiating nephrotic versus nephritic syndrome, the patient with nephrotic syndrome will present with ________________ without _________________.

A

massive proteinuria; hematuria

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42
Q

You are evaluating a patient in preoperative holding. The patient’s BUN is 18 and the creatinine is 3.6. This patient has azotemia because the patient is clearly in chronic renal failure.

A

False

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43
Q

The cause of the restrictive ventilatory defect in obese patients is

A

Both A & B

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44
Q

Hyperkalemia potentiates neuromuscular blockade by decreasing the excitablity of the skeletal muscle cell.

A

True

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45
Q

Mallory-Weis tear at the GE junction is closely associated with chronic alcohol abuse. The most common signs/symptoms are

A

upper abdominal pain and bloody vomitus

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46
Q

The only test available to evaluate all properties of clot formation & strength is the

A

thromboelastograph

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47
Q

The blood bank product which contains the most fibrinogen is

A

cryoprecipitate

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48
Q

When there is exposure of collagen from damage to the endothelium, the intrinsic clotting pathway is activated.

A

True

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49
Q

Portal hypertension can lead to hypersplenism, which can result in

A

platelet trapping & thrombocytopenia

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50
Q

Patients who live at altitude (Denver, CO or Himalayan mtns) are often found to be polycythemic. This polycythemia is created by increased levels of erythropoietin as a result of lower atmospheric pressure.

A

False

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51
Q

Which of the following is NOT a renal protective benefit of utilizing ACE-I/ARB medical therapy in patients with chronic renal insufficiency or failure?

A

decrease in coagulopathy

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52
Q

You are caring for an 18y/o patient who has experienced partial thickness burns to the upper chest, arms and chin. The patients lips do not appear damaged but have swollen to twice their normal size. Your next best action should be

A

intubate the patient immediately

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53
Q

One of the most common complications associated with total thyroidectomy is hypocalcemia. In this setting, acute hypocalcemia is caused by

A

acute hypoparathyroidism

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54
Q

Patients taking Aricept may experience a resistance to the effects of succinylcholine.

A

False

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55
Q

Diabetic retinopathy neovascularization is caused primarily by decreased vascular endothelial growth factor.

A

False

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56
Q

Which of the following anesthetic techniques is suitable for the patient susceptible to malignant hyperthermia AND the patient with muscular dystrophy?

A

Regional anesthesia with supplemental oxygen from a flushed & clean circuit

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57
Q

In hypothyroidism, TSH levels are decreased.

A

False

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58
Q

Chronic hyperglycemia contributes to atherosclerotic development by the action of ______________ on collagen function.

A

advanced glycation end products

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59
Q

Garlic can contribute to intraoperative bleeding by

A

promoting fibrinolysis

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60
Q

Which THREE of the following choices are implicated in the destruction of insulin-producing cells?

A

T lymphocytes
cytokines
autoantibodies

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61
Q

A very high IgG response indicates

A

an established response to secondary exposure to an antigen

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62
Q

Circulating auto-antibodies in the patient with SLE can damage glomerular basement membranes, leading to decreased permeability to plasma proteins.

A

False

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63
Q

In the patient experiencing septic shock, a stroke volume variation of 22% indicates the patients cardiac output will respond positively to additional volume administration.

A

True

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64
Q

The most common cause of death in sepsis/sirs is multi-organ system failure

A

True

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65
Q

Which of the options below is the best means of preventing nosocomial infection in the hospital environment?

A

handwashing before & after each contact

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66
Q

Which of the following are indices of global hypoperfusion? CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY

A

elevated serum lactate

low mixed venous oxygen saturation

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67
Q

Low doses of THC can cause

A

increased sympathetic activity

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68
Q

You are managing a Level 1 trauma patient after MVA with grade 3 liver laceration. Your patient has a history of steroid-dependent COPD. You are experiencing persistent hypotension despite surgical control of hemorrhage and adequate volume resuscitation. Levophed infusion at 20 mcg/min is not adequately increasing your systemic BP. From the choices below, the best action to take next would be:

A

100 mg Hydrocortisone IV

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69
Q

In the geriatric patient, you would expect to see an exaggerated sympathetic nervous system response to an acute drop in systemic blood pressure

A

False

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70
Q

In major burn injury, intravascular hypovolemia is caused by which of the following processes? CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY

A

evaporation through damaged skin layer;

extravasation to the damaged tissue via the inflammatory response

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71
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding carcinoid syndrome?

A

elevated serotonin levels can result in left-sided heart failure

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72
Q

Which of the following herbal supplements have been shown to possess anticoagulant effects? CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY

A

garlic, ginger, ginko biloba, ginseng, fever few

73
Q

The most common organ systems affected by SLE include all of the following EXCEPT

A

musculoskeletal

74
Q

Low percentages of central or mixed venous oxygen saturation can indicate which of the following? CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY

A

increased oxygen extraction

decreased oxygen delivery

75
Q

Cardiac changes associated with Duchenne MD included a fibrotic LV and dilated cardiomyopathy.

A

True

76
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in the systemic inflammatory response associated with sepsis?

A

increased glomerular filtration in response to accumulation of bacterial endotoxin

77
Q

The reason most carcinoid tumors are never diagnosed is clinically significant carcinoid syndrome occurs only in approximately 10% of patients.

A

True

78
Q

Most carcinoid tumors originate from the

A

midgut

79
Q

The pupillary response to administration of an opioid is termed mydriasis.

A

False

80
Q

Anaphylaxis is a _____________ hypersensitivity response

A

Type I

81
Q

Patients experiencing myxedema coma may experience which of the following intraoperative issues? CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY

A

exaggerated hypotension caused by VAA; decreased cardiac output; blunted baroreceptor response to hypotension

82
Q

Drugs to avoid in the patient with pheochromocytoma include those with the potential to release ______________ which may then stimulate ______________ release.

A

histamine; catecholamine

83
Q

One significant anesthetic implication of Emery-Dreifuss MD is

A

contractures in neck muscles creating difficulty for airway positioning

84
Q

Your septic patient has a CVP of 15 mmHg. This patient WILL NOT be responsive to additional administration of volume. This statement is

A

false because CVP measurement is not a dynamic indicator of volume status

85
Q

Which of the following is NOT an absolute end-point for surgery on a burn patient?

A

burn severity requiring removing all tissue down to muscle

86
Q

Glucagon promotes the action of insulin by facilitating gluconeogenesis.

A

False

87
Q

You are preparing to intubate your patient with rheumatoid arthritis via a standard DL. Without careful attention to head position & cervical spine manipulation, you know your patient may experience protrusion of the ______________ into the ______________.

A

odontoid process; foramen magnum

88
Q

You are monitoring stroke volume variation on your septic patient in the operating room. The patient is in a sinus rhythm and the ventilator is set to deliver tidal volumes of 5 ml/kg. You would expect the SVV to be

A

falsely reduced

89
Q

OSA patients experience frequent episodes of apnea defined as a 50% reduction in airflow for more than 10 seconds that occur at least 15 times per hour of sleep sufficient to result in a 4% decrease in O2 saturations.

A

False

90
Q

Metabolic rate can more than double in the patient who experiences partial-thickness burns over >50% BSA.

A

True

91
Q

Mineralocorticoids (i.e. aldosterone) are secreted from the

A

adrenal cortex

92
Q

Multiple Sclerosis is an autoimmune disorder resulting in a decreased dopamine secretion from pre-synaptic vesicles.

A

False

93
Q

The chief hallmark of _________________ is a severe lack of insulin; while the chief hallmark of ______________ is resistance to the effects of insulin.

A

Type 1 diabetes; type II diabetes

94
Q

Which of the following is NOT a consideration for anesthesia in the chronic alcoholic?

A

rapid gastric emtying (dumping syndrome)

95
Q

Typical muscle weakness caused by Duchenne & Becker MD is experienced in which muscle groups?

A

shoulders, pelvis, calves

96
Q

The most common pathogen associated with central venous catheter related bacterial infections is

A

Staphylococcus

97
Q

Diabetic neuropathy is an absolute contraindication to neuraxial anesthesia.

A

False

98
Q

Pheochromocytoma most commonly secretes

A

norepinephrine

99
Q

Patients with carcinoid tumors don’t always exhibit symptoms associated with hormone release due to:

A

Hepatic first-pass metabolism eliminates the hormones from the circulatory system

100
Q

Using the Medtronic Nerve Integrity Monitoring (NIM) tube during total thyroidectomy allows monitoring for damage to the

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

101
Q

Which of the medications below would be contraindicated in the patient with Parkinson’s

A

promethazine

102
Q

Propanolol is an appropriate pharmachologic therapy for treating tachycardia associated with pheochromocytoma

A

False

103
Q

After the demyelination associated with multiple sclerosis occurs, regeneration of myelin can occur with proper therapy

A

False

104
Q

Extreme hypothyroidism characterized by impaired mentation, hypoventilation, hypothermia, hyponatremia, and congestive heart failure is termed “Addison’s Disease”.

A

False

105
Q

In the geriatric patient, decreases in chest wall compliance and weakening of the respiratory muscles lead to

A

decreaed FVC and FEV1

106
Q

Thyroid storm may mimic malignant hyperthermia but one chief difference is the absence of _______________ in the patient with thyroid storm

A

persistent rise in EtCO2

107
Q

In the patient experiencing a systemic inflammatory response, serum albumin level is typically ___________; leading to an _________________effect from highly protein-bound medications.

A

low; increased

108
Q

Lab results indicating elevated C3 & C4 (complement) levels are indicative of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A

False

109
Q

Patients with SLE can develop which of the following pulmonary complications? CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY

A

acute pneumonitis;

interstitial lung disease

110
Q

For the patient experiencing refractory hypotension in the setting of sepsis, the first drug of choice for increasing systemic perfusion would be

A

norepinephrine infusion

111
Q

The high associated with cocaine use is a result of

A

increased levels of synaptic norepinephrine & dopamine

112
Q

Management of thyroid storm includes the administration of

A

beta-adrenergic antagonists

113
Q

Major trauma can be considered an acquired form of immune deficiency.

A

True

114
Q

In relation to Duchenne MD, which of the following is NOT TRUE in regards to the dystrophin complex?

A

Dystrophin is normally only present in caridac & smooth muscle

115
Q

The anesthetic requirement for a patient acutely intoxicated on ethanol, benzodiazepines, opiates, or tetrahydrocannabinol would be

A

decreased

116
Q

Which of the following drugs should be avoided in the management of hypertensive crisis associated with cocaine overdose?

A

propanolol

117
Q

During your preoperative evaluation, your patient with non-insulin dependent diabetes states he cannot extend his fingers and often gets a “stiff neck”. He states his blood glucose levels are generally well controlled. You suspect

A

glycosylation of connective tissue & difficult airway

118
Q

In type II diabetes; the liver production of glucose (gluconeogenesis) is NOT inhibited by increased insulin production

A

True

119
Q

Insulin is produced in the ______________ cells of the pancreas and its production is stimulated by increases in levels of _____________ in the bloodstream.

A

beta; glucose

120
Q

Acute intravascular hemolysis is a slow, exaggerated IgG response to ABO incompatibility.

A

False

121
Q

The physical signs & symptoms of long-term exogenous glucocorticoid use can be termed

A

Cushing’s disease

122
Q

Although many substances may be secreted, the majority of midgut carcinoid tumors secrete

A

serotonin

123
Q

Common initial presentation of patients with pheochromocytoma is hypertensive crisis. Some common sequelae of hypertensive crisis are: CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY

A

CVA
AMI
pulmonary edema

124
Q

A very fast, non-specific immune reponse is characteristic of the

A

innate immune system

125
Q

In the geriatric patient, the prolonged response to lipid-soluble drugs is due to the increased volume of distribution present for those drugs

A

True

126
Q

The most common valvular lesion associated with SLE is

A

mitral regurgitation

127
Q

NSAIDs should be used with caution in geriatric patients because GFR is ______________ as a result of increased age

A

reduced

128
Q

Brain function is impaired when plasma glucose levels fall below

A

50mg/dl

129
Q

All of the following can be signs/symptoms of diabetic autonomic neuropathy EXCEPT

A

increased heart rate variability

130
Q

The systemic features of acute pancreatitis can be attributed to the activation of the

A

systemic inflammatory response

131
Q

Autonomic neuropathy, as may be present in the long-term diabetic can cause which of the following?

A

all of the above

132
Q

Signs of HIT

A

thrombocytopenia/enlargement of clot

133
Q

first manifestation of rhabdo

A

hyperkalemia cardiac arrest

134
Q

MD pts have decreased gastric reflexed and prolonged gastric emptying. To prevent aspiration, CRNA should do all EXCEPT:

A

RSI with Sux

135
Q

If both dechennes and beckers have deficits in chromosome xp21 on mutated gene dp427, what is main difference in the 2 related to dystrophin?

A

neither of the above are correct

136
Q

What makes CRNA proficient in dealing with organophosphate poisoning?

A

We are airway experts and ANS experts

137
Q

Agent given to prevent aging r/t syran gas?

A

Parlidoximesiv

138
Q

How to treat cyran nerve gas attack?

A

atropine

139
Q

Where in the cell does cyran nerve gas cell act?

A

synaptic junction that inhibits the breakdown of ACH by covalent bond with acetylcholinesterase

140
Q

Best predictor of postoperative function is patient’s report of tolerance and daily activities true or false

A

true

141
Q

cognitive function declines linearly w/structural changes of CNS true or false

A

false

142
Q

which of the following preoperative laboratory tests would be appropriate for Mr Jones?

A

none of the above

143
Q

Which of the following changes in respiratory function would the anesthetist expect to see in the elderly?

A

increased physiologic shunt, decreased PaO2, decreased TLC

144
Q

Agents to avoid in carcinoid tumors?

A

Succs and morphine

145
Q

Carcinoid tumors secrete what?

A

serotonin, kalycreins, histamine

146
Q

Carcinoid tumors effect what side of the heart?

A

right side

147
Q

ALT and AST elevated and nothing else?

A

tarenchamal

148
Q

Blow flow to the liver?

A

20% portal vein, 70% hepatic artery

149
Q

Most common type of generalized systemic polyneuropathies?

A

distal axonal

150
Q

Pts with MS should be paralyzed with depolarizing muscle relaxers?

A

false

151
Q

What stage of parkinson’s is associated with bilateral involvement but balance is still intact?

A

Stage 2

152
Q

Most practical assessment tool for OSA?

A

STOP BANG

153
Q

Medications that won’t worsen OSA

A

Precedex and ketamine

154
Q

Which component of the anesthetic management is least beneficial for pt w/renal insufficiency?

A

PEEP

155
Q

Effect of renal function on pharmacokinetics of drugs is most dramatic with which opioid?

A

morphine

156
Q

Cells begin to sickle with sickle cell at ______ PaO2 and trait at __________ PaO2?

A

30-40; 20-30

157
Q

Increased 2,3 DPG causes a shift to the _____.

A

right

158
Q

Hemophilia A causes a prolonged _____

A

PTT

159
Q

Fat soluble drugs have what effect in the elderly?

A

prolonged

160
Q

With aged men, there is a __________ effect with sux because they have __________

A

prolonged; lower plasma cholinesterase

161
Q

In the elderly, onset of drug is determined by:

A

prolonged circulation time

162
Q

MG is associated with dysfunction of the thyroid T or F?

A

false

163
Q

Myastenias Gravis patients have decreased sensitivity to nondepolarizing muscle relaxers T or F

A

false

164
Q

RA can have ___________ ____________

A

cervical instability

165
Q

With small pox, there are more pox on the _______

A

arms and legs

166
Q

Widened mediastinum without infiltrates indicates?

A

anthrax exposure

167
Q

Most common cause of death for SLE (list 3)

A

CAD, renal failure, infection

168
Q

Most common pulmonary structure effected by SLE?

A

pleura

169
Q

Person at highest risk for SLE?

A

young black pregnant chick

170
Q

2 types of anorexia nervosa?

A

restricting type, binge-eating/purging type

171
Q

Subtypes of men syndrome?

A

Men 1, 2a, 2b

172
Q

What causes diabetics to become stiff?

A

AGE products

173
Q

1 unit of insulin lowers the blood glucose by:

A

25-30

174
Q

Ideal anesthetic for diabetics?

A

neither - both have risks that must be addressed

175
Q

People w/diabetes have increased norepinephrine resulting in tachycardia t or f

A

false

176
Q

What anemia can cause skeletal malformations?

A

Thallasemia

177
Q

MCV 90 and MCHC 30 what type of anemia?

A

normocytic hypochromic

178
Q

Vitamins involved in the production and maturation of erythrocytes include:

A

B12 and B9

Advanced Bioscience 2 (1 decks)

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